To prove :That if f is a greatest integer function, and a, b, f ( b ) − f ( a ) ≥ ( n + 1 ) − n = 1 are real numbers then there is no real number c such that f ( b ) − f ( a ) = f ′ ( c ) ( b − a ) . Also. Explain why this does not contradicts the mean value theorem.

Question

Want to see the full answer?

Answer 1

Question

Chapter 4.2, Problem 28E

To determine

To prove:That if f is a greatest integer function, and a, b, f(b)−f(a)≥(n+1)−n=1 are real numbers then there is no real number c such that f(b)−f(a)=f′(c)(b−a) . Also. Explain why this does not contradicts the mean value theorem.

Expert Solution & Answer

Want to see the full answer?

Check out a sample textbook solution

See solution

Students have asked these similar questions

4. Use method of separation of variable to solve the following wave equation მłu J²u subject to u(0,t) =0, for t> 0, u(л,t) = 0, for t> 0, = t> 0, at² ax²' u(x, 0) = 0, 0.01 x, ut(x, 0) = Π 0.01 (π-x), 0

Solve the following heat equation by method of separation variables: ди = at subject to u(0,t) =0, for -16024 ძx2 • t>0, 0 0, ux (4,t) = 0, for t> 0, u(x, 0) = (x-3, \-1, 0 < x ≤2 2≤ x ≤ 4.

ex 5. important aspects. Graph f(x)=lnx. Be sure to make your graph big enough to easily read (use the space given.) Label all 6 33

Answer 2

Question

Chapter 4.2, Problem 28E

To determine

To prove:That if f is a greatest integer function, and a, b, f(b)−f(a)≥(n+1)−n=1 are real numbers then there is no real number c such that f(b)−f(a)=f′(c)(b−a) . Also. Explain why this does not contradicts the mean value theorem.

Expert Solution & Answer

Want to see the full answer?

Check out a sample textbook solution

See solution

Answer 3

Question

Chapter 4.2, Problem 28E

To determine

To prove:That if f is a greatest integer function, and a, b, f(b)−f(a)≥(n+1)−n=1 are real numbers then there is no real number c such that f(b)−f(a)=f′(c)(b−a) . Also. Explain why this does not contradicts the mean value theorem.

Expert Solution & Answer

Want to see the full answer?

Check out a sample textbook solution

See solution

Answer 4

Question

Chapter 4.2, Problem 28E

To determine

To prove:That if f is a greatest integer function, and a, b, f(b)−f(a)≥(n+1)−n=1 are real numbers then there is no real number c such that f(b)−f(a)=f′(c)(b−a) . Also. Explain why this does not contradicts the mean value theorem.

Expert Solution & Answer

Want to see the full answer?

Check out a sample textbook solution

See solution

Answer 5

Chapter 4.2, Problem 28E

To determine

To prove:That if f is a greatest integer function, and a, b, f(b)−f(a)≥(n+1)−n=1 are real numbers then there is no real number c such that f(b)−f(a)=f′(c)(b−a) . Also. Explain why this does not contradicts the mean value theorem.

Answer 6

Chapter 4.2, Problem 28E

To determine

To prove:That if f is a greatest integer function, and a, b, f(b)−f(a)≥(n+1)−n=1 are real numbers then there is no real number c such that f(b)−f(a)=f′(c)(b−a) . Also. Explain why this does not contradicts the mean value theorem.

Answer 7

Chapter 4.2, Problem 28E

To determine

To prove:That if f is a greatest integer function, and a, b, f(b)−f(a)≥(n+1)−n=1 are real numbers then there is no real number c such that f(b)−f(a)=f′(c)(b−a) . Also. Explain why this does not contradicts the mean value theorem.

Answer 8

Expert Solution & Answer

Answer 9

Expert Solution & Answer

Answer 10

Want to see the full answer?

Check out a sample textbook solution

See solution

Answer 11

Ch. 4.2 - Prob. 1E Ch. 4.2 - Prob. 2E Ch. 4.2 - Prob. 3E Ch. 4.2 - Prob. 4E Ch. 4.2 - Prob. 5E Ch. 4.2 - Prob. 6E Ch. 4.2 - Prob. 7E Ch. 4.2 - Prob. 8E Ch. 4.2 - Prob. 9E Ch. 4.2 - Prob. 10E

To prove :That if f is a greatest integer function, and a, b, f ( b ) − f ( a ) ≥ ( n + 1 ) − n = 1 are real numbers then there is no real number c such that f ( b ) − f ( a ) = f ′ ( c ) ( b − a ) . Also. Explain why this does not contradicts the mean value theorem.

Solution Summary: The author explains that if f is a greatest integer function, and b, c are real numbers, then there is no real number.

Concept explainers

Videos

To prove:That if f is a greatest integer function, and a, b, f(b)−f(a)≥(n+1)−n=1 are real numbers then there is no real number c such that f(b)−f(a)=f′(c)(b−a) . Also. Explain why this does not contradicts the mean value theorem.

Want to see the full answer?

Chapter 4.2 Solutions