CFIN -STUDENT EDITION-ACCESS >CUSTOM<
CFIN -STUDENT EDITION-ACCESS >CUSTOM<
6th Edition
ISBN: 9780357752951
Author: BESLEY
Publisher: CENGAGE C
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Chapter 4, Problem 16PROB
Summary Introduction

The annual cash flows for year 1 is $500; year 2 is $400; and year 3 is $300. The opportunity cost is 7.5%.

Future value of an annuity is the total future value of a series of periodic payments made at the end of each year at a given interest rate for a specified period.

FV=[(PMT×(1+r)n1)+(PMT×(1+r)n2)+(PMT×(1+r)n3)]

Future value of an annuity due is the total future value of a series of periodic payments made at the beginning of each year at a given interest rate for a specified period.

FV=[(PMT×(1+r)n0)+(PMT×(1+r)n1)+(PMT×(1+r)n2)]

Here,

The future value is “FV”.

The annual payment on investment is “PMT”.

The interest rate is “r”.

The maturity period is “n”.

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Scenario one: Under what circumstances would it be appropriate for a firm to use different cost of capital for its different operating divisions? If the overall firm WACC was used as the hurdle rate for all divisions, would the riskier division or the more conservative divisions tend to get most of the investment projects? Why? If you were to try to estimate the appropriate cost of capital for different divisions, what problems might you encounter? What are two techniques you could use to develop a rough estimate for each division’s cost of capital?
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