The efficient markets hypothesis identifies three forms of market efficiency. (a) You observed that high-level managers make superior returns on investments in their company’s stock. Would this be a violation of weak-form market efficiency? Would it be a violation of strong-form market efficiency? (b) If the weak form of the efficient market hypothesis is valid, must the strong form also hold? Conversely, does strong form efficiency imply weak form efficiency? (c) Stock XYZ, which traded for several months at a price of K72, and then declines to K65. if the stock eventually begins to increase in price, K72 is considered a resistance level because investors who bought originally at K72 will be eager to sell their shares as soon as they can break even on their investment. If everyone in the market believes in resistance levels, why do these beliefs not become self-fulfilling prophecies?
The efficient markets hypothesis identifies three forms of market efficiency.
(a) You observed that high-level managers make superior
(b) If the weak form of the
(c) Stock XYZ, which traded for several months at a price of K72, and then declines to K65. if the stock eventually begins to increase in price, K72 is considered a resistance level because investors who bought originally at K72 will be eager to sell their shares as soon as they can break even on their investment. If everyone in the market believes in resistance levels, why do these beliefs not become self-fulfilling prophecies?
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