Suppose we prove that 2" > n? for n=1 and 2. Knowing that the inequality is true for some n n > 4 and we can show that it must be true for n+1 instead of n, can we conclude that 2" > n2 is true for all n > 1 ? True False
Suppose we prove that 2" > n? for n=1 and 2. Knowing that the inequality is true for some n n > 4 and we can show that it must be true for n+1 instead of n, can we conclude that 2" > n2 is true for all n > 1 ? True False
Advanced Engineering Mathematics
10th Edition
ISBN:9780470458365
Author:Erwin Kreyszig
Publisher:Erwin Kreyszig
Chapter2: Second-order Linear Odes
Section: Chapter Questions
Problem 1RQ
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