Prove that if f is (Lebesgue-) integrable and the Improper Riemann Integral of f on [a, b] exists then the two integrals are equal. (Hint: Consider fn=fXa+1/n, & when a is finite and gn = fx-n, s if a The same can be done for b.) b

Advanced Engineering Mathematics
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Chapter2: Second-order Linear Odes
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1. Prove that if f is (Lebesgue-) integrable and the Improper Riemann
Integral of f on [a, b] exists then the two integrals are equal. (Hint:
Consider fn=fXa+1/n, b when a is finite and gn = fx-n, & if a = -0.
The same can be done for b.)
Transcribed Image Text:1. Prove that if f is (Lebesgue-) integrable and the Improper Riemann Integral of f on [a, b] exists then the two integrals are equal. (Hint: Consider fn=fXa+1/n, b when a is finite and gn = fx-n, & if a = -0. The same can be done for b.)
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