Let I = ff, (a2 – y?) dæ dy, where D = {(a, v) : 1< *y < 4,0 < a – y < 6, # 2 0, y 2 0} Show that the mapping u = *y, v = * – y maps D to the rectangle R = [1, 4] × (0, 6]. (a) Compute 8 (a, v)/(u, v) by first cornputing 8 (u, v)/8(*, y). (b) Use the Change of Variables Formula to show that I is equal to the integral of f(u, v) = v over R and evaluate. (a) %3D (b)I = %3D

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