Let {an}1 and {bn}n=1 be sequences. Prove or disprove: If {an – bn}=1 converges to 0 and {an}-1 converges to A, then {bn}=1 also converges to A.

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A: Explanation of the answer is as follows

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A: we have to check each options

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A: A detailed solution is given in Steps 2 and 3.

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A: Please see the below picture for detailed solution.

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A: Thanks for the question :)And your upvote will be really appreciable ;)

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