k Suppose that Wk is a sequence of random variables. Prove that (supk≥n Wk)¯¹(a,∞) = UW(a,∞). What does this result tell us about the measurability of: Wk? supk≥n

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A: Simply use the chain rule of derivative and simplify.

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A: Solution

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A: As per bartleby guidelines we can solve only first three subparts and rest can be reposted

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