inf{a,b, : n e N} > (inf{a, : n € N}) × (inf{b, : n E N}). (1) Does the inequality (1) continue to hold if we no longer require the sequences an, bn to be non-negative? Justify your answer.

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inf{a,bn : n e N} > (inf{a, : n e N}) × (inf{bn : n € N}). (1)
Does the inequality (1) continue to hold if we no longer require the sequences
an,bn to be non-negative? Justify your answer.
Transcribed Image Text:inf{a,bn : n e N} > (inf{a, : n e N}) × (inf{bn : n € N}). (1) Does the inequality (1) continue to hold if we no longer require the sequences an,bn to be non-negative? Justify your answer.
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