In terms of perfect first-degree price discrimination, could you show that the firm's price of the last unit sold would equal the marginal cost of producing that unit and that the firm would produce the perfectly competitive level of output? If you can use a graph, that would help me understand thank you.

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Price Discrimination

Price discrimination or differential pricing is based on the principle that the seller will charge the buyer a price based on the buyer’s ability and willingness to pay for the product rather than applying uniform pricing for all.