In deriving the force on one of the long, current-carrying conductors, why did we use the magnetic field due to onlyone of the conductors? That is, why didn’t we use the total magneticfield due to both conductors?
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In deriving the force on one of the long, current-carrying conductors
, why did we use the magnetic field due to only
one of the conductors? That is, why didn’t we use the total magnetic
field due to both conductors?
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