Give a convincing argument that f(x)dx=1
Advanced Engineering Mathematics
10th Edition
ISBN:9780470458365
Author:Erwin Kreyszig
Publisher:Erwin Kreyszig
Chapter2: Second-order Linear Odes
Section: Chapter Questions
Problem 1RQ
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I need part C. It has to show that the integral from -infinity to -b and the integral from infinity to b equal 0 and the integral of -b to b equals 1 to prove the question. Please show all work!!!!
Expert Solution
Step 1: step 1
We start with the definition of the normal probability density function:
where is the mean of the distribution and is the variance.
We then substitute this function into the integral:
We can now use the following change of variables:
This change of variables transforms the integral into the following:
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