• (1+11/2)2-0.5 (1+12/2)2-2 P CF₁ CF₂ - + + + CFT CF1 CF2 = (1+ytm/2)1-2 (1+ytm/2)2-2 + + (1+r7/2)1-2 CFT (1+ytm/2)1-2 + P= (w1, 1,, Wn) ⇒ Duration: = w₁ D₁+w2 ⋅ D₂+ ... + Wn · Dn AP/P-Durp Ay . •AP/P-Durp Ay + ½ Convexity (Ay)² wo . • ΨΑ = where w = 1+wo(1-BA) αA/02(EA) E(rm-rƒ)/0²(rm)* WM = 1 - WA. • t-statistic = estimate-null value standard error • If t>2, then p-value < 0.05 • P = D₁ = E₁x (1- b) Formulas and facts: ⚫ Accrued interest = (#days since last coupon/number of days per coupon period)*coupon • CAPM: E(ra) = rƒ + Ba (E(rm) - rƒ) or E(rarf) = ẞa (E(rm) — rƒ) ⚫ CAPM test regression: Tit-Tft = ai + ẞi(rmt − rft) + Eit Fama French 3-factor model: E(rar): E(SMB)+ha E(HMLt) = - BaE(Tm rf) + Sa * Fama French test regression: Tat - rft = αa + Ba * (Tmt - Tft) + Sa * (SMB)+ha (HMLt) + Eit Carhart 4-factor model: E(rar) = Ba* E(™m - rƒ) + Sa * E(SMBt) + ha * E(HMLt) + maE(MOM) Carhart 4-factor test regression: Tat-Tft = a + Ba* (Tmt − ˜ft) + Sa * (SMB₁) + ha* (HMLt) + ma* (MOM₁) + Eit • mktr ft = rmt-Tft is the excess return on the US stock market. ⚫ SMB₁ = "small,t - "big,t is the return on the portfolio of small-cap US stocks in excess of the return on a portfolio of large-cap US stocks. • HML₁ = Thigh,t-Tlow,t is the return on the portfolio of high book-to- market (value) stocks in excess of the return on the portfolio of low book-to-market (growth) stocks. ⚫ MOM₁ = "Winners,t - "Losers,t is the return on stocks with high returns over the prior 12 months in excess of the return on stocks with low returns over the prior 12 months. ⚫ return = Ending Value-Starting Value Starting Value Price+Div-Price Priceo • Ba= = corr(rm.ra)σ(ra) 0(1b) = Slope of the best fit line through plot of ra vs. Tm
Please answer the following MCQS with explanations. I have also attached the formulas list, if needed.
1. You are assessing the average performance of two mutual fund managers with the Fama-French 3-factor model. The fund managers and the Fama-French factors had the following performance over this period
of time:
Manager 1 Manager 2 Rm − rf smb hml
Avg. (total) Ret 27% 13% 8% 2% 6%
βmkt 2 1 1 0 0
s 1 -0.5 0 1 0
h 1 0.5 0 0 1
The risk-free rate is 2%. Based on the Fama French 3-factor model, which manager is better?
Group of answer choices
- -Not enough information
- -Manager 1 did better
- -Manager 2 did better
- -Their performance was equally good
2.
What should equity traders do if the PEAD anomaly represents mispricing?
Group of answer choices
- -Sell stocks with positive earnings announcement surprises and short- sell stocks with negative earnings announcement surprises
- -Short-sell stocks with positive earnings announcement surprises and/or buy stocks with negative earnings announcement surprises
- -Buy stocks with positive earnings announcement surprises and/or short-sell stocks with negative earnings announcement surprises
- -Buy stocks with positive earnings announcement surprises and Buy stocks with negative earnings announcement surprises
- -None of the above



Step by step
Solved in 2 steps









