Explain and sketch how a function can have f ''(a) = 0 at (a, f(a)) and not be an inflection point.

Q: For a function f(x), f"(a) = 0 and f"(a) = 0. What could be true of the point (a, fla))? Explain.…

A: Given f'a=0and f''a=0

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A: