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Equity investors expect to be compensated for two things: diversifiable risk and non-diversifiable risk. True or False
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- Why would a risk- averse (likes to avoid risks)type of investor prefer fixed income over equities?The Capital Asset Pricing Model (CAPM) considers which type of risk in pricing the expected returns and risk of securities? A) Systemic risk. B) Unsystemic risk. C) Diversifiable risk. D) Non-market risk.Why a risk taker (likes to take risk) type of investor prefer equities over fixed income?
- In financial risk management strategies using derivatives instrument to maximise profits. Select one: True FalseWhich one of the following statements is correct concerning unsystematic risk? An investor is rewarded for assuming unsystematic risk. Beta measures the level of unsystematic risk inherent in an individual security. Eliminating unsystematic risk is the responsibility of the individual investor. Standard deviation is a measure of unsystematic risk. Unsystematic risk is rewarded when it exceeds the market level of unsystematic risk. оо O OWhich one of the following statements is correct? Group of answer choices The lower the average return, the greater the risk premium. The greater the volatility of returns, the greater the risk premium. The lower the volatility of returns, the greater the risk premium. The risk premium is not affected by the volatility of returns. The risk premium is unrelated to the average rate of return.
- Investors require a _____ return as compensation for taking ____ risk. A) higher, margin B) higher, more C) higher, convexity D) lower, margin E) lower, more F) lower, convexity1. How are passive investments accounted for under ASPE? a) Cost of amortized cost. b) FVTPL for equity securities with fair value prices c) Neither is correct. d) Both treatments are acceptable.The capital asset pricing model (CAPM) contends that there is systematic and unsystematic risk for an individual security. Which is the relevant risk variable and why is it relevant? Why is the other risk variable not relevant?
- The calculation of an investor's Risk Aversion (A) requires us to look at that individual investor's historic behavior in his/her investing history. Why is Risk Aversion also called "price of risk"? Group of answer choices Risk Aversion measures the risk premium that the investor has required for the Capital Market Line Risk Aversion is determined by the excess return over the risk-free asset, as required by the investor Risk Aversion measures the difference in returns required by the investor in the Capital Allocation Line versus the Capital Market Line Risk Aversion measures the amount of return that the investor has required for each unit of risk taken None of the aboveCounterparty credit risk is a function of the probability of default, exposure at default, and loss given default. Assuming that the individual exposure at default with a counterparty is fixed, which of the following statements is correct? A. The probability of default can be mitigated by collateral, and exposure at default can be mitigated by netting. B. The probability of default can be mitigated by netting, and exposure at default can be mitigated by collateral. C. Loss given default can be mitigated by collateral, and exposure at default can be mitigated by netting. D. Loss given default can be mitigated by netting, and exposure at default can be mitigated by collateral.. The Capital asset Pricing Model (CAPM) contends that there is systematic & unsystematic risk for an individual security. Which is the relevant risk variable & why it’s relevant?