Consider the following claim. Claim. For any sets S and T, (a) (SxT) n (Tx S) - (S × S) = 0. Use a proof by contradiction to prove the claim. (b) Is it possible to prove this claim by contrapositive? If so, what would the statement of the claim be (that you could then apply the contrapositive to)? If not, give a brief explanation why it cannot be done.

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