A 28-year-old woman comes to the physician because of a 1-week history of painful, red skin spots. Physical examination shows multiple tender petechial hemorrhages. A biopsy specimen of one of the lesions shows leuko-cytoclastic vasculitis. The physician plans to prescribe a new anti-inflammatory drug. Which of the following mechanisms of action of this drug is most likely to relieve this patient's disease progress? A) Activation of PECAM-1 B) Blockage of P-selectin sites C) Deactivation of thromboplastin D) Downregulation of Hageman factor E) Upregulation of neutrophil LFA-1

A 28-year-old woman comes to the physician because of a 1-week history of painful, red skin spots. Physical examination shows multiple tender petechial hemorrhages. A biopsy specimen of one of the lesions shows leuko-cytoclastic vasculitis. The physician plans to prescribe a new anti-inflammatory drug. Which of the following mechanisms of action of this drug is most likely to relieve this patient's disease progress? A) Activation of PECAM-1 B) Blockage of P-selectin sites C) Deactivation of thromboplastin D) Downregulation of Hageman factor E) Upregulation of neutrophil LFA-1