Theorem 4.27 says that if f [a, b] → R is Riemann integrable then f² [a, b] → : 3 R is Riemann integrable. Does the converse hold? Explain your answer.

Q: Let f,g:[a, b]-R are Riemann integrable , f-g is Riemann integrable. صواب İhi

A: True Statement  Detailed Explanation :-

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