5. Assume that the following two-factor model describes asset returns: 14₁=rs+B₁F1+B₂F2, where ry is the risk-free rate, and where F₁ and F₂ are two macro variables. The following three assets are observed: A BC 0 -1 2 1 10% 1% -2% 3₁ 1 3₂0 " (a) According to the Arbitrage Pricing Theory (APT), what is the relationship be tween expected asset return and the factors? (b) Consider an asset D with the following characteristics: D = 15%, 1D = 2, and Bap=1. Is there an arbitrage opportunity? If so, provide one such (appropriately hedged) strategy.

Essentials Of Investments
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Author:Bodie, Zvi, Kane, Alex, MARCUS, Alan J.
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Chapter1: Investments: Background And Issues
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5. Assume that the following two-factor model describes asset returns:

\[ \mu_i = r_f + \beta_{1i}F_1 + \beta_{2i}F_2, \]

where \( r_f \) is the risk-free rate, and where \( F_1 \) and \( F_2 \) are two macro variables. The following three assets are observed:

\[
\begin{array}{c|c|c|c}
& A & B & C \\
\hline
\beta_1 & 1 & 0 & -1 \\
\beta_2 & 0 & 2 & 1 \\
\mu & 10\% & 1\% & -2\% \\
\end{array}
\]

(a) According to the Arbitrage Pricing Theory (APT), what is the relationship between expected asset return and the factors?

(b) Consider an asset \( D \) with the following characteristics: \( \mu_D = 15\%, \beta_{1D} = 2, \) and \( \beta_{2D} = 1 \). Is there an arbitrage opportunity? If so, provide one such (appropriately hedged) strategy.
Transcribed Image Text:5. Assume that the following two-factor model describes asset returns: \[ \mu_i = r_f + \beta_{1i}F_1 + \beta_{2i}F_2, \] where \( r_f \) is the risk-free rate, and where \( F_1 \) and \( F_2 \) are two macro variables. The following three assets are observed: \[ \begin{array}{c|c|c|c} & A & B & C \\ \hline \beta_1 & 1 & 0 & -1 \\ \beta_2 & 0 & 2 & 1 \\ \mu & 10\% & 1\% & -2\% \\ \end{array} \] (a) According to the Arbitrage Pricing Theory (APT), what is the relationship between expected asset return and the factors? (b) Consider an asset \( D \) with the following characteristics: \( \mu_D = 15\%, \beta_{1D} = 2, \) and \( \beta_{2D} = 1 \). Is there an arbitrage opportunity? If so, provide one such (appropriately hedged) strategy.
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