(10) Prove that for any prime number P>3. p² = 1 (mod 24) (Hint: chinese remainder theorem tells us need to show SP² = 1 (mod 3) 2p² = 1 (mod 8) we only The hard part is to show p² = 1 (mod 8), which means 81 p2-1 = P (P-1) (P+) we know that must be odd. Hence, P two integers. P+1 are " So it is enough to show 21욎. 왤).
(10) Prove that for any prime number P>3. p² = 1 (mod 24) (Hint: chinese remainder theorem tells us need to show SP² = 1 (mod 3) 2p² = 1 (mod 8) we only The hard part is to show p² = 1 (mod 8), which means 81 p2-1 = P (P-1) (P+) we know that must be odd. Hence, P two integers. P+1 are " So it is enough to show 21욎. 왤).
Advanced Engineering Mathematics
10th Edition
ISBN:9780470458365
Author:Erwin Kreyszig
Publisher:Erwin Kreyszig
Chapter2: Second-order Linear Odes
Section: Chapter Questions
Problem 1RQ
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![(10) Prove that for any prime number P>3.
p² = 1 (mod 24)
(Hint: chinese remainder theorem tells us
SP² = 1 (mod 3)
p² = 1 (mod 8)
need to show
we only need to
p²=1 (mod 8), which
we know that
P
PH
two integers.
The hard part is to show
means S1 p²2-1
81 =
(P-1) (PH).
must be odd. Hence, P-1,
So it is enough to
show
2 |
P-1
F
are
PH).](/v2/_next/image?url=https%3A%2F%2Fcontent.bartleby.com%2Fqna-images%2Fquestion%2F5cafdb60-7d1d-4699-94a3-8fee7de7f9f5%2Ff06d208a-bd4d-4b63-8ae0-880ad1b76324%2Fin5xbff_processed.jpeg&w=3840&q=75)
Transcribed Image Text:(10) Prove that for any prime number P>3.
p² = 1 (mod 24)
(Hint: chinese remainder theorem tells us
SP² = 1 (mod 3)
p² = 1 (mod 8)
need to show
we only need to
p²=1 (mod 8), which
we know that
P
PH
two integers.
The hard part is to show
means S1 p²2-1
81 =
(P-1) (PH).
must be odd. Hence, P-1,
So it is enough to
show
2 |
P-1
F
are
PH).
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