. For an arbitrary function f, we define f*(=) = lim h→0 f(a+h)-f(z-h) 2h if this limit exists. Let g(a) be a function defined by +) = { cos (²), 0 cos (¹), x 40 x=0 9(x) Show that g* (0) = 0 even though g has no derivative at 0. (You must also explain that why g h no derivative at 0.)

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