BME 201_Final Exam 2017_Final
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Purdue University *
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Subject
Mechanical Engineering
Date
Dec 6, 2023
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BME 201, Fall 2017
Name:________________________
Final
ID:___________________________
80 Questions/200 Points
INSTRUCTIONS
Make sure the blanks for your full name and ID number are completed on the answer sheet and exam.
Select
only the one best answer for each question and fill in the corresponding circle with a
#2 pencil
on the answer
sheet.
Turn in both your exam and answer sheet before leaving the classroom.
1.
(2 points) Which group includes the four most abundant elements in living organisms?
A.
Carbon, nitrogen, oxygen, phosphorous
B.
Carbon, hydrogen, nitrogen, oxygen
C.
Carbon, hydrogen, oxygen, phosphorous
D.
Carbon, hydrogen, oxygen, sulfur
E.
Carbon, nitrogen, oxygen, sulfur
2.
(2 points) Which of the following statements regarding the various classes of biomolecules are
FALSE
?
A.
Nucleic acids are polymers of monomer nucleotides.
B.
Most fatty acids have an even number of carbon atoms.
C.
Both carbohydrates and lipids are important for energy production and storage.
D.
Lipids as a biomolecular class are water insoluble and don’t form polymers.
E.
None of the above statements is FALSE
3.
(2 points) Which diagram illustrates an amphipathic (amphiphilic) molecule?
4.
(2 points) Which of the following functional groups does the compound shown on the
right
NOT
contain?
A. Amino
B. Carboxyl
C. Hydroxyl
D. Aldehyde
5.
(2 points) Rank the molecules shown in the green box on the right from
LEAST
to MOST
in terms of water solubility.
A. A>B>C
B. C>B>A
C. B>A>C
D. C>A>B
E.
All three molecules have equal water solubility
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6.
(2 points) Which list correctly shows bond/interaction strength in
DECREASING
order (strong to weak)?
A.
covalent bond > hydrogen bond > ionic bond > van der Waals interaction
B.
covalent bond > ionic bond > hydrogen bond > van der Waals interaction
C.
ionic bond > covalent bond > hydrogen bond > van der Waals interaction
D.
covalent bond > van der Waals interaction > ionic bond > hydrogen bond
E.
hydrogen bond > ionic bond > van der Waals interaction > covalent bond
7.
(3 points) Phosphoric acid is a polyprotic acid, with p
K
values of 2.14, 6.86, and 12.38.
Which ionic form
predominates at pH 3.2?
A. H
3
PO
4
B. H
2
PO
4
1−
C. HPO
4
2−
D. PO
4
3−
E.
none of the above
8.
(2 points) The pH of coffee is 5.6.
The pH of grapefruit juice is 2.6.
This means that the hydrogen ion
concentration in coffee is:
A.
a thousand times higher than in grapefruit juice.
B.
a thousand times lower than in grapefruit juice.
C.
3000 times lower than in grapefruit juice.
D.
3 times the hydrogen ion concentration of grapefruit juice.
E.
3000 times higher than in grapefruit juice.
9.
(3 points) Consider the reaction A + B
C + D.
After reaching equilibrium at 25°C, the following
concentrations of reactants and products were measured: [A] = 1 µM, [B] = 6 µM, [C] = 10 µM, [D] = 10
µM. Calculate
G
°
for this reaction.
Note that the answers provided have been rounded.
A.
-6,503 J/mol
B.
-6,970 J/mol
C.
+6,503 J/mol
D.
+6,970 J/mol
E.
-3,027 J/mol
10. (2 points) A reaction with a ______
H
and a ______
S
, will never be spontaneous.
A.
positive, positive
B.
positive, negative
C.
negative, positive
D.
negative, negative
E.
none of the above
11. (3 points) The
G
° for the conversion of glucose to glucose-6-phosphate (G6P) is -20.9 kJ/mol. In a
particular human cell, the concentration of glucose is 8.0 µM and the concentration of G6P is 0.1 µM.
Calculate the
G
of the reaction as it occurs in this cell at 37°C. Note that the answers provided have been
rounded.
A.
-9.6 kJ/mol
B.
+11 kJ/mol
C.
-11 kJ/mol
D.
+32 kJ/mol
E.
-32 kJ/mol
12. (2 points) What is the pH of a solution with 1.0 M sodium hydrogen sulfate (NaHSO
4
) and 0.6 M sodium
sulfate (Na
2
SO
4
)?
pK
2
(HSO
4
-1
) is 1.92.
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A. 1.70
B. 2.14
C. 2.70
D. 3.80
E. 9.10
13. (2 points) The p
K
1
of citric acid is 3.09.
What is the citric acid : monosodium citrate ratio in a 1.0 M citric
acid solution with a pH of 2.09?
A. 10:1
B. 1:1
C. 1:10
D. 10:11
E. 11:10
14. (2 points) Hydrogen bonding between different polypeptide chains (subunits) of a protein
is an example of
which of the following types of structure?
A.
Primary Structure
B.
Secondary Structure
C.
Tertiary Structure
D.
Quaternary Structure
15. (3 points) The protein bovine serum albumin (BSA) has a MW of about 66,400 daltons.
Using the Beer-
Lambert Law, calculate the concentration of a sample of BSA with an absorbance at 280nm of 1.3, assuming
the molar extinction coefficient at 280nm is 43,824 M
-1
cm
-1
.
A.
0.51 mg/ml
B.
0.86 mg/ml
C.
1.97 mg/ml
D.
2.56 mg/ml
E.
3.79 mg/ml
16. (3 points) The p
K
1
, p
K
2
, and p
K
R
for the amino acid aspartic acid are 2.0, 9.9, and 3.9, respectively.
At pH
7.0, aspartic acid would be charged predominantly as follows:
A.
-carboxylate 0,
-amino +1,
-carboxylate 0, net charge +1
B.
-carboxylate −1,
-amino +1,
-carboxylate −1, net charge −1
C.
-carboxylate 0,
-amino −1,
-carboxylate 0, net charge −1
D.
-carboxylate +1,
-amino −1,
-carboxylate +1, net charge +1
E.
-carboxylate +1,
-amino +1,
-carboxylate +1, net charge +3
17. (2 points) The capacity of a buffer to resist changes in pH upon addition of hydrogen ions or hydroxide ions
depends on which of the following:
A.
the p
K
a
of the weak acid in the buffer.
B.
the pH of the buffer.
C.
the total concentration of the weak acid and its conjugate base in the buffer.
D.
Only B and C are correct
E.
A, B, and C are correct
18. (2 points) Cation exchange columns are generally ___________ charged and are often employed to
effectively retain and separate __________ charged molecules.
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A.
Positively; positively
B.
Positively; negatively
C.
Positively; neutral
D.
Negatively; positively
E.
Negatively; negatively
19. (3 points) Which of the following amino acids would be
FIRST
to elute at pH 7.0 from an anion exchange
column?
A.
Aspartic Acid
B. Leucine
C. Lysine
D.
Glutamic Acid
E.
All the above amino acids would elute at the same time
20. (3 points) You are trying to separate five proteins, which are listed below, by gel filtration chromatography.
Which of the proteins will elute
LAST
from the column?
A.
cytochrome c (12 kDa)
B.
RNA polymerase (99 kDa)
C.
glutamine synthetase (621 kDa)
D. interferon-
(34 kDa)
E.
hemoglobin (62 kDa)
21. (3 points) You must cleave the following peptide into smaller fragments:
NMTQEGRCPVNTFKVHEPLVDVKQNVCFKE
How many fragments would result from treatment with Endopeptidase V8?
A.
1
B.
2
C.
3
D.
4
E.
5
22. (3 points) Insulin consists of two polypeptide chains, an A chain (
2500 Daltons) and a B chain (
3500
Daltons), joined together by two disulfide bonds. Upon SDS-PAGE analysis in the presence of 2-
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mercaptoethanol (
-ME) you would expect:
A.
a single protein band with an estimated molecular weight of 6000 Daltons.
B.
two protein bands with the A chain closest to the top of the gel
C.
two protein bands with the B chain closest to the top of the gel
D.
a single protein band with an estimated molecular weight 3000 Daltons
E.
three protein bands with estimated molecular weights of 2500, 3500, and 6000 Daltons.
23. (2 points) While the binding of O
2
to myoglobin as a function of
p
O
2
is described by a simple __________
curve, the
binding to hemoglobin is described by a more complex _________ curve.
A.
sigmoidal; hyperbolic
B.
hyperbolic; sigmoidal
C.
exponential; hyperbolic
D.
sigmoidal; bell-shaped
E.
hyperbolic; concave
24. (3 points) The Bohr effect refers to
A.
the decrease in affinity of Hb for O
2
when the pH goes down
B.
the decrease in affinity of Hb for O
2
when the pH goes up
C.
the increase in affinity of Hb for O
2
when the O
2
concentration goes up
D.
the decrease in affinity of Hb for O
2
when the BPG concentration goes up
E.
the decrease in affinity of Hb for O
2
when the BPG concentration goes down
25. (3 points) Why is the decreased affinity of fetal hemoglobin for BPG advantageous?
A.
With fewer BPG molecules bound there are more heme residues available for O
2
binding.
B.
Decreased BPG binding biases the fetal hemoglobin toward the R state.
C.
More free BPG is available to bind to adult hemoglobin, resulting in a shift to the R state.
D.
BPG is available to bind to fetal myoglobin, helping to release O
2
in fetal muscle tissue.
E.
none of the above
26. (3 points) The Kansas variant disrupts a hydrogen bond that stabilizes the R conformation of hemoglobin.
As a result the T-R equilibrium shifts toward the _________ state and the p
50
value ______________
relative to that of normal hemoglobin.
A)
R state, increases
B)
R state, decreases
C)
T state, increases
D)
T state, decreases
E)
T state, stays the same
27. (3 points) The most rapid way that erythrocytes adapt to high altitudes is
A)
by producing genetically altered hemoglobin variants that have higher O
2
-binding affinities.
B)
by increasing the concentration of hemoglobin.
C)
by relying upon the simpler protein myoglobin.
D)
by decreasing the intracellular concentration of BPG
E)
by increasing the intracellular concentration of BPG.
28. (3 points) You are working to purify a new enzyme, generating the purification table below.
Which
procedure used for enzyme purification is most effective (i.e., gives the greatest relative increase in purity)?
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Procedure
Total Protein (mg)
Activity (Units)
Crude Extract
20,000
4,000,000
Salt Precipitation
5000
3,000,000
Ion Exchange Chromatography
200
800,000
Size Exclusion Chromatography
50
750,000
Affinity Chromatography
45
15,000
A.
Salt Precipitation
B.
Size Exclusion Chromatography
C.
Ion Exchange Chromatography
D.
Affinity Chromatography
E.
All steps are equally effective
29. (2 points) Which statement is
TRUE
about enzymes and enzyme-substrate complexes?
A.
Enzymes increase the equilibrium constant for the reaction, thus favoring product formation.
B.
Enzymes may be globular proteins or RNA molecules.
C.
Enzymes increase reaction rates without being used up.
D.
Only B and C are TRUE
E.
A, B, and C are TRUE
30. (2 points) One of the enzymes involved in glycolysis, aldolase, requires Zn
2+
for catalysis.
Under conditions
of zinc deficiency, when the enzyme lacks zinc, it would be referred to as the:
A. Holoenzyme
B. Apoenzyme
C.
Prosthetic group
D. Zymogen
E. Coenzyme
31. (2 points) Lactate dehydrogenase is a muscle enzyme that catalyzes the reaction below.
How would you
best classify this enzyme reaction?
A. Oxidoreductase
B. Transferase
C. Hydrolase
D. Lyase
E. Isomerase
32. (2 points) Based on the figure shown to the right, which of the following expressions would be correct?
A.
B = 1/
K
M
B.
C =
K
M
C.
D = 1/
V
max
D.
A =
V
max
E.
Both C and D are correct
33. (3 points) A lead drug compound (which
serves as an enzyme inhibitor) would be most
effective if it had:
A.
K
I
= 4.7 × 10
5
M
B.
K
I
= 1.5 × 10
8
M
C.
K
I
= 1.5 × 10
-8
M
D.
K
I
= 4.7 × 10
-5
M
E.
K
M
= 4.7 × 10
5
M
34. (3 points) Find
k
cat
for a reaction in which
V
max
is 2.9 × 10
-4
mol•min
-1
and the reaction mixture contains one
microgram of enzyme (the molecular weight of the enzyme is 300,000 Daltons).
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A.
3.3 × 10
-9
min
-1
B.
8.7 × 10
7
min
-1
C.
6.6 × 10
9
min
-1
D.
2.9 × 10
-1
min
-1
E.
4.0 × 10
8
min
-1
35. (3 points) Find the initial velocity for an enzymatic reaction when
V
max
= 8.2 × 10
–5
mol•sec
–1
, [S] = 7.0 ×
10
–3
M,
K
M
= 2.9 × 10
–3
M and the enzyme concentration at time zero is 1.5 × 10
-2
M.
A.
2.9 × 10
-5
mol•sec
–1
B.
3.9 × 10
-5
mol•sec
–1
C.
5.8 × 10
-5
mol•sec
–1
D.
8.7 × 10
-3
mol•sec
–1
E.
Not enough information is given to make this calculation.
36. (3 points) Following several experiments, the data presented on the graph below was obtained.
What can
you determine from this graph?
A.
This data likely was collected both in the absence (red line)
and presence (blue line) of an uncompetitive inhibitor.
B.
This data likely was collected both in the absence (blue line)
and presence (red line) of a uncompetitive inhibitor.
C.
This data likely was collected both in the absence (red line)
and presence (blue line) of a competitive inhibitor.
D.
This data likely was collected both in the absence (blue line)
and presence (red line) of a competitive inhibitor.
E.
This data likely was collected both in the absence (red line)
and presence (blue line) of a mixed inhibitor.
37. (2 points) You conduct experiments on an
enzyme in the presence and absence of an
inhibitor.
Based upon the plot shown to the right,
what is the mechanism of the inhibitor?
A.
competitive inhibition
B.
uncompetitive inhibition
C.
noncompetitive inhibition
D.
suicide inhibitor
E.
reactive substrate inhibitor
38. (3 points) Based upon the plotted data shown to
the right, calculate alpha prime (
’).
A. 0.56
B. 1.8
C. 0.11
D. 4.5
E. 0.22
39. (2 points)
Any given competitive inhibitor can be overcome by increasing the substrate concentration.
A. True
B. False
40.
(3 points) The diagram below refers to a (an)
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A)
Ping Pong reaction
B)
Ying Yang reaction
C)
Ordered sequential reaction
D)
Random sequential reaction
E)
None of the above
41. (2 points) Which amino acid is
NOT
one that may be targeted for phosphorylation to modulate the activity
of an enzyme?
A. Ala
B. His
C. Ser
D. Tyr
E. Thr
42. (2 points) The Lineweaver-Burk plot provides a more precise method for measuring:
A. V
max
B. K
M
C.
Initial substrate concentration, [S]
o
D.
Only A and B are correct
E.
A, B, and C are correct
43. (2 points) DNA is __________ charged, and this is due, in part, to the ___________.
A.
positively; nitrogenous bases
A.
positively; sugar-phosphate backbone
B.
negatively; nitrogenous bases
C.
negatively; sugar-phosphate backbone
D.
not; balance of charges on the molecule
44. (2 points) Nucleotides play a central role in living organisms because…
A.
they mediate transport of energy within the cell.
B.
they are involved in oxidation-reduction reactions.
C.
they are involved in intracellular signaling.
D.
they function as building blocks for nucleic acids.
E.
All of the above
45. (2 points) Which of the following statements apply to DNA?
A.
The hierarchical structure for DNA in humans is nucleotide < nucleosome < chromatin < chromosome.
B.
For DNA base pairing, pyrimidines form bonds with purines.
C.
Nucleosides do not contain phosphate groups.
D.
Only A and B apply
E.
A, B, and C apply
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46. (2 points) A double stranded DNA fragment contains 12% adenine residues.
Calculate the percentage of
cytosine residues.
A. 12%
B. 24%
C. 38%
D. 50%
E. 78%
47.
(2 points) Which of the following DNA sequences is considered palindromic?
A. AAGCTT
B. GAACTT
C. GAACAA
D. AAGCAA
E. AAGTTC
48. (2 points) Four molecules of double-stranded DNA are the same length (850 base pairs), but differ in base
composition.
Molecule 1 contains 20% A+T; Molecule 2 contains 40% A+T; Molecule 3 contains 80%
A+T; and Molecule 4 contains 100% A+T.
Which molecule would demonstrate the lowest melting point?
A.
Molecule 1
B.
Molecule 2
C.
Molecule 3
D.
Molecule 4
E.
All four molecules would have the same melting point
49. (3 points) To make a DNA copy of a RNA sequence, you need the reverse transcriptase enzyme and an
oligonucleotide primer made of which nucleotide?
A. Deoxyadenosine
B. Deoxythymine
C. Deoxycytosine
D. Deoxyuridine
E. Deoxyguanosine
50. (3 points) The image below shows a DNA sequencing gel using the Sanger
method. What is the sequence of the template DNA?
A. 5’ ACTAGTGACCGT 3’
B. 5’ TGCCAGTGATCA 3’
C. 5’ ACGGTCACTAGT 3’
D. 5’TGATCACTGGCA 3’
E. The sequence of the template can’t be determined from this information.
51. (3 points) DNA sequencing using the Sanger method requires:
A.
Template, primer, DNA polymerase, mRNA, dNTPs, ddNTPs
B.
Template, primer, DNA polymerase, dNTPs, ddNTPs
C.
Template, primer, DNA polymerase, rRNA, dNTPs, ddNTPs
D.
Template, primer, DNA polymerase, mRNA, dNTPs
E.
Template, primer, reverse transcriptase, dNTPs, ddNTPs
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52. (3 points) If you are comparing the total gene expression of a black panther during its early development
and later adult life and have labeled the cDNA you obtained from its early development stages with a green
fluorophore and the cDNA you obtained from its adult life stages with a red fluorophore, what color would
you expect to see on your DNA microarray for genes that are equally expressed in both the early
development and adult life stages?
A. green
B. red
C. yellow
D. brown
E. magenta
53. (3 points) Which of the following represents a product of the reaction of AluI with the DNA sequence
shown below? Refer to Table 3-2 for the AluI recognition sequence.
5’-ACGAGCTATC-3’
3’-TGCTCGATAG-5’
A. 5'-ACGAG
3'-TGCTC
B. 5'-ACGA
3'-TGCTCG
C. 5'-ACGA
3'-TGCTCGATAG
D. 5'-ACGT-3'
3'-TGCAGC-5'
E. 5'-ACGT-3'
3’-TGCAGCTTAG-5’
54. (3 points) Identify the 4-residue primer that could be used to amplify the following DNA segment by PCR:
3’-GGCCCATATGGCA-5’
A. 5’-GTAT-3’
B. 5’-CCGG-3’
C. 3’-GTAT-5’
D. 3’-ACCA-5’
E. 3’-CCGG-5’
55. (2 points) Which RNA can be used as an experimental tool that silences mRNA by first being synthesized
and then exogenously introduced to the cell?
A. miRNA
B. mRNA
C. siRNA
D. rRNA
E. tRNA
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56. (2 points) The
E. coli
recombinant plasmid pBR322 has been widely utilized in genetic engineering
experiments. Which feature does pBR322
NOT
have?
A.
a number of conveniently located recognition sites for restriction enzymes
B.
a number of palindromic sequences near the
Eco
RI site, which permit the plasmid to assume a
conformation that protects newly inserted DNA from nuclease degradation
C.
a replication origin, which permits it to replicate autonomously
D.
resistance to two different antibiotics, which permits rapid screening for recombinant plasmids
containing foreign DNA
E.
small overall size, which facilitates entry of the plasmid into host cells
57. (3 points) A scientist inserts a DNA fragment of interest into the pBR322 plasmid which contains both
ampicillin and tetracycline resistance genes.
The insertion point resides within the center of the ampicillin
resistance gene.
The scientist then transforms bacterial cells and plates them on agar plates.
The scientist
should expect:
A.
Only bacteria containing plasmids to survive when plated on an agar plate containing tetracycline.
B.
Only bacteria containing recombinant plasmids to survive when plated on an agar plate containing
tetracycline
C.
Only bacteria containing empty plasmids (non-recombinant) plasmids to survive when plated on an agar
plate containing tetracycline and ampicillin.
D.
Both A and C are expected
E.
Both A and B are expected
58.
(3 points) In order to perform PCR, which of the following describes the reagents that must be included in
the reaction mixture?
A.
DNA fragment, primers flanking the region of interest, dNTPs, DNA polymerase
B.
DNA fragment, primers flanking the region of interest, dNTPs, ddNTPS, DNA polymerase
C.
DNA fragment, one primer, dNTPs, DNA polymerase, DNA ligase
D.
DNA fragment, primers flanking the region of interest, dNTPs, DNA Ligase
E.
none of the above
59. (2 points) The two monosaccharides to the right are:
A. epimers
B. anomers
C. enantiomers
D.
constitutional isomers
E. ratiomers
60. (2 points) In glycoproteins, the carbohydrate moiety is
always attached through the amino acid residues:
A.
Asparagine, serine, or threonine
B.
Aspartate or glutamate
C.
Glutamine or arginine
D.
Glycine, alanine, aspartate
E.
Tryptophan, aspartate, or cysteine
61. (2 points) Which of the following polysaccharides is
NOT
a homopolysaccharide?
A. Glycogen
B. Chitin
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C. Amylose
D. Dextran
E. Glycoasminoglycan
62. (2 points) Which of the following statements applies to polysaccharides?
A.
Polysaccharides can be homo- or hetero-polysaccharides.
B.
Polysaccharides differ from nucleic acids and proteins in that they may exist as branched structures.
C.
Polysaccharides found covalently attached proteins and lipids on the surface of cells are often involved
in recognition and signaling.
D.
Only A and B are correct
E.
A, B, and C are correct
63. (2 points) In terms of carbohydrate analysis, which of the following statements is
TRUE
?
A.
Microarrays of pure oligosaccharides are useful in both specificity and affinity of lectin binding
B.
Mixtures of carbohydrates may be separated into their individual components for analysis using size
exclusion, ion-exchange, or lectin affinity chromatography.
C.
Exhaustive methylation may be applied to determine the specific positions of glycosidic bonds
D.
Only A and B are TRUE
E.
A, B, and C are TRUE
64. (2 points) Which of the following statements about ABO blood groups is
TRUE
?
A.
An individual with Blood Type A receiving a blood transfusion from a Blood Type B donor would be
expected to exhibit an immune response, resulting in the lysis of the incompatible blood cells.
B.
Blood Group Type O is known as the “universal recipient”.
C.
Blood Group Type AB is known as the “universal donor”.
D.
Only B and C are TRUE
E.
A, B, and C are TRUE
65. (2 points) Which of the following statements is TRUE?
A.
An antibody is a large Y-shaped protein produced by plasma cells that is used by the immune system to
identify and neutralize pathogens (e.g., bacteria and viruses)
B.
An antigen is a toxin or foreign substance that induces an immune response
C.
An epitope is part of an antigen molecule to which an antibody attaches itself.
D.
Only A and C are TRUE
E.
A, B, and C are TRUE
66. (3 points) You are analyzing three fatty acids in the laboratory with the following chemical designation 12:0,
12:1, 15:0, 15:1.
When comparing the melting temperatures you would expect the following ranking from
lowest to highest:
A.
15:1, 15:0, 12:1, 12:0
B.
15:0, 15:1, 12:0, 12:1
C.
12:0, 12:1, 15:0, 15:1
D.
12:1, 12:0, 15:1, 15:0
E.
12:1, 15:1, 12:0, 15:0
67. (3 points) A scientist homogenizes a tissue in an extraction solution composed of chloroform, methanol, and
water, followed by addition of more water to separate the liquid phases.
Which molecules would be
expected to be present within the water/methanol (aqueous) phase?
A. Lipids
B. Proteins
C. Carbohydrates
D.
Lipids and proteins
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E.
Proteins and Carbohydrates
68. (3 points) Isoproterenol is an epinephrine agonist that acts on beta adrenergic receptors.
What response
would you expect if you administered isoproterenol systemically (access to all organ/tissue systems)?
A.
Decreased breakdown of glycogen by muscle and liver and increased heart rate and contractile force
B.
Increased breakdown of glycogen by muscle and liver and increased heart rate and contractile force
C.
Decreased breakdown of glycogen by muscle and liver and decreased heart rate and contractile force
D.
Increased breakdown of glycogen by muscle and liver and decreased heart rate and contractile force
E.
No change in breakdown of glycogen by muscle and liver and no change in heart rate and contractile
force
69. (3 points) Which of the following serve as physiologically relevant secondary messengers?
A.
Cyclic nucleotides including cAMP and cGMP
B.
Divalent cations such as calcium ions
C.
Membrane derivatives such as inositol triphosphate and diacylglycerol
D.
Both A and C are correct
E.
A, B, C are correct
70. (3 points) Which of the following is (are) an advantage(s) of protein phosphorylation in regards to
biochemical signaling?
A.
Phosphorylation is rapid and specific.
B.
Phosphorylation is enzymatically reversible.
C.
Phosphorylation can be amplified by cascade systems.
D.
Only A and C are correct
E.
A, B, and C are correct
71. (2 points) Which of the following signaling molecules would be expected to activate receptor tyrosine
kinases?
A. Insulin
B.
Vitamin A
C.
Fibroblast Growth Factor
D.
Both A and C are correct
E.
A, B, and C are correct
72. (3 points) Which of the following is
NOT
a property of integrins?
A.
They are transmembrane proteins.
B.
They exist in the cellular membrane as homodimers.
C.
They assist in establishing physical linkages between extracellular molecules and the cytoskeleton.
D.
They recognize and bind specific amino acid sequences (e.g., RGD) within extracellular matrix
components such as collagen, fibronectin, and fibrin.
E.
They exhibit both outside-in and inside-out signaling.
Page
13
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22
73. (2 points) When describing the differential distribution of ions across the cellular membranes of excitable
tissues (such as neurons and muscle cells), which of the following applies to the resting membrane
potential?
A.
Low extracellular sodium, high intracellular potassium, and high intracellular calcium
B.
High extracellular sodium, low intracellular potassium, and low intracellular calcium
C.
Low extracellular sodium, low intracellular potassium, and high intracellular calcium
D.
High extracellular sodium, high intracellular potassium, and low intracellular calcium
E.
Equal extracellular and intracellular concentrations of sodium, potassium, and calcium
74. (3 points) The Na+/K+ ATPase transporter hydrolyzes a molecule of ATP when transporting 3 Na+ from the
cytosol to the extracellular fluid and 2 K+ from the extracellular fluid to the cytosol. This transporter is best
classified as:
A.
Antiport primary active transporter
B.
Symport primary active transporter
C.
Antiport secondary active transporter
D.
Symport secondary active transporter
E.
Uniport secondary active transporter
Questions 75-76. A FRET biosensor was designed for measuring activation of a specific G-protein coupled
receptor as shown below.
The excitation/emission wavelengths are 475nm/530nm for YFP and 433nm/475nm
for CFP.
75. (3 points) What excitation wavelength would you choose to determine if the G-protein coupled receptor was
activated?
A. 475nm
B. 530nm
C. 433nm
D. 908nm
E.
475nm and 433nm
76. (3 points) What emission wavelength would you detect upon cAMP binding to the G-protein receptor.
A. 475nm
B. 530nm
C. 433nm
D. 908nm
E.
530nm and 475nm
Page
14
of
22
77. (3 points) Which of the following is
TRUE
for both primary and secondary active transporters?
A.
Both types are not very specific with respect to the substrates they transport.
B.
Both types catalyze ATP hydrolysis to pump a substance against its concentration gradient.
C.
Both types couple the transport of one substance against its gradient with cotransport of a second
substance down its concentration gradient
D.
Both types require free energy input to move a substance against its concentration gradient.
E.
None of the above statements are TRUE.
78. (3 points) Calculate the free energy change for glucose entry into cells when the extracellular concentration
is 5 mM and the intracellular concentration is 3 mM.
Assume that the temperature is 25
o
C and membrane
potential is -70 mV (cytosol negative).
A.
-1.07 J/mol
B.
1.27 J/mol
C.
3.80 J/mol
D.
1,150 J/mol
E.
-1,270 J/mol
79. (3 points) Calculate the free energy required to move Ca
2+
ions from the endoplasmic reticulum where [Ca
2+
]
is 1 mM to the cytosol where the [Ca
2+
] is 0.1 µM.
Assume that the membrane potential is -50 mV (cytosol
negative) and temperature is 37
o
C. Would active transport be required for this process?
A.
33 kJ/mol; yes
B.
33 kJ/mol; no
C.
-33 kJ/mol; yes
D.
-33 kJ/mol; no
E.
-28.5 kJ/mol; no
80. (2 points) What type of cellular signaling involves a cell releasing a soluble factor that targets a cell through
the blood stream, as occurs when
cells within the pancreas secrete insulin into the blood stream?
A. Autocrine
B.
Gap Junction
C. Paracrine
D. Endocrine
E. Mechanotransduction
Page
15
of
22
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BME 201
Formula and Information Sheet
Fall 2017
Avogadro’s Number (N):
N= 6.0221
10
23
molecules
mol
-1
Boltzmann Constant (k
B
):
k
B
= 1.3807
10
-23
J
K
-1
Gas Constant (R):
R = 8.3145 J
K
-1
mol
-1
Faraday constant (F):
F =
96,485 J·V
−1
·mol
−1
p
50
myoglobin: 2.8 torr
1 atm = 760 torr
p
50
hemoglobin: 26 torr
Kelvin Temperature Scale (K): 273.15K = 0
o
C
+
¿
H
¿
¿
H
¿
+
¿
¿
¿
pH
=−
log
¿
−
¿
A
¿
¿
¿
pH
=
pK
+
log
¿
∆G
=
∆ H
−
T ∆S
∆G
o
=−
RTlnK
eq
∆G
=
∆G
o
+
RTln
[
C
]
c
[
D
]
d
[
A
]
a
[
B
]
b
K
eq
=
[
C
]
eq
c
[
D
]
eq
d
[
A
]
eq
a
[
B
]
eq
b
=
e
−
∆ G
o
RT
z
=
(
p
2
−
1
)
(
p
2
−
p
1
)
M
=
(
p
2
−
1
)(
p
1
−
1
)
(
p
2
−
p
1
)
K
a
=
[
RL
]
[
R
]
[
L
]
=
1
K
d
Y
=
[
RL
]
[
R
]
T
=
[
RL
]
[
RL
]
+[
R
]
=
[
L
]
K
d
+
[
L
]
Y
O
2
=
pO
2
K
d
+
pO
2
Y
O
2
=
(
pO
2
)
n
(
p
50
)
n
+
(
pO
2
)
n
A
=
εcl
t
1
/
2
=
ln2
k
=
0.693
k
v
o
=
V
max
[
S
]
K
M
+[
S
]
k
cat
=
V
max
[
E
]
T
1
v
o
=
(
K
M
V
max
)
1
[
S
]
+
1
V
max
∆G
c
=
RTln
[
C
]
2
[
C
]
1
∆G
c
=
RTln
[
C
]
2
[
C
]
1
+
ZFV
m
Page
16
of
22
k
=
(
k
B
T
h
)
exp
(
−
ΔG
‡
RT
)
K
outside
+
¿
K
inside
+
¿
¿
RMP
=−
61log
¿
Page
17
of
22
RMP
=−
61log
[
P
Na
[
Na
]
¿
+
P
K
[
K
]
¿
+
P
Ca
[
Ca
]
¿
P
Na
[
Na
]
out
+
P
K
[
K
]
out
+
P
Ca
[
Ca
]
out
]
Page
18
of
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