217 MT prep
pdf
keyboard_arrow_up
School
Georgia Military College *
*We aren’t endorsed by this school
Course
217
Subject
Information Systems
Date
Dec 6, 2023
Type
Pages
22
Uploaded by xpexpert8
Key Terms: Chapter 1
•
Acceptable use policy (AUP)
o
An organization-wide policy that defines what is allowed and disallowed regarding use
of IT assets by employees and authorized contractors.
•
Application gateway firewalls (proxy firewalls)
o
A network device or computer that serves as a firewall and an intermediary between
internal computers and computers on the Internet.
•
Availability
o
is a mathematical calculation where A = (Total Uptime) / (Total Uptime + Total
Downtime).
•
Biometrics
o
A physiological or behavioral human-recognition system (e.g., fingerprint reader, a
retina scanner, a voice-recognition reader, etc.).
•
Blackberry
o
Phone brand
•
Business continuity plan (BCP)
o
A plan for how to handle outages to IT systems, applications, and data access in order to
maintain business operations.
•
Business impact analysis (BIA)
o
A prerequisite analysis for a business continuity plan that prioritizes business operations
and functions and their associated IT systems, applications, and data and the impact of
an outage or downtime.
•
Carrier Sense Multiple Access/Collision Detection (CSMA/CD)
o
The IEEE 802.3 Local Area Network standard for access and collision detection on an
Ethernet Local Area Network segment.
•
Certified Information Systems Security Professional CISSP®
o
A globally recognized information systems security professional certification offered by
(ISC)2.
o
certification for more experienced professionals. Obtaining the CISSP® professional
certification requires the following: passing a certification exam, having at least five
years of experience working in the information system security field, adhering to a code
of ethics, and submitting continuing professional education (CPE) credits to maintain
your certification.
•
Children’s Internet Protection Act (CIPA)
o
A federal law enacted by Congress to address concerns about access to offensive
content over the Internet on school and library computers where children and minors
have access.
•
Ciphertext
o
Encrypted data, the opposite of cleartext. Data sent as ciphertext is not intelligible or
decipherable.
•
Cleartext
o
Unencrypted data, the opposite of ciphertext. Data sent as cleartext is readable and
understandable.
•
Confidentiality
o
The requirement to keep information private or secret.
•
Content filtering
o
The blocking of specific keywords or phrases in domain-name and URL lookups. Specific
URLs and domain names can be prevented from being accessed with web content
filtering enabled.
•
Cryptogram
o
A small encrypted message.
•
Cybersecurity
o
The act of securing and protecting individuals, businesses, organizations, and
governments that are connected to the Internet and the Web.
•
Cyberspace
o
The global online virtual world created by the Internet where individuals, businesses,
organizations, and governments connect to one another.
•
Data breach
o
An incident in which sensitive data is accessed and stolen.
•
Data classification standard
o
A definition of different data types with respect to security sensitivity.
•
Defense in depth
o
Also named the Castle Approach, the implementation of multiple layers of security
(defense) throughout the IT infrastructure (depth).
•
Demilitarized zone (DMZ)
o
An exterior network that acts as a buffer zone between the public Internet and an
organization’s IT infrastructure (i.e., LAN
-to-WAN Domain).
•
Disaster recovery plan (DRP)
o
A written plan for how to handle major disasters or outages and recover mission-critical
systems, applications, and data.
•
Downtime
o
The amount of time that an IT system, application, or data is not available to users.
•
E-commerce
o
The buying and selling of goods and services online through a secure website, with
payment by credit card or direct debit from a checking account.
•
Encryption
o
The act of transforming cleartext data into undecipherable ciphertext.
•
Ethernet
o
An IEEE 802.3 CSMA/CD standard for Ethernet networking supporting speeds from 10
Mbps to over 10 Gbps.
•
Family Educational Rights and Privacy Act (FERPA)
o
A U.S. federal law that protects the private data of students, including their transcripts
and grades, with which K
–
12 and higher-education institutions must comply.
•
Federal Information Security Management Act 2002 (FISMA)
o
A U.S. federal law that requires U.S. government agencies to protect citizens’ private
data and have proper security controls in place.
•
Federal Information Security Modernization Act 2014 (FISMA)
o
A U.S. federal law enacted to bring the requirements of the Federal Information Security
Management Act 2002 up to date with modern threats and security practices.
•
FICO
o
A publicly traded company that provides information used by the consumer credit
reporting agencies Equifax, Experian, and TransUnion.
•
File Transfer Protocol (FTP)
o
A non-secure file-transfer application that uses connection-oriented TCP transmissions
with acknowledgments.
•
Generation Y
o
The generation composed of those born between 1980 and 2000 in the United States.
Members of Generation Y grew up with technologies that baby boomers did not have
(i.e., cell phones, cable TV, Internet, iPods, etc.).
•
Gramm-Leach-Bliley Act (GLBA)
o
A U.S. federal law requiring banking and financial institutions to protect customers’
private data and have proper security controls in place.
•
Hardening
o
A process of changing hardware and software configurations to make computers and
devices as secure as possible.
•
Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA)
o
A U.S. federal law requiring health care institutions and insurance providers to protect
patients’ private data and have proper security controls in place.
•
Hypertext Transfer Protocol (HTTP)
o
An application layer protocol that allows users to communicate and access content via
web pages and browsers.
•
Hypertext Transfer Protocol Secure (HTTPS)
o
The combination of HTTP and SSL/TLS encryption to provide security for data entry by
users entering information on secure web pages, like those found on online banking
websites.
•
Identity theft
o
The act of stealing personally identifiable information with the intent to open new
accounts, make purchases, or commit fraud.
•
IEEE 802.3 CSMA/CD
o
An IEEE standard for local area networking that allows multiple computers to
communicate using the same cabling. This is also known as Ethernet.
•
Information security
o
The protection of data itself.
•
Information systems
o
The servers and application software on which information and data reside.
•
Information systems security
o
The protection of information systems, applications, and data.
•
Instant messaging (IM) chat
o
A session initiation protocol (SIP) application supporting one-to-one or one-to-many
real-time chat. Examples include AOL IM, Yahoo! Messenger, and Google Talk.
•
Institute of Electrical and Electronics Engineers (IEEE)
Your preview ends here
Eager to read complete document? Join bartleby learn and gain access to the full version
- Access to all documents
- Unlimited textbook solutions
- 24/7 expert homework help
o
A standards body that defines specifications and standards for electronic technology.
•
Integrity
o
The validity of information or data. Data with high integrity has not been altered or
modified.
•
International Information Systems Security Certification Consortium (ISC)^2
o
The International Information Systems Security Certification Consortium. A nonprofit
organization dedicated to certifying information systems security professionals.
•
Internet
o
A global network of computer networks that uses the TCP/IP family of protocols and
applications to connect nearly 2 billion users.
•
Internet of Things (IoT)
o
A term used to refer to the large number of networked devices (e.g., personal items,
home appliances, cloud services, vehicles, etc.) that can now connect to the Internet.
•
Intrusion detection system/intrusion prevention system (IDS/IPS)
o
Network security appliances typically installed within the LAN-to-WAN Domain at the
Internet ingress/egress point to monitor and block unwanted IP traffic.
•
IP default gateway router
o
The router interface’s IP address that acts as your LAN’s ingress/egress device.
•
IP stateful firewall
o
A device that examines the IP, TCP, and UDP layers within a packet to make blocking or
forwarding decisions. Firewalls are placed at the ingress/egress points where networks
interconnect.
•
IT security policy framework
o
A set of rules for security. The framework is hierarchical and includes policies, standards,
procedures, and guidelines.
•
Layer 2 switch
o
A network switch that examines the MAC layer address of an IP packet to determine
where to send it. A Layer 2 switch supports LAN connectivity, typically via unshielded
twisted-pair cabling at 10/100/1000 or 10 Gbps Ethernet speeds.
•
Layer 3 switch
o
A network switch that examines the network layer address of an Ethernet frame to
determine where to route it. A Layer 3 switch supports LAN connectivity, typically via
unshielded twisted-pair cabling at 10/100/1000 or 10 Gbps Ethernet speeds and is the
same thing as a router.
•
Local area network (LAN)
o
A collection of computers that are connected to one another or to a common medium.
Computers on a LAN are generally within an area no larger than a building.
•
Malicious code
o
Software written with malicious intent
—
for example, a computer virus
•
Malicious software
o
Software designed to infiltrate one or more target computers and follow an attacker’s
instructions. Also called malware.
•
Mean time between failures (MTBF)
o
MTBF is the predicted amount of time between failures of an IT system during
production operation.
•
Mean time to failure (MTTF)
o
The average amount of time a device is expected to operate before encountering a
failure.
•
Mean time to repair (MTTR)
o
The average amount of time required to repair a device.
•
Multiprotocol Label Switching (MPLS)
o
A wide area network technology that operates at Layer 2 by inserting labels or tags in
the packet header for creating virtual paths between endpoints in a WAN infrastructure.
This is a faster method of transporting IP packets through the WAN without requiring
routing and switching of IP packets.
•
Honestly over it, just use the textbook (this will prob bite me in the ass in the future)
Assessment
1)
Information security is specific to securing information, whereas information systems security is
focused on the security of the systems that house the information.
a)
A. True
2)
Software manufacturers limit their liability when selling software using which of the following?
a)
A. End-User License Agreements
3)
The __________ tenet of information systems security is concerned with the recovery time
objective.
a)
C. Availability
4)
If you are a publicly traded company or U.S. federal government agency, you must go public and
announce that you have had a data breach and must inform the impacted individuals of that
data breach.
a)
A. True
5)
Organizations that require customer service representatives to access private customer data can
best protect customer privacy and make it easy to access other customer data by using which of
the following security controls?
a)
B. Blocking out customer private data details and allowing access only to the last four
digits of Social Security numbers or account numbers
6)
The __________ is the weakest link in an IT infrastructure.
a)
E. User Domain
7)
Which of the following security controls can help mitigate malicious email attachments?
a)
Email filtering and quarantining
b)
Email attachment antivirus scanning
c)
Verifying with users that email source is reputable
d)
Holding all inbound emails with unknown attachments
e)
E. All of the above
8)
You can help ensure confidentiality by implementing __________.
a)
D. A virtual private network for remote access
9)
Encrypting email communications is needed if you are sending confidential information within
an email message through the public Internet.
a)
A. True
10)
Using security policies, standards, procedures, and guidelines helps organizations decrease risks
and threats
a)
A. True
11)
A data classification standard is usually part of which policy definition?
a)
A. Asset protection policy
12)
A data breach is typically performed after which of the following?
a)
A. Unauthorized access to systems and application is obtained
13)
Maximizing availability primarily involves minimizing __________.
a)
The amount of downtime recovering from a disaster
b)
The mean time to repair a system or application
c)
Downtime by implementing a business continuity plan
d)
The recovery time objective
e)
All of the above
14)
Which of the following is not a U.S. compliance law or act?
a)
D. PCI DSS
15)
Internet IP packets are to cleartext what encrypted IP packets are to __________.
a)
B. Ciphertext
Chapter 2
1)
The Internet is an open, public network shared by the entire planet. Anyone can connect to the
Internet with a computer and a valid Internet connection and browser.
a)
True
b)
False
2)
Which of the following are challenges that IoT industry must overcome?
a)
Security and privacy
b)
Interoperability and standards
c)
Legal and regulatory compliance
d)
E-commerce and economic development
e)
All of the above
3)
Which phenomenon helped drive near real-time, high-speed broadband connectivity to the
endpoint device?
a)
Internet connectivity
b)
Email
c)
VoIP
d)
Social media sharing
e)
All of the above
4)
Which of the following requires an IoT-connected automobile?
a)
Near real-time access to household controls and systems
b)
Ability to track the whereabouts of your children through location finder GPS
applications
Your preview ends here
Eager to read complete document? Join bartleby learn and gain access to the full version
- Access to all documents
- Unlimited textbook solutions
- 24/7 expert homework help
c)
Real-time alerts regarding reminders to pay bills on time
d)
Online e-commerce and online shopping with direct delivery
e)
Traffic monitoring sensors that provide real-time updates for traffic conditions
5)
Which of the following are impacts of the IoT on our business lives?
a)
E-commerce
b)
Integrated supply chain with front-end sales order entry
c)
Companies now offering delivery services for products and services with real-time
updates
d)
Customer reviews providing consumers with product and service reviews online and
with more information about customer satisfaction
e)
All of the above
6)
Which of the following helps support remote teleworking?
a)
Presence/availability
b)
IM chat
c)
Video conferencing
d)
Collaboration
e)
All of the above
7)
Which is a security challenge that IoT deployments must overcome?
a)
Congestion of mobile IP traffic
b)
Secure communication with other IoT devices
c)
Liability of an IoT device failing to send an update message
d)
Pricing for software licensing in the IoT device
e)
Privacy data use sharing agreement
8)
Unified messaging provides what functionality for users on the go?
a)
Voice messages that are converted to audio files and emailed to the user’s emailbox
for playback while on the road
b)
One-to-many communications
c)
Many-to-many communications
d)
VoIP communications and messaging
e)
SIP communications and messaging
9)
Which of the following applications can eliminate the need for face-to-face training?
a)
Audio/video conferencing
b)
Collaboration
c)
IM chat
d)
Presence/availability
e)
All of the above
10)
Why do e-commerce systems need the utmost in security controls?
a)
It is a PCI DSS standard.
b)
Private customer data is entered into websites.
c)
Credit card data is entered into websites.
d)
Customer retention requires confidence in secure online purchases.
e)
All of the above
11)
Which of the following is not a challenge that must be overcome by IoT deployments?
a)
Security
b)
Availability
c)
Legal and regulatory
d)
E-commerce and economic development
e)
Privacy
12)
Typically, data must be _____________ to be shared or used for research purposes.
a)
Encrypted
b)
Hashed
c)
De-identified
d)
Masked out
e)
In cleartext The Internet of Things Is Changing How We Live
Chapter 3
1)
The main goal of a hacker is to steal or compromise IT assets and potentially steal data.
a)
True
b)
False
2)
Which of the following best describes intellectual property?
a)
The items a business has copyrighted
b)
All patents owned by a business
c)
The unique knowledge a business possesses
d)
Customer lists
e)
All of the above
3)
Which of the following terms best describes a person with very little hacking skills?
a)
Hacker
b)
Script kiddie
c)
Cracker
d)
Wannabe
e)
All of the above
4)
A(n) _____ is a software tool that is used to capture packets from a network.
a)
Packet sniffer
5)
Which type of attacks result in legitimate users not having access to a system resource?
a)
DDoS
b)
Social engineering
c)
Man in the middle
d)
Phishing emails
e)
SQL injection
6)
A SYN flood attack floods a target with invalid or half-open TCP connection requests.
a)
True
b)
False
7)
Which of the following is an example of social engineering?
a)
SQL injection
b)
XML injection
c)
Security design
d)
Impersonation
e)
All of the above
8)
Which of the following security countermeasures is best for end-point protection against
malware?
a)
Antivirus/anti-malware protection
b)
Data leakage prevention
c)
Standardized workstation and laptop images
d)
Security awareness training
e)
All of the above
9)
War driving involves looking for open or public wireless networks.
a)
True
b)
False
10)
Which of the following impacts availability?
a)
Cross-site scripting
b)
SQL injection
c)
DDoS
d)
Packet sniffing
e)
None of the above
11)
Which type of attack involves capturing data packets from a network and transmitting them
later to produce an unauthorized effect?
a)
Man in the middle
b)
SYN flood
c)
Replay
d)
Smurf
e)
SQL injection
12)
A(n) _____ is any action that could damage an asset.
a)
Threat
13)
A(n) _____ is any weakness that makes it possible for a threat to cause harm to a computer or
network.
a)
Vulnerability
14)
Which type of malware is a self-contained program that replicates and sends copies of itself to
other computers, generally across a network?
a)
Virus
b)
Worm
c)
Trojan
d)
Rootkit
e)
Cookie manipulation
15)
Which type of malware involves extorting the user or organization into paying money to release
a decryption key?
a)
Virus
b)
Trojan
c)
Logic bomb
d)
Cryptolocker malware
Chapter 4
Your preview ends here
Eager to read complete document? Join bartleby learn and gain access to the full version
- Access to all documents
- Unlimited textbook solutions
- 24/7 expert homework help
1)
Risk management is responding to a negative event when it occurs.
a)
True
b)
False
2)
With respect to IT security, a risk can result in either a positive or a negative effect.
a)
True
b)
False
3)
According to PMI, which term describes the list of identified risks?
a)
Risk checklist
b)
Risk register
c)
Risk methodology
d)
Mitigation list
e)
All of the above
4)
What is the primary purpose of a business impact analysis (BIA)?
a)
To identify, categorize, and prioritize mission-critical business functions
b)
To provide a road map for business continuity and disaster recovery planning
c)
To assist organizations with risk management
d)
To assist organizations with incident response planning
e)
All of the above
5)
Which of the following terms defines the amount of time it takes to recover a production IT
system, application, and access to data?
a)
Recovery point objective
b)
Recovery time objective
c)
Risk exposure time
d)
Production recovery time
e)
None of the above
6)
The recovery point objective (RPO) defines the last point in time for _______ recovery that can
be enabled back into production.
a)
System
b)
Application
c)
Production
d)
Data
e)
None of the above
7)
Which of the following solutions are used for authenticating a user to gain access to systems,
applications, and data?
a)
Passwords and PINs
b)
Smart cards and tokens
c)
Biometric devices
d)
Digital certificates
e)
All of the above
8)
Which risk management approach requires a distributed approach with business units working
with the IT organization?
a)
OCTAVE
b)
CRAMM
c)
NIST SP800-33
d)
ISO 27005
e)
None of the above
9)
The NIST SP800-30 standard is a _______________ management framework standard for
performing risk management.
a)
Risk
b)
Threat
c)
Vulnerability
d)
Security
e)
None of the above
10)
Which term indicates the maximum amount of data loss over a time period?
a)
RAI
b)
ROI
c)
RTO
d)
RPO
e)
None of the above
11)
Organizations that permit their employees to use their own laptops or smartphone devices and
connect to the IT infrastructure describe a policy referred to as:
a)
RTO
b)
MDM
c)
BYOD
d)
AUP
e)
None of the above
12)
Which of the following are organizational concerns for BYOD and mobility?
a)
Data ownership
b)
Privacy
c)
Lost or stolen device
d)
Data wiping
e)
All of the above
13)
_____ is the U.S. security-related act that governs regulated health care information.
a)
HIPAA
14)
Which U.S. security-related act governs the security of data specifically for the financial
industry?
a)
GLBA
b)
COPPA
c)
HIPAA
d)
FERPA\
e)
None of the above
15)
Which of the following business drivers are impacting businesses’ and organizations’ security
requirements and implementations?
a)
Mobility
b)
Regulatory compliance
c)
Productivity enhancements
d)
Always-on connectivity
e)
All of the above
Chapter 5
1)
Access controls are policies or procedures used to control access to certain items.
a)
True
b)
False
2)
Which answer best describes the authorization component of access control?
a)
Authorization is the method a subject uses to request access to a system.
b)
Authorization is the process of creating and maintaining the policies and procedures
necessary to ensure proper information is available when an organization is audited.
c)
Authorization is the validation or proof that the subject requesting access is indeed the
same subject who has been granted that access.
d)
Authorization is the process of determining who is approved for access and what
resources they are approved for.
3)
Which answer best describes the identification component of access control?
a)
Identification is the validation or proof that the subject requesting access is indeed the
same subject who has been granted that access.
b)
Identification is the method a subject uses to request access to a system.
c)
Identification is the process of determining who is approved for access and what
resources they are approved for.
d)
Identification is the process of creating and maintaining the policies and procedures
necessary to ensure proper information is available when an organization is audited.
4)
Which answer best describes the authentication component of access control?
a)
Authentication is the validation or proof that the subject requesting access is indeed
the same subject who has been granted that access.
b)
Authentication is the process of creating and maintaining the policies and procedures
necessary to ensure proper information is available when an organization is audited.
c)
Authentication is the process of determining who is approved for access and what
resources they are approved for.
d)
Authentication is the method a subject uses to request access to a system.
5)
Which answer best describes the accountability component of access control?
a)
Accountability is the validation or proof that the subject requesting access is indeed the
same subject who has been granted that access.
b)
Accountability is the method a subject uses to request access to a system.
c)
Accountability is the process of creating and maintaining the policies and procedures
necessary to ensure proper information is available when an organization is audited.
d)
Accountability is the process of determining who is approved for access and what
resources they are approved for.
6)
Physical access controls deter physical access to resources, such as buildings or gated parking
lots.
a)
True
b)
False
Your preview ends here
Eager to read complete document? Join bartleby learn and gain access to the full version
- Access to all documents
- Unlimited textbook solutions
- 24/7 expert homework help
7)
When you log on to a network, you are presented with some combination of username,
password, token, smart card, or biometrics. You are then authorized or denied access by the
system. This is an example of __________.
a)
Physical access controls
b)
Logical access controls
c)
Group membership policy
d)
The Biba integrity model
e)
None of the above
8)
Access controls cannot be implemented in various forms, restriction levels, or different levels
within the computing environment.
a)
True
b)
False
9)
Which of the following is an example of a formal model of access control?
a)
Discretionary access control (DAC)
b)
Mandatory access control (MAC)
c)
Nondiscretionary access control
d)
The Clark and Wilson integrity model
e)
All of the above
10)
Physical access, security bypass, and eavesdropping are examples of how access controls can be
__________.
a)
Stolen
b)
Compromised
c)
Audited
d)
Authorized
11)
Challenges to access control include which of the following?
a)
Laptop loss
b)
Exploiting hardware
c)
Eavesdropping
d)
Exploiting applications
e)
All of the above
12)
When the owner of the resource determines the access and changes permissions as needed, it’s
known as __________.
a)
Mandatory access control (MAC)
b)
Discretionary access control (DAC)
c)
Nondiscretionary access control
d)
Content-dependent access control
e)
Role-based access control
13)
The process of identifying, quantifying, and prioritizing the vulnerabilities in a system is known
as a __________.
a)
Vulnerability policy
b)
Vulnerability deterrent
c)
Vulnerability authorization
d)
Vulnerability assessment
14)
The security kernel enforces access control of computer systems.
a)
True
b)
False
15)
When it comes to privacy, organizations are concerned about which of the following?
a)
Liability in harassment suits
b)
Skyrocketing losses from employee theft
c)
Productivity losses from employees shopping or performing other nonwork-related
tasks online
d)
All of the above
Chapter 6
1)
Security administration is the group of individuals responsible for the planning, design,
implementation, and monitoring of an organization’s security plan.
a)
True
b)
False
2)
The security program requires documentation of:
a)
The security process
b)
The policies, procedures, and guidelines adopted by the organization
c)
The authority of the persons responsible for security
d)
All of the above
e)
None of the above
3)
An organization does not have to comply with both regulatory standards and organizational
standards.
a)
True
b)
False
4)
A(n) ________ is a formal contract between your organization and an outside firm that details
the specific services the firm will provide.
a)
Security event log
b)
Incident response
c)
Service-level agreement (SLA)
d)
Compliance report
5)
Which software testing method provides random input to see how software handles
unexpected data?
a)
Injection
b)
Fuzzing
c)
Valid error input
d)
Boundary input
6)
In 1989, the IAB issued a statement of policy about Internet ethics. This document is known as
________.
a)
OECD
b)
RFC 1087
c)
(ISC)2 Code of Ethics Canons
d)
CompTIA Candidate Code of Ethics
e)
None of the above
7)
________ is the concept that users should be granted only the levels of permissions they need
in order to perform their duties.
a)
Mandatory vacations
b)
Separation of duties
c)
Job rotation
d)
Principle of least privilege
e)
None of the above
8)
Which of the following is an example of social engineering?
a)
An emotional appeal for help
b)
A phishing attack
c)
Intimidation
d)
Name-dropping
e)
All of the above
9)
Policy sets the tone and culture of the organization.
a)
True
b)
False
10)
________ involve the standardization of the hardware and software solutions used to address a
security risk throughout the organization.
a)
Policies
b)
Standards
c)
Procedures
d)
Baselines
11)
Which of the following is true of procedures?
a)
They increase mistakes in a crisis.
b)
They provide for places within the process to conduct assurance checks.
c)
Important steps are often overlooked.
d)
None of the above
e)
All of the above
12)
Data classification is the responsibility of the person who owns the data.
a)
True
b)
False
13)
The objectives of classifying information include which of the following?
a)
To identify data value in accordance with organization policy
b)
To identify information protection requirements
c)
To standardize classification labeling throughout the organization
d)
To comply with privacy law, regulations, and so on
e)
All of the above
14)
Configuration management is the management of modifications made to the hardware,
software, firmware, documentation, test plans, and test documentation of an automated
system throughout the system life cycle.
a)
True
b)
False
15)
The change management process includes ________ control and ________ control.
a)
Clearance, classification
Your preview ends here
Eager to read complete document? Join bartleby learn and gain access to the full version
- Access to all documents
- Unlimited textbook solutions
- 24/7 expert homework help
b)
Document, data
c)
Hardware inventory, software development
d)
Configuration, change
16)
More and more organizations use the term ________ to describe the entire change and
maintenance process for applications.
a)
System development life cycle (SDLC)
b)
System life cycle (SLC)
c)
System maintenance life cycle (SMLC)
d)
None of the above
17)
When developing software, you should ensure the application does which of the following?
a)
Has edit checks, range checks, validity checks, and other similar controls
b)
Checks user authorization
c)
Checks user authentication to the application
d)
Has procedures for recovering database integrity in the event of system failure
e)
All of the above
18)
There are several types of software development methods, but most traditional methods are
based on the ________ model.
a)
Modification
b)
Waterfall
c)
Developer
d)
Integration
LAB Questions
LAB 1:
1.
Name at least five applications and tools used in the lab Introduction.
a.
Wireshark, Nessus, NetWitness Investigator, and FileZilla.
2.
What is promiscuous mode?
a.
Promiscuous mode is where “every data packet can be seen and captured by the
sniffer” (Kim, 2016).
3.
How does Wireshark differ from NetWitness Investigator?
a.
NetWitness organizes the traffic to make patterns more noticeable while
Wireshark only looks at each packet.
4.
Why is it important to select student interface in the Wireshark?
a.
So that Wireshark can see traffic that is visible to students.
5.
What is the command line syntax for running an Intense Scan with Zenmap on a target
subnet of 172.30.0.0/24?
a.
Nmap-T4-A-v 172.30.0.0/24
6.
Name at least five different scans that may be performed with Zenmap.
a.
Intense scan, ping scan, quick scan, regular scan, and slow comprehensive scan.
7.
How many different tests (i.e., scripts) did your Intense Scan perform?
a.
5 (ARP Ping scan, Parallel DNS resolution, SYN Stealth Scan, Service scan,
NSE)
8.
Based on your interpretation of the Intense Scan, describe the purpose/results of each
tests script performed during the report.
a.
ARP Ping scan is to detect hosts. The DNS resolution is used to lookup the names
of the host that were picked up during the ping scan. The SYN Stealth Scan is
used to test for open ports. Service scans can be used to reveal information about
its target like its type or version. NSE is used to find the NSE for each host.
9.
How many total IP hosts did Zenmap find on the network?
a.
5
10.
Explain how attackers use common network scanning and analysis tools to compromise
networks.
a.
Attackers use common network scanning to gather information. They can gain
access to better help them hack into a network, like what ports are open or even a
password that wasn’t encrypted, and see the vulnerabilities that are present.
LAB 2:
1.
What is Zenmap typically used for? How is it related to Nmap? Describe a scenario in
which you would use this type of application.
a.
Zenmap, the graphical interface for Nmap, is used as a scanner tool to find hosts
and what type of operating systems are running. A scenario example would be
when a user needs to see which hosts/ ports are open.
2.
Which application can be used to perform a vulnerability assessment scan in the
reconnaissance phase of the ethical hacking process?
a.
Nessus is used to perform the vulnerability assessment.
3.
What must you obtain before you begin the ethical hacking process or penetration test on
a live production network, even before performing the reconnaissance step?
a.
One is required to have written permission, complete transparency, and
professional accountability otherwise it is considered an attack.
4.
What is a CVE listing? Who hosts and who sponsors the CVE database listing web site?
a.
The CVE, Common Vulnerabilities and Exposures) listing is a database of known
security vulnerabilities and exposures. CVE is sponsored by the US Department
of Homeland Security.
5.
Can Zenmap detect which operating systems are present on IP servers and workstations?
Which option includes that scan?
a.
Yes, by running the OS scan in Zenmap, the operating systems area is able to be
detected.
6.
How can you limit the breadth and scope of a vulnerability scan?
a.
By specifying the hosts that need to be scanned in a text file.
7.
Once a vulnerability has been identified by Nessus, where would you check for more
information regarding the identified vulnerability, exploits, and any risk mitigation
solution?
a.
By checking the CVE listing database website.
Your preview ends here
Eager to read complete document? Join bartleby learn and gain access to the full version
- Access to all documents
- Unlimited textbook solutions
- 24/7 expert homework help
8.
What is the major difference between Zenmap and Nessus?
a.
Nessus is used to perform the vulnerability assessment while Zenmap is used to
discover hosts and ports.
9.
Why do you need to run both tools like Zenmap and Nessus to complete the
reconnaissance phase of the ethical hacking process?
a.
Both are needed to complete the phase because Zenmap identifies the devices on
the network and Nesses is used to record and flag vulnerabilities.
10.
What activities can cause a security breach?
a.
A list of activities that can cause a security breach is DoS and DDoS attacks,
unacceptable web-browsing behavior, wiretapping, use of a backdoor access
resources, and accidental data modifications (Kim 2016).
LAB 3:
1.
What are the three fundamental elements of an effective security program for information
systems?
a.
Confidentiality, integrity and availability.
2.
Of these three fundamental controls, which two are used by the Domain User Admin to
create users and assign rights to resources?
a.
Confidentiality and integrity.
3.
If you can browse a file on a Windows network share, but are not able to copy it or
modify it, what type of access controls and permissions are probably configured?
a.
Those files are mostly locked on a view only mode since the user can look but not
touch. This is possible by selecting the List Folder Contentes in the Permissions
window in files.
4.
What is the mechanism on a Windows server where you can administer granular policies
and permissions on a Windows network using role-based access?
a.
Windows Group Policy editor.
5.
What is two-factor authentication, and why is it an effective access control technique?
a.
Two-factor authentication is a two-step login that requires something that is
known and another form of authentication like face ID. It is effective because a
user, malicious or not, is required to pass multiple layers of authentication just to
access one thing.
6.
Relate how Windows Server Active Directory and the configuration of access controls
achieve CIA for departmental LANs, departmental folders, and data.
a.
CIA is achieved by creating users, assigning those users to groups, and applying
those groups to their respected resources in the domain. This allows the
administrator to set up authentication using the Active Directory Domain
authentication policies but also being able to build up a series of lists that are used
to control the access to domain resources.
7.
Is it good practice to include the account or username in the password? Why or why not?
a.
No, because the username is typically easy to figure out and it is normally visible
on the login screen.
8.
What is Role-based access control (RBAC)?
a.
The access granted to a user is based off of their jobs.
9.
Name at least three ways access controls can be compromised? Explain
a.
Eavesdropping via observation is when information is left out normally on
accident, like leaving data out on a table, and someone can know ‘access’ the data
(Kim 2016).
b.
Exploiting hardware and software
is “when attackers attempt to install programs
on a system they control. These programs are often called Trojan horses. The
network administrator or workstation owner may not even know the attacker is
there” (Kim 2016).
c.
Reusing or discarding media
makes it able for attackers to “recover erased or
altered information from discarded or reused media. It is safer and cheaper to
shred documents and physically destroy media than to simply throw them out”
(Kim 2016).
LAB 4:
1.
Define why change control management is relevant to security operations in an
organization.
a.
Change control management is relevant to security
operations because “the
objective is to maximize the benefits for all people involved in the change and
minimize the risk of failure” (Kim, 2016).
2.
Name six (6) password policies you could enable in a Windows Domain.
a.
Enforce password history, max password age, minimum password age, minimum
password length, password must meet complexity requirements, and store
passwords using reversible encryption.
3.
What is the minimum password length enforced by the Password must meet complexity
requirements policy?
a.
At least 6 characters but it needs to be changed to 8.
4.
What sources could you use as a source to perform the MBSA security state?
a.
Microsoft Update and Windows Server Update Services.
Your preview ends here
Eager to read complete document? Join bartleby learn and gain access to the full version
- Access to all documents
- Unlimited textbook solutions
- 24/7 expert homework help
5.
What are some of the options that you can exercise to configure the MBSA scan?
a.
You can check for windows administrative vulnerabilities, weak passwords, IIS and SQL
administrative vulnerabilities and security updates. This can be done over one computer
or over multiple computers.
Your preview ends here
Eager to read complete document? Join bartleby learn and gain access to the full version
- Access to all documents
- Unlimited textbook solutions
- 24/7 expert homework help