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ADMS 2200 Testbanks Midterm
Introduction to Financial Accounting (York University)
Studocu is not sponsored or endorsed by any college or university
ADMS 2200 Testbanks Midterm
Introduction to Financial Accounting (York University)
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Chapter 1—Marketing: The Art and Science of Satisfying Customers
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1.
What utility does Cannondale create when the company combines aluminum and other components in the
production of bicycles?
a.
ownership utility
b.
form utility
c.
place utility
d.
time utility
ANS: B
PTS:
1
DIF:
1
REF:
5
2.
When you purchase concert tickets over the Internet, which of the following utilities is
NOT
created?
a.
place utility
b.
time utility
c.
form utility
d.
ownership utility
ANS: C
PTS:
1
DIF:
2
REF:
5
3.
Which of the following must all organizations create in order to survive?
a.
a variety of goods or services
b.
utility
c.
an environment of ethics and social consciousness
d.
advertising, salesmanship, and consumer-focused sales promotion
ANS: B
PTS:
1
DIF:
1
REF:
5
4.
What is the want-satisfying power of a product called?
a.
utility
b.
price
c.
buyer’s attraction
d.
function
ANS: A
PTS:
1
DIF:
1
REF:
5
5.
What utility does Purolator create when the company offers a variety of package delivery services?
a.
time utility
b.
place utility
c.
ownership utility
d.
form utility
ANS: A
PTS:
1
DIF:
1
REF:
5
6.
What utility is created when a firm converts raw materials and other inputs into finished products?
a.
ownership utility
b.
time utility
c.
form utility
d.
place utility
ANS: C
PTS:
1
DIF:
2
REF:
5
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7.
Which of the following is NOT a reason for a growing global marketplace?
a.
internet technology
b.
trade agreements
c.
no single country can manufacture, supply, and consume all that it produces.
d.
changing climate patterns
ANS: D
PTS:
1
DIF:
2
REF:
7
8.
Approximately how much trade crosses the Canada–U.S. border each day?
a.
$1.2 million
b.
$150 million
c.
$500 million
d.
$1.4 billion
ANS: D
PTS:
1
DIF:
2
REF:
8
9.
When in marketing history did the production era end in North America?
a.
late 1800s—with the mass immigration of skilled workers to North America
b.
1920s—with the improvement in production capabilities
c.
1960s—with the establishment of overseas production facilities
d.
21st century—with the introduction of robotics
ANS: B
PTS:
1
DIF:
2
REF:
9-10
10.
What era of marketing history had a marketing philosophy that could be summarized by the phrase “a good
product will sell itself”?
a.
production era
b.
sales era
c.
marketing era
d.
relationship era
ANS: A
PTS:
1
DIF:
2
REF:
8
11.
A company produces a high-quality product, with a maximum monthly output of 10,000 units. Production levels
are constant and the company relies on its marketing department to find customers. What era of marketing
history is this approach consistent with?
a.
production era
b.
relationship era
c.
sales era
d.
marketing era
ANS: C
PTS:
1
DIF:
2
REF:
9
12.
Which of the following factors contributed to the transition from the production era to the sales era?
a.
significantly increased consumer demand
b.
improved production techniques
c.
increased urbanization
d.
the Great Depression
ANS: B
PTS:
1
DIF:
1
REF:
9
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13.
What type of orientation does a company have when it assumes that customers will resist purchasing products
NOT deemed essential and, therefore, the marketing department must overcome this resistance through personal
selling and advertising?
a.
production orientation
b.
marketing orientation
c.
sales orientation
d.
relationship orientation
ANS: C
PTS:
1
DIF:
1
REF:
9
14.
What characterizes a buyer’s market?
a.
more goods and services than buyers
b.
more buyers than available goods and services
c.
practically no competition in the marketplace
d.
slow economic growth
ANS: A
PTS:
1
DIF:
1
REF:
9
15.
What BEST explains the emergence of the marketing concept?
a.
higher production levels
b.
a shift from a production to a sales orientation
c.
a shift from a seller’s market to a buyer’s market
d.
a focus on product quality
ANS: C
PTS:
1
DIF:
2
REF:
9
16.
When did relationship marketing emerge?
a.
right after the end of World War II
b.
during the mid-1960s
c.
during the mid-1980s
d.
during the 1990s
ANS: D
PTS:
1
DIF:
2
REF:
10
17.
Which of the following BEST applies to a strong market orientation?
a.
It reflects the adoption by a firm of a sales orientation.
b.
It is consistent with a production orientation.
c.
It becomes necessary with a shift from a buyer’s market to a seller’s market.
d.
It generally improves market success and overall performance.
ANS: D
PTS:
1
DIF:
2
REF:
10
18.
What type of relationships do firms focus on in the relationship era?
a.
short-term relationships with customers and suppliers
b.
long-term relationships with customers and suppliers
c.
short-term relationships with customers
d.
long-term relationships with customers
ANS: B
PTS:
1
DIF:
2
REF:
10
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19.What management approach would MOST likely endanger the future growth of a company?
a.
when management adopts a consumer orientation
b.
when management becomes aware of the scope of its business
c.
when management becomes committed to maintaining a product-oriented philosophy
d.
when management begins focusing on providing benefits rather than producing products
ANS: C
PTS:
1
DIF:
2
REF:
8
20.
If a company such as J.B. Hunt Trucking wanted to avoid marketing myopia, how should it define its business?
a.
as transportation
b.
as trucking
c.
as materials handling
d.
as freight hauling
ANS: A
PTS:
1
DIF:
1
REF:
12
21.
What statement would suggest that the firm has avoided marketing myopia?
a.
We write computer software.
b.
We make our customers’ dreams come true.
c.
We manufacture high-quality machine tools.
d.
We handle freight for our customers.
ANS: B
PTS:
1
DIF:
1
REF:
12
22.
How many not-for-profit organizations are there in Canada
?
a.
under 100 000
b.
between 100 000 and 124 000
c.
between 125 000 and 159 000
d.
over
160 000
ANS: D
PTS:
1
DIF:
3
REF:
13
23.
Who often benefits from an alliance between a not-for-profit organization and a for-profit organization?
a.
neither party
b.
both parties
c.
the not-for-profit more than the for-profit
d.
the for-profit more than the not-for-profit
ANS: B
PTS:
1
DIF:
2
REF:
13
24.Which of the following statements BEST applies when comparing not-for-profit organizations to for-profit
organizations?
a.
Not-for-profit organizations cannot be impacted by contributors’ personal agendas.
b.
Not-for-profit organizations may only market intangibles.
c.
Not-for-profit organizations depend on strategic alliances with for-profits.
d.
Not-for-profit organizations must try to find ways to market only their services.
ANS: C
PTS:
1
DIF:
3
REF:
14
25.What is the MOST obvious distinction between not-for-profit and for-profit organizations?
a.
for-profits have more exact marketing goals
b.
not-for-profits have a different view of what constitutes the bottom line
c.
customers of not-for-profits have more control
d.
not-for-profits market services, not goods
ANS: B
PTS:
1
DIF:
1
REF:
14
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26.
What type of marketing is an example of traditional marketing, as opposed to non-traditional marketing
?
a.
political marketing
b.
cause marketing
c.
event marketing
d.
organization marketing
ANS: A
PTS:
1
DIF:
1
REF:
15
27.
Melissa is managing the campaign of her friend for the presidency of the student council. What type of
marketing is Melissa’s effort an example of?
a.
cause marketing
b.
person marketing
c.
place marketing
d.
organization marketing
ANS: B
PTS:
1
DIF:
1
REF:
15
28.
You receive a flyer urging you to attend a rally for a local political candidate. You’re asked to bring a can of
food for the local food bank as the “price of admission.” What two types of marketing is this a combination of?
a.
event and person marketing
b.
event and organization marketing
c.
organization and cause marketing
d.
cause and person marketing
ANS: D
PTS:
1
DIF:
3
REF:
15-16
29.
A music star promotes her concerts, but also uses her concerts to promote a charitable cause. What two types of
marketing is this example a combination of?
a.
event and person marketing
b.
cause and person marketing
c.
cause and event marketing
d.
person and organization marketing
ANS: C
PTS:
1
DIF:
3
REF:
15-16
30.
What is the basic objective of place marketing?
a.
to attract visitors or new businesses to a particular area
b.
to influence others to accept the goals of the sponsoring organization
c.
to convince people to attend a sporting or cultural event
d.
to bring to the attention of the public some charitable issue
ANS: A
PTS:
1
DIF:
1
REF:
15-16
31.
What type of marketing do federal and provincial departments of tourism typically engage in?
a.
organization marketing
b.
person marketing
c.
place marketing
d.
cause marketing
ANS: C
PTS:
1
DIF:
1
REF:
15-16
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32.
Mars Inc.’s M&M’s division donates 50 cents of specially marked candy sales to the Special Olympics. What is
this an example of?
a.
event marketing
b.
person marketing
c.
cause marketing
d.
place marketing
ANS: C
PTS:
1
DIF:
1
REF:
16
33.
What type of marketing does the Coca-Cola Company engage in as an official sponsor of the Olympics?
a.
place marketing
b.
event marketing
c.
person marketing
d.
organization marketing
ANS: B
PTS:
1
DIF:
2
REF:
16-17
34.
An alumni association at a university sends out announcements promoting the upcoming football game and an
alumni association function. What two types of marketing is this example a combination of?
a.
place and person marketing
b.
event and organization marketing
c.
person and organization marketing
d.
event and place marketing
ANS: B
PTS:
1
DIF:
3
REF:
16-17
35.
Some Ontario drivers have licence plates that have the logo of their university on their plate. What type of
marketing is this an example of?
a.
organization marketing
b.
cause marketing
c.
place marketing
d.
event marketing
ANS: A
PTS:
1
DIF:
2
REF:
17
36.
What are companies able to do by converting indifferent customers into loyal ones through relationship
marketing?
a.
minimize lifetime value
b.
start a process by which customers become bound contractually to the business
c.
avoid the necessity of improving customer service in the long run
d.
generate repeat sales
ANS: D
PTS:
1
DIF:
2
REF:
18
37.
The application of relationship
marketing requires attention to levels of customer loyalty. What is the highest
level, as defined by this type of marketing?
a.
loyal supporter of the company and its goods and services
b.
advocate who buys the products and recommends them to others
c.
regular purchaser of the company’s products
d.
shareholder who literally buys into the organization and its mission
ANS: B
PTS:
1
DIF:
3
REF:
18
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38.
Many hotel chains offer free stays and other perks to repeat customers. What is this an example of?
a.
relationship marketing
b.
transaction-based marketing
c.
team marketing
d.
a strategic alliance
ANS: A
PTS:
1
DIF:
1
REF:
18
39.
A biotechnology company and a university medical school work to develop a new drug to treat arthritis. What is
this an example of?
a.
a joint marketing agreement
b.
marketing research
c.
a one-to-one marketing program
d.
a strategic alliance
ANS: D
PTS:
1
DIF:
1
REF:
20
40.
Schwann’s Foods sells its products through both grocery stores and door-to-door sales. Selling, order taking,
delivery, and limited customer service are all conducted by the drivers. What two marketing functions overlap as
a result of the drivers’ required responsibilities?
a.
facilitation and distribution
b.
exchange and facilitation
c.
distribution and exchange
d.
exchange and financing
ANS: C
PTS:
1
DIF:
3
REF:
21
41.What function is Future Shop performing when it sells a person a new television or DVD player?
a.
facilitation
b.
buying
c.
distribution
d.
risk taking
ANS: C
PTS:
1
DIF:
2
REF:
21
42.
Which of the following are included in the facilitating functions of marketing?
a.
securing marketing information and risk taking
b.
buying and selling
c.
transportation and storage
d.
typing and separation
ANS: A
PTS:
1
DIF:
2
REF:
21
43.
What is involved in the selling function of marketing?
a.
making sufficient quantities of goods available in the marketplace
b.
ensuring products meet established quality and quantity standards
c.
securing marketing information
d.
using advertising, personal selling, and sales promotion
ANS: D
PTS:
1
DIF:
2
REF:
21
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44.
What function is financing a part of?
a.
exchange
b.
pricing
c.
commercial
d.
facilitating
ANS: D
PTS:
1
DIF:
2
REF:
21
45.
General Motors Acceptance Corporation provides credit to GM dealers, as well as buyers. What function is this
an example of?
a.
financing
b.
exchange
c.
distribution
d.
securing marketing information
ANS: A
PTS:
1
DIF:
2
REF:
21
46.
What are the physical distribution functions of marketing?
a.
storing and transporting
b.
standardization and grading
c.
financing and risk taking
d.
buying and selling
ANS: A
PTS:
1
DIF:
1
REF:
21
47.
Why do marketers apply quantity control standards?
a.
to engage in the process of exchange
b.
to reduce the need for purchasers to inspect each item they purchase
c.
to determine the amount an individual will be allowed to buy on credit
d.
to develop channels of distribution for a product
ANS: B
PTS:
1
DIF:
2
REF:
21
48.
What are moral standards of behaviour expected by society called?
a.
social responsibilities
b.
marketing concepts
c.
facilitating functions of marketing
d.
ethics
ANS: D
PTS:
1
DIF:
1
REF:
22
49.
Approximately what percentage of large companies offer some sort of ethics training for workers?
a.
less than one-quarter
b.
around one-third
c.
around one-half
d.
more than one-half
ANS: D
PTS:
1
DIF:
2
REF:
22
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50.Which of the following involves marketing philosophies, policies, procedures, and actions whose primary objective is
the enhancement of society?
a.
social responsibility
b.
green marketing
c.
ethics
d.
relationship marketing
ANS: A
PTS:
1
DIF:
1
REF:
22
51.What type of behaviour do Walmart stores exhibit by contributing to local scholarships and community programs?
a.
relationship marketing
b.
social responsibility
c.
green marketing
d.
one-to-one marketing
ANS: B
PTS:
1
DIF:
2
REF:
22
52.
According to a Canadian group called Network for Business sustainability, how much of a premium are
customers willing to pay for sustainable products?
a.
6%
b.
8%
c.
10%
d.
12%
ANS: C
PTS:
1
DIF:
1
REF:
23
53.
The final marketing function includes which of the following?
a.
Securing marketing information
b.
Financing
c.
Risk-taking
d.
Buying
ANS: A
PTS:
1
DIF:
1
REF:
23
Chapter 2—Strategic Planning in Contemporary Marketing
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1.
What is the process of anticipating future events and conditions and determining the BEST way to achieve
organizational objectives called?
a.
researching
b.
planning
c.
controlling
d.
managing
ANS: B
PTS:
1
DIF:
1
REF:
32
2.
What do product lines, pricing decisions, selection of appropriate distribution channels, and decisions relating to
promotional campaigns all depend on?
a.
technology available to the firm
b.
decisions made within in the accounting department
c.
plans formulated within the marketing department
d.
industry-wide planning programs
ANS: C
PTS:
1
DIF:
2
REF:
33
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3.
What does marketing planning establish?
a.
the resource base provided by the firm’s strategy
b.
the economic impact of additional sales
c.
the tactical plans that must be implemented by the entire organization
d.
the basis for attaining marketing objectives
ANS: D
PTS:
1
DIF:
1
REF:
33
4.
How can relationship marketing help a company?
a.
by creating long-term links with individual customers for mutual benefit
b.
by reducing its strategic planning effort since the need for such planning is greatly diminished
c.
by finding more effective media for use in advertising and mass marketing
d.
by cutting through the planning process and moving into tactical plans
ANS: A
PTS:
1
DIF:
2
REF:
33
5.
Effective relationship marketing is partly built upon the use of which of the following?
a.
inside information about competitors
b.
the databases to track customer preferences
c.
the larger advertising budgets
d.
the knowledge about changes in economic conditions
ANS: B
PTS:
1
DIF:
1
REF:
33
6.
Best Buy wanted to open a new store in Fredericton, New Brunswick, but instead of building a new store a
decision was made to renovate a grocery superstore that had closed. What type of planning was this decision the
result of?
a.
tactical planning
b.
marketing planning
c.
strategic planning
d.
economic planning
ANS: A
PTS:
1
DIF:
2
REF:
34
7.
How long a period will a firm be affected by broad-spectrum strategic planning that may involve a focus on
achieving long-range organizational objectives?
a.
as long as one to six months
b.
as long as six months to a year
c.
as long as five years or more
d.
as long as 20 years
ANS: C
PTS:
1
DIF:
2
REF:
34
8.
What long-term plans focus on organizational objectives that will significantly affect the firm for five or more
years?
a.
strategic plans
b.
marketing plans
c.
economic plans
d.
tactical plans
ANS: A
PTS:
1
DIF:
1
REF:
34
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9.
If Toyota was planning to introduce a sports car powered by a hydrogen-oxygen fuel cell when the price of
gasoline in Canada reached $1.10 per litre, what type of plan does this BEST describe?
a.
an economic plan
b.
a strategic plan
c.
a technological plan
d.
a tactical plan
ANS: B
PTS:
1
DIF:
2
REF:
34
10.
Sport Canada is determining where it should build its permanent training facility. The organization wants it near
a populated centre but rural enough to provide ample room. What type of planning is the organization engaged
in?
a.
strategic planning
b.
travel planning
c.
marketing planning
d.
economic planning
ANS: A
PTS:
1
DIF:
2
REF:
34
11.
What type of plan does a company have when it focuses largely on current and near-future activities?
a.
a strategic plan
b.
a marketing plan
c.
an economic plan
d.
a tactical plan
ANS: D
PTS:
1
DIF:
1
REF:
34
12.
Compared with other organization personnel, who devotes more time to long-range strategic planning?
a.
middle management
b.
manufacturing labour
c.
top management
d.
supervisory management
ANS: C
PTS:
1
DIF:
1
REF:
35
13.
SuperSavers Market, a small grocery store chain, is working on its tactical plans. Who would be the personnel
MOST involved in this operational planning process?
a.
top management
b.
middle management
c.
store managers
d.
supervisory management
ANS: B
PTS:
1
DIF:
2
REF:
35
14.
What does the planning process begin with?
a.
writing the mission statement
b.
establishing organizational objectives
c.
formulating a marketing plan
d.
hiring a senior planner
ANS: A
PTS:
1
DIF:
1
REF:
36
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15.
What type of planning would preparation of quarterly and semi-annual plans by personnel, such as the general
sales manager or advertising director, be classified as?
a.
consumer planning
b.
tactical planning
c.
strategic planning
d.
managerial planning
ANS: B
PTS:
1
DIF:
1
REF:
35
16.
What type of plans in the planning hierarchy would deal with organization-wide objectives, long-term plans, and
the total budget?
a.
annual plans
b.
tactical plans
c.
operational plans
d.
strategic plans
ANS: D
PTS:
1
DIF:
1
REF:
35
17.
Who should complete operational planning?
a.
top management
b.
mid-level managers
c.
supervisory management
d.
lower management
ANS: B
PTS:
1
DIF:
1
REF:
35
18.
Which of the following is a result of tactical planning?
a.
a total budget
b.
long-term plans
c.
divisional budgets
d.
departmental rules
ANS: C
PTS:
1
DIF:
2
REF:
35
19.
What are the basic objectives or goals of an organization derived from?
a.
its strategic plan
b.
its tactical plan
c.
its corporate strategy
d.
its mission statement
ANS: D
PTS:
1
DIF:
1
REF:
36
20.
Which of the following is NOT a company objective?
a.
increase sales by 10 percent per year
b.
to be the quality and market leader of the gobal hotel industry
c.
reduce product errors to less than 1 percent
d.
achieve a 25 percent market share in less than three years
ANS: B
PTS:
1
DIF:
3
REF:
37
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21.
What is the third step in the planning process?
a.
determining the necessary financing objectives and support
b.
writing a marketing plan
c.
assessing strengths, weaknesses, and opportunities
d.
establishing organizational objectives
ANS: C
PTS:
1
DIF:
1
REF:
37
22.
What part of the organization should be MOST involved in formulating strategy for success of the good or
service in the marketplace?
a.
the corporate executive team
b.
the potential customer
c.
the vendors and channel members
d.
the firm’s marketing personnel
ANS: D
PTS:
1
DIF:
1
REF:
37
23.What goal do all planning strategies have?
a.
creating sustainable competitive advantage
b.
creating short-term competitive advantage
c.
creating a strategic window
d.
creating leverage
ANS: A
PTS:
1
DIF:
1
REF:
38
24.
What characteristic would a less competitive market have?
a.
high barriers to entry
b.
increased number of potential substitutes
c.
strong bargaining power among buyers
d.
strong bargaining power among suppliers
ANS: A
PTS:
1
DIF:
2
REF:
39
25.Which of the following companies has often followed a second mover strategy?
a.
Apple Computer
b.
Facebook
c.
eBay
d.
Amazon.com
ANS: B
PTS:
1
DIF:
2
REF:
41
26.
Comparing a first mover to a second mover strategy, which of the following describes a first mover strategy?
a.
It is more risky but offers higher reward.
b.
It is more risky and offers lower reward.
c.
It is less risky and offers higher reward.
d.
It is less risky but offers lower reward.
ANS: A
PTS:
1
DIF:
2
REF:
40
27.
What is SWOT an acronym for?
a.
strategy, work, opinions, tactics
b.
strengths, weaknesses, opportunities, threats
c.
strategy, work, openness, toughness
d.
strategy, weakness, opinions, tactics
ANS: B
PTS:
1
DIF:
1
REF:
41
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28.
In SWOT analysis, what are situations in which organizations are unable to capitalize on opportunities because
of internal limitations referred to as?
a.
strategic windows
b.
strategic leverage
c.
constraints
d.
vulnerability
ANS: C
PTS:
1
DIF:
2
REF:
41
29.
General Motors has difficulty competing with other car makers due to its lack of responsiveness to changing
consumer preferences. In SWOT terms, what does this constitute?
a.
a strategic window
b.
a leveraged situation
c.
a productivity challenge
d.
a constraint on its activity
ANS: D
PTS:
1
DIF:
2
REF:
41
30.Assume a firm would like to expand its product line. A complete expansion would cost $100 million, but the firm can
raise only $75 million in financing. What is this BEST classified as?
a.
a constraint
b.
an opportunity
c.
a threat
d.
a vulnerability
ANS: A
PTS:
1
DIF:
2
REF:
41
31.
In a SWOT analysis, when is a constraint present?
a.
when internal organizational weaknesses prevent taking advantage of an opportunity
b.
when environmental threats attack organizational weaknesses
c.
when organizational weaknesses are effectively addressed
d.
when environmental threats are stronger than organizational strengths
ANS: A
PTS:
1
DIF:
1
REF:
41
32.
In SWOT analysis, when does vulnerability occur?
a.
when internal organizational weaknesses prevent taking advantage of an opportunity
b.
when environmental threats attack organizational weaknesses
c.
when weaknesses are effectively addressed
d.
when environmental threats are stronger than organizational strengths
ANS: D
PTS:
1
DIF:
1
REF:
41
OBJ:
2-4
BLM: Remember
NOT:
AACSB Analytic | TB&E Model Marketing Plan
33.
In a SWOT analysis, when does a problem exist?
a.
when internal organizational weaknesses prevent taking advantage of an opportunity
b.
when environmental threats attack organizational weaknesses
c.
when weaknesses are effectively addressed
d.
when environmental threats are stronger than organizational strengths
ANS: B
PTS:
1
DIF:
1
REF:
41
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34.
Which of the following is an example of a firm’s weakness discovered by a SWOT analysis?
a.
changing buyer tastes in the marketplace
b.
the presence of modern production facilities
c.
inadequate financing capabilities
d.
likely entry of new competitors
ANS: C
PTS:
1
DIF:
1
REF:
41
35.
Which of the following is an example of a firm’s strength discovered by a SWOT analysis?
a.
ownership of valuable patents
b.
a narrow current product line
c.
changing buyer tastes in the marketplace
d.
existing government policies adverse to the industry
ANS: A
PTS:
1
DIF:
1
REF:
41
36.
What is a SWOT analysis that is designed to reveal, among other things, a firm’s core competencies also known
as?
a.
financial resources
b.
strengths
c.
leverage
d.
vulnerabilities
ANS: B
PTS:
1
DIF:
1
REF:
41
37.
WestJet Airlines has one of the lowest levels of operating expenses in the airline industry. In a SWOT analysis,
what is this classified as?
a.
an opportunity
b.
a constraint
c.
a strength
d.
a threat
ANS: C
PTS:
1
DIF:
2
REF:
41
38.
Which of the following is an example of a threat to a firm discovered by a SWOT analysis?
a.
inadequate financing capabilities
b.
the chance to acquire firms with needed technology
c.
likely entry of new competitors in the industry
d.
too narrow a product line for the firm
ANS: C
PTS:
1
DIF:
1
REF:
41
39.
What is one of the major problems with strategic windows?
a.
They are presented when the market stays relatively stable for long periods.
b.
Acquiring competencies for the firm is usually a major flaw.
c.
They are not affected by a firm’s competencies, constraints, or vulnerabilities.
d.
They exist for only a limited time.
ANS: D
PTS:
1
DIF:
2
REF:
42
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40.
Which of the following BEST describes limited occasions when the key requirements of a market and the
particular competencies of a firm best fit?
a.
marketing planning
b.
a strategic window
c.
strategic planning
d.
a tactical door
ANS: B
PTS:
1
DIF:
1
REF:
42
41.
At a time when computer users were having trouble storing, sending, and displaying photos, Apple introduced
the iMac computer, which was equipped with a digital camera interface and photo-handling software. What did
Apple recognize, which resulted in this product?
a.
product innovations
b.
competitive constraints
c.
a strategic window
d.
financial opportunities
ANS: C
PTS:
1
DIF:
2
REF:
42
42.
What is the organizational program that selects a target market and satisfies customers in that market through the
marketing mix called?
a.
marketing objectives
b.
a marketing strategy
c.
relationship marketing
d.
a strategic plan
ANS: B
PTS:
1
DIF:
2
REF:
37
43.
What is the overall, company-wide program that selects a particular target market and then satisfies consumers in
that market through careful blending of the elements of the marketing mix called?
a.
a corporate strategy
b.
a strategic plan
c.
a strategic window
d.
a marketing strategy
ANS: D
PTS:
1
DIF:
2
REF:
37
44.
Jonathan is part of a team analyzing current demographic trends. The team will make a recommendation
concerning the groups of consumers toward whom the firm should direct its marketing effort. What element of
the firm’s marketing strategy is Jonathan’s team involved in?
a.
target market
b.
distribution
c.
product
d.
promotion
ANS: A
PTS:
1
DIF:
2
REF:
43
45.What type of market is the group of people to whom a firm directs its marketing efforts?
a.
the captive market
b.
the consumer market
c.
the home market
d.
the target market
ANS: D
PTS:
1
DIF:
1
REF:
43
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46.
Which of the following is NOT a marketing mix variable?
a.
distribution
b.
product
c.
target market
d.
pricing
ANS: C
PTS:
1
DIF:
1
REF:
44
47.
Which of the following describes the term marketing mix?
a.
a composite analysis of all environmental factors inside and outside the firm
b.
a series of business decisions that aid in selling a product
c.
the relationship between a firm’s marketing strengths and its business weaknesses
d.
a blending of four strategic elements to satisfy specific target markets
ANS: D
PTS:
1
DIF:
1
REF:
44
48.
How is the term “product” BEST described?
a.
It refers only to tangible items that can be seen, tasted, or touched.
b.
It is a broad concept encompassing the satisfaction of consumer needs.
c.
It is limited to include goods, services, and ideas only.
d.
It never refers to such things as package design, brand name, or warranty.
ANS: B
PTS:
1
DIF:
1
REF:
44
49.
Jenny has been appointed marketing manager for Sparkling Cleaning Products. Her job focuses on decisions
involving customer service, package design, brand names, and warranties. What area of the marketing strategy
will Jenny MOST likely work in?
a.
product strategy
b.
resource valuation and pricing
c.
retailing and distribution strategy
d.
target market development
ANS: A
PTS:
1
DIF:
2
REF:
44
50.
What strategy do decisions involving transportation, warehousing, inventory control, and order processing relate
to?
a.
pricing strategy
b.
competitive strategy
c.
product strategy
d.
distribution strategy
ANS: D
PTS:
1
DIF:
1
REF:
44
51.
Miranda has been named to an upper-level management position at Bio Med Cosmetics. She will be working
with transportation media, order processing, and development of marketing channels. What strategies would
Miranda be involved in developing?
a.
product strategies
b.
distribution strategies
c.
promotional strategies
d.
marketing strategies
ANS: B
PTS:
1
DIF:
2
REF:
44
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52.
Which of the following BEST fits the activity of promotion?
a.
making products available
b.
finding a convenient location
c.
maintaining a high level of regulation
d.
communicating between buyers and sellers
ANS: D
PTS:
1
DIF:
1
REF:
45
53.
What marketing mix activity are newsletters, catalogues, and invitations to company-sponsored events MOST
closely associated with?
a.
pricing
b.
distribution
c.
product development
d.
promotion
ANS: D
PTS:
1
DIF:
1
REF:
45
54.
What type of strategy do the marketing mix decisions that are MOST closely regulated and subject to public
scrutiny usually relate to?
a.
product strategy
b.
promotional strategy
c.
distribution strategy
d.
pricing strategy
ANS: D
PTS:
1
DIF:
1
REF:
45
55.
What percentage of the market will the three leading firms in an industry have, according to the rule of three?
a.
less than 25 percent
b.
around 50 percent
c.
between 70 and 90 percent
d.
nearly 100 percent
ANS: C
PTS:
1
DIF:
1
REF:
46
56.
As chief executive of Stalwart Shipfitting Company, a diversified producer of marine supplies and equipment,
John needs a method for spotting promising product lines that warrant commitment of additional resources, as
well as those that should be removed from the firm’s product portfolio. What would be a good choice for this
firm?
a.
computer models
b.
strategic business units
c.
a marketing audit
d.
an inventory audit
ANS: B
PTS:
1
DIF:
2
REF:
48
57.
Which of the following BEST describes the strategic business unit (SBU) concept?
a.
a planning tool that separates tactical and operational issues for analysis
b.
a device used primarily to separate marketing costs from production expenses
c.
a marketing planning tool best suited to the needs of large, diversified organizations
d.
a way to create units of business activity based solely on sales potential
ANS: C
PTS:
1
DIF:
2
REF:
48
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58.
What does each strategic business unit (SBU) within a firm have?
a.
an advertising consultant
b.
a government “watch dog” agency
c.
a board of directors
d.
competitors
ANS: D
PTS:
1
DIF:
1
REF:
48
59.
Which of the following is a marketing planning tool?
a.
market share/market growth matrix
b.
consumer scanning model
c.
market vulnerability/business opportunity matrix
d.
market sheet analysis
ANS: A
PTS:
1
DIF:
2
REF:
48
60.
To evaluate an organization’s SBUs, the Boston Consulting Group developed a portfolio performance
framework. How did they characterize some of the SBUs?
a.
as question marks
b.
as quick winners
c.
as charging bulls
d.
as cash-outs
ANS: A
PTS:
1
DIF:
2
REF:
49
61.
What does the quadrant of the market share/market growth matrix that represents both a high market share and a
high rate of market growth include?
a.
the cash cows
b.
the achievers
c.
the stars
d.
the strivers
ANS: C
PTS:
1
DIF:
1
REF:
49
62.
Microsoft Windows generates considerable income for the parent company but is also expensive to support.
However, the expense is acceptable because Windows is the world’s dominant operating system. How would
Windows be classed under the market share/market growth matrix?
a.
as a star
b.
as a cash cow
c.
as a question mark
d.
as a dog
ANS: A
PTS:
1
DIF:
2
REF:
49
63.
According to the market share/market growth matrix, what is the SBU that produces strong cash flows that can
be used to finance the growth of other SBUs?
a.
the dog
b.
the question mark
c.
the cash cow
d.
the star
ANS: C
PTS:
1
DIF:
1
REF:
49
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64.
According to the market share/market growth matrix, how does a successful product typically begin?
a.
as a question mark, then a star, and eventually moves to the status of cash cow
b.
as a star, fades to a question mark, and finally becomes a dog and is dropped
c.
as a cash cow, moves to a question mark, and finally becomes a star
d.
as a cash cow and fades to a dog when it’s dropped
ANS: A
PTS:
1
DIF:
3
REF:
49
65.
How does the market share/market growth matrix classify products with a low relative share of a high-growth
rate market?
a.
as stars
b.
as question marks
c.
as cash cows
d.
as dogs
ANS: B
PTS:
1
DIF:
1
REF:
49
66.
The product manager for a new mousetrap informs the board of directors at its annual meeting that the product
has been classified as a dog
.
What does this mean about the product?
a.
It requires a “go/no go” decision within the next several years.
b.
It has low market share of a high-growth rate market.
c.
It should be withdrawn from the market.
d.
It needs heavy investment to make it a star.
ANS: C
PTS:
1
DIF:
3
REF:
49
67.
A food chain has a promotion where each purchaser of a large, rather than a medium-sized beverage, gets a
chance to win a prize. Which of the following BEST describes the strategic growth opportunity that is being
used?
a.
Product development
b.
Diversification
c.
Market penetration
d.
Market development
ANS: C
PTS:
1
DIF:
3
REF:
49-50
68.
A company notices that its customers enjoy the chicken burger with meals but often only purchase fries at mid-
day for a snack. A decision is taken to provide a mini-chicken burger for the purpose of snacking to these
customers. Which of the following BEST describes the strategic growth opportunity that is being used?
a.
Product development
b.
Diversification
c.
Market penetration
d.
Market development
ANS: A
PTS:
1
DIF:
3
REF:
49-50
69.
Which of the following is the MOST risky growth strategy for a company to pursue?
a.
Product development
b.
Diversification
c.
Market penetration
d.
Market development
ANS: B
PTS:
1
DIF:
1
REF:
49-50
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70.
Initially, cellphones had no limiters as to the regions that could be dialed or the number of different phone
numbers that could be dialed. Based on this, many parents would not purchase a phone for their younger
children. Next, cellphone manufacturers created phones and plans that limited the number of phone numbers
programmed into the phone and no other numbers could be dialed. Only local calling would be available. Which
of the following BEST describes the strategic growth opportunity that is being used?
a.
Product development
b.
Diversification
c.
Market penetration
d.
Market development
ANS: D
PTS:
1
DIF:
2
REF:
49-50
Chapter 3—The Marketing Environment, Ethics, and Social Responsibility
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1.
What is the term for the process of collecting information about the external marketing environment?
a.
environmental management
b.
marketing research
c.
marketing management
d.
environmental scanning
ANS: D
PTS:
1
DIF:
1
REF:
72
2.
What would monitoring local newspapers and television news shows for general information relating to a firm’s
business be an example of?
a.
environmental scanning
b.
economic analysis
c.
social-political manipulation
d.
technological development
ANS: A
PTS:
1
DIF:
1
REF:
72
3.
What is Kevin engaged in when he analyzes recent data from Statistics Canada to uncover new markets for his
firm’s product?
a.
research and development
b.
environmental scanning
c.
environmental management
d.
marketing management
ANS: B
PTS:
1
DIF:
2
REF:
72
4.
Why might a domestic business form a strategic alliance with a firm in a foreign market?
a.
to act socially responsible by giving jobs to local citizens
b.
to squeeze out the competition
c.
to acquire local expertise for company expansion abroad
d.
to avoid currency fluctuations when converting gross and net revenue
ANS: C
PTS:
1
DIF:
2
REF:
73
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5.
Which of the following is NOT an external environment that marketers must consider?
a.
the political-legal environment
b.
the social-cultural environment
c.
the competitive environment
d.
the creative environment
ANS: D
PTS:
1
DIF:
1
REF:
73
6.
What is the term for organizational objectives that include predicting and influencing competitive, political-legal,
economic, technological, and socio-cultural components?
a.
research and development
b.
environmental management
c.
marketing research
d.
environmental analysis
ANS: B
PTS:
1
DIF:
2
REF:
72
7.
A firm is negotiating with the Canadian Radio-television Telecommunications Commission over new regulations
that affect one of the firm’s products. What is the firm engaging in?
a.
research and development
b.
marketing management
c.
environmental management
d.
environmental analysis
ANS: C
PTS:
1
DIF:
2
REF:
72
8.
Why must Canadian companies form strategic alliances with firms in China when doing business in that country?
a.
because such alliances are required by the laws of China
b.
because without such a relationship, the firm will not be trusted in either country
c.
because it is necessary to have employees who speak Chinese fluently
d.
because there are differences in engineering and technology between the two countries
ANS: A
PTS:
1
DIF:
1
REF:
73
9.
What have many domestic firms found desirable when acquiring regional expertise and complying with local
laws in the global market?
a.
forming political action committees
b.
forming strategic alliances with companies in foreign countries
c.
buying foreign products to beat tariff restrictions
d.
relocating manufacturing facilities to that market
ANS: B
PTS:
1
DIF:
1
REF:
73
10.
What type of environment would be most significantly affected by a research and development project that
results in a patent being granted?
a.
the competitive environment
b.
the economic environment
c.
the international environment
d.
the political environment
ANS: A
PTS:
1
DIF:
2
REF:
73
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11.
Pharmaceutical companies are often able to secure patents for new drugs. Which of the following best describes
the outcome of these patents?
a.
non-exclusive rights to produce the drug for a contractually limited time period
b.
protection for marketing the product forever
c.
rewards for the money invested in research and development
d.
probably of little use due to the short timeline for protection
ANS: C
PTS:
1
DIF:
3
REF:
73
12.
Over the past years, what change have most utilities experienced regarding total monopoly protection?
a.
They have slightly decreased.
b.
They have greatly increased.
c.
They have remained the same.
d.
They have ended.
ANS: A
PTS:
1
DIF:
2
REF:
73
13.
What is the term for an industry with only a few competing firms?
a.
regulated monopoly
b.
pure monopoly
c.
perfect competition
d.
oligopoly
ANS: D
PTS:
1
DIF:
1
REF:
74
14.
Which of the following describes the competition between Petro-Canada and Shell Canada?
a.
It is a form of oligopoly because they are the only companies to purchase from.
b.
It is monopolistic since the companies are selling in different markets and not competing.
c.
It is direct because both are targeting consumers who want to purchase gasoline products.
d.
It is substitution because of various gasoline formulations manufactured.
ANS: C
PTS:
1
DIF:
2
REF:
74
15.
What does the decision about whether to have lunch at a fast-food restaurant, such as McDonald’s, Subway, or
Wendy’s, illustrate?
a.
how direct competition affects consumer behaviour
b.
how some products and services are competitive substitutes
c.
how indirect competition works
d.
how competition has a universal nature
ANS: B
PTS:
1
DIF:
2
REF:
74
16.
Last summer, the Thompson family had to decide whether to buy a new car to upgrade their one-year-old luxury
car, go to Disney World, or put in a swimming pool. They chose the vacation. What does this decision best
illustrate?
a.
how competition can be dissimilar products vying for discretionary income
b.
how each of these products are essential items
c.
how competition for essential items leaves limited discretionary funds for nonessentials
d.
how discretionary spending decisions are made
ANS: A
PTS:
1
DIF:
2
REF:
74
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17.
Why must marketers constantly monitor their competitors’ products, prices, distribution, and promotional
efforts?
a.
because the competitors may be violating laws
b.
because the actions of competitors may threaten the firm’s monopoly position
c.
because the actions of competitors may create an oligopoly within a particular industry
d.
because new competitor product offerings may require a marketing mix adjustment
ANS: D
PTS:
1
DIF:
2
REF:
72
18.
Kelly has the option of going to Cancun, Mexico, or Quebec City during spring break. In this context, what type
of competition are Cancun and Quebec City in?
a.
direct competition
b.
indirect competition
c.
pure competition
d.
monopolistic competition
ANS: B
PTS:
1
DIF:
2
REF:
74
19.
Lockheed Martin was successful in winning the largest U.S. Department of Defense contract by proving it could
be the first company to develop and fly a new model plane in just four years. What does this illustrate?
a.
the importance of rapid prototyping of new products
b.
the importance of time-based competition
c.
the importance of demarketing
d.
the importance of the legal environment
ANS: B
PTS:
1
DIF:
2
REF:
75
20.
What would a computer-chip company that follows the time-based competition strategy most likely do?
a.
imitate what its competitors do, only a little later
b.
develop a timely and uninterrupted flow of products for target markets
c.
work on several generations of technology simultaneously
d.
be reactive rather than proactive in the competitive arena
ANS: C
PTS:
1
DIF:
2
REF:
75
21.
What act was passed in 1975 that has a mission to foster a growing, knowledge-based Canadian economy?
a.
the Competition Act
b.
the Consumer Packaging and Labelling Act
c.
the Broadcasting Act
d.
the Boards of Trade Act
ANS: A
PTS:
1
DIF:
1
REF:
76
22.
Which of the following areas is NOT covered by the Competition Act?
a.
misleading advertising
b.
bait-and-switch selling
c.
exclusive dealing
d.
international marketing
ANS: D
PTS:
1
DIF:
2
REF:
77
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23.What does the “cooling-off” period allow?
a.
pharmaceutical research companies to exclusively sell their drugs for a number of years
b.
telecommunications companies to be protected from bankruptcy for 365 days
c.
buyers to reconsider a purchase decision that was made under sales pressure
d.
business owners to dismiss employees within a probationary time period
ANS: C
PTS:
1
DIF:
2
REF:
77
24.
Company ACME believes that another company, called Positioner, is selling a product well under cost in order
to drive ACME and others out of the industry. What federal law could Positioner be guilty of violating?
a.
the North American Free Trade Agreement
b.
the Competition Act
c.
the Patent Act
d.
the Broadcasting Act
ANS: B
PTS:
1
DIF:
1
REF:
78
25.
Which federal organization concerns itself with the regulation of mobile phones and cable?
a.
the Canadian Radio-television Telecommunications Commission
b.
the Consumer Products Safety Commission
c.
the Federal Power Commission
d.
the Environmental Protection Agency
ANS: A
PTS:
1
DIF:
1
REF:
78
26.
Which of the following best describes the Canadian Marketing Association (CMA)?
a.
an association for the development of pharmaceutical advertisements
b.
a regulatory body that is responsible for overseeing the selling practices of the food and drug industr
within Canada
c.
a self-regulatory group that represents industries’ attempts to set guidelines for responsible business
practices
d.
an agency that protects competitors within the industry
ANS: C
PTS:
1
DIF:
1
REF:
79-80
27.
What federal organizaton has the broadest powers of any organization to influence the assignment of patents and
trademarks in Canada?
a.
the Canadian Radio-television Telecommunications Commission
b.
the Consumer Products Safety Commission
c.
Health Canada
d.
the Canadian Intellectual Property Office
ANS: D
PTS:
1
DIF:
1
REF:
79
28.
Which of the following is NOT a business cycle stage?
a.
recovery
b.
recession
c.
depression
d.
inflation
ANS: D
PTS:
1
DIF:
2
REF:
80-81
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29.Which of the following factors is NOT studied by marketers analyzing the economic environment?
a.
unemployment
b.
inflation and deflation
c.
stock and bond markets
d.
resource availability
ANS: C
PTS:
1
DIF:
3
REF:
80
30.
Camp Gear, Inc. introduces a new line of rough-terrain clothing. The company increases the number of
advertisements in several outdoor magazines and establishes a new, updated website for online orders. What
stage of the business cycle is most likely occurring at this time?
a.
low unemployment and low inflation
b.
depression and high inflation
c.
growing unemployment and recession
d.
recession and deflation
ANS: A
PTS:
1
DIF:
3
REF:
80
31.
During recessionary periods, how is it still possible for a business to compete?
a.
by reducing promotional outlays to save money
b.
by raising prices to improve company and product image
c.
by curtailing customer service because people will accept such cuts
d.
by offering value-priced products to appeal to cost-conscious buyers
ANS: D
PTS:
1
DIF:
1
REF:
80
32.
During what period does consumer spending reach its lowest level?
a.
recession
b.
recovery
c.
depression
d.
prosperity
ANS: C
PTS:
1
DIF:
1
REF:
80
33.
What type of product category typically falls the LEAST in consumer demand during a recession?
a.
luxury products
b.
big-ticket items, such as new cars and homes
c.
discretionary purchases
d.
necessities
ANS: D
PTS:
1
DIF:
1
REF:
82
34.
Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of a recovery period
?
a.
Businesses provide low-priced products and superior service.
b.
New product lines are introduced.
c.
Consumers are cautiously optimistic.
d.
Businesses hold down costs.
ANS: B
PTS:
1
DIF:
2
REF:
81
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35.
When prices rise due to excess demand and increasing cost of production, what is the resulting monetary
condition known as?
a.
recession
b.
depression
c.
inflation
d.
recovery
ANS: C
PTS:
1
DIF:
1
REF:
81
36.
What occurs during periods of inflation?
a.
prices increase and consumer demand decreases
b.
prices increase and consumer demand increases
c.
prices decrease and consumer demand increases
d.
prices decrease and consumer demand decreases
ANS: B
PTS:
1
DIF:
2
REF:
81
37.
During recent recessions, how have consumers shifted their buying patterns?
a.
by borrowing money to buy goods
b.
by increasing spending across the board
c.
by buying now in the belief that prices will rise later
d.
by purchasing basic products with low price tags
ANS: D
PTS:
1
DIF:
2
REF:
80
38.
Which of the following would
NOT
be a wise marketing strategy during a recession?
a.
Raise prices to make up for lost sales.
b.
Increase promotional outlays to create interest in the store or product.
c.
Improve customer service to attract more trade.
d.
Launch lower-priced products.
ANS: A
PTS:
1
DIF:
2
REF:
80
39.
What type of consumer income are marketers most interested in?
a.
discretionary income
b.
deferred income
c.
inflationary income
d.
disposable income
ANS: A
PTS:
1
DIF:
1
REF:
82
40.
During what economic period does unemployment begin to rise?
a.
economic recovery
b.
economic recession
c.
economic prosperity
d.
economic retrogression
ANS: B
PTS:
1
DIF:
1
REF:
82
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41.When gasoline prices are high, many oil companies promote ways to save gas. What process can oil companies begin
by providing tips on car maintenance, carpooling, and idling in traffic?
a.
supply control
b.
counter advertising
c.
brand promotion
d.
demarketing
ANS: D
PTS:
1
DIF:
2
REF:
82
42.
What can new technology result in?
a.
lower quality of existing products
b.
lower availability of customer service
c.
reduced prices through new production methods
d.
return of products that were once considered obsolete
ANS: C
PTS:
1
DIF:
2
REF:
84
43.
What is one major drawback that critics of radio-frequency identification tags argue?
a.
loss of jobs with the simplification of tracking capabilities
b.
cancer in laboratory animals who wear the radio-frequency identification tags
c.
replacement of the bar code as the standard data control method
d.
invasion of privacy and erosion of personal freedom
ANS: D
PTS:
1
DIF:
2
REF:
84
44.
What is the introduction by Pfizer Pharmaceuticals of Lipitor, the cholesterol-lowering drug that ranks as the
biggest-selling prescription drug in North America, an example of?
a.
how research and development by private industry represents a source of technological innovation
b.
the importance of research done for military purposes to the advancement of technology
c.
how colleges and universities play a critical role in technological progress
d.
how a product from a foreign country can be technologically adapted to the North American market
ANS: A
PTS:
1
DIF:
2
REF:
84
45.
What are air bags and the development of the Internet examples of?
a.
research and development efforts in private industry
b.
military research finding applications in consumer products
c.
college and university research
d.
individuals making technological breakthroughs
ANS: B
PTS:
1
DIF:
2
REF:
84
46.
Which of the following is NOT a current demographic trend in Canada?
a.
The population is getting older.
b.
The population is getting more diverse.
c.
The birthrate is rising.
d.
The population is becoming more affluent.
ANS: C
PTS:
1
DIF:
1
REF:
86
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47.What is the birthrate trend in Canada at the present time?
a.
It’s increasing.
b.
It’s decreasing.
c.
It’s remaining about the same.
d.
It’s expected to increase dramatically during the next 10 years.
ANS: B
PTS:
1
DIF:
1
REF:
86
48.
Overall, what is happening to the population of Canada?
a.
It’s becoming younger, better educated, and more homogeneous.
b.
It’s becoming older, poorer, and less educated.
c.
It’s becoming older, more diverse, and more affluent.
d.
It’s becoming younger, better educated, and less affluent.
ANS: C
PTS:
1
DIF:
1
REF:
86-87
49.
Which of the following factors would NOT be included in a successful analysis of the social-cultural
environment?
a.
shifts in demographics
b.
changing values
c.
lifestyle expectations
d.
political affiliations
ANS: D
PTS:
1
DIF:
1
REF:
86
50.
Assume that Quaker Oats is offering a new product designed to meet the nutritional needs of women between the
ages of 45 and 60. What trends is Quaker Oats responding to?
a.
demographic trends
b.
economic trends
c.
social trends
d.
political trends
ANS: A
PTS:
1
DIF:
1
REF:
86
51.
Rogers Communications has gradually increased its level of multicultural programming in Canada and now
offers more than 65 channels, broadcasting in over 20 languages. According to this example, what has increased
in importance in the Canadian marketplace?
a.
competition
b.
consumerism
c.
cultural diversity
d.
political forces
ANS: C
PTS:
1
DIF:
1
REF:
87
52.
What is the term for the social force within the environment that aids and protects the buyer by exerting legal,
moral, and economic pressure on business?
a.
competition
b.
consumerism
c.
demographic diversity
d.
social-cultural influences
ANS: B
PTS:
1
DIF:
1
REF:
87
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53.
What consumer right indirectly results in parental ratings on movies, which indicate appropriate ages for viewing
audiences?
a.
right to be informed
b.
right to be safe
c.
right to be heard
d.
right to choose freely
ANS: A
PTS:
1
DIF:
3
REF:
88
54.
What has inspired technological products like Toyota’s Prius and Honda’s Civic Hybrid?
a.
style considerations in the automobile industry
b.
social pressure to develop fuel-efficient vehicles
c.
the desire of engineers to incorporate new technologies
d.
the realization that most people don’t need large, high-speed cars
ANS: B
PTS:
1
DIF:
2
REF:
84
55.
Despite the pressures of consumerism, why do firms NOT always give in to consumer demands?
a.
because consumers seldom know what they are talking about
b.
because in order to survive, firms must achieve reasonable profit objectives
c.
because consumers represent only a small segment of the total market
d.
because the demands of individual consumers represent little power in the marketplace
ANS: B
PTS:
1
DIF:
3
REF:
88
56.
What component of the marketing mix raises numerous ethical questions from the general public?
a.
product
b.
distribution
c.
price
d.
promotion
ANS: D
PTS:
1
DIF:
1
REF:
93
57.
Which of the following has the critical ethical issue of invasion of personal privacy?
a.
product strategy
b.
promotional strategy
c.
marketing research
d.
pricing strategy
ANS: C
PTS:
1
DIF:
2
REF:
91
58.
Company A manufactures bottles with concave bottoms, giving the impression that the container holds more
liquid than it does. In what type of strategy would this raise issues of ethics?
a.
product strategy
b.
price strategy
c.
packaging strategy
d.
distribution strategy
ANS: A
PTS:
1
DIF:
2
REF:
92
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59.
After manufacturing and selling products, a company must determine how much of the aftermarket it wants to
control and to what extent. In what type of strategy could exerting control over wholesalers and retailers become
an ethical issue?
a.
product strategy
b.
packaging strategy
c.
distribution strategy
d.
price strategy
ANS: C
PTS:
1
DIF:
1
REF:
93
60.
A television advertisement suggests consumers take a proactive role in family health care by requesting that their
physician prescribe specific medications. What type of strategy is the advertisement using?
a.
promotional strategy
b.
price strategy
c.
distribution strategy
d.
product strategy
ANS: A
PTS:
1
DIF:
2
REF:
93
61.
A manufacturer provides discounts to a large retailer in exchange for product advertising, special placement
within the stores, and a guarantee that the retailer will purchase a certain volume of product over a three-month
period. The manufacturer will not extend this offer to other retailers in the marketplace. Which of the following
BEST describes the category that is affected by legal and ethical questions regarding this practice?
a.
promotion
b.
pricing
c.
personal privacy
d.
distribution
ANS: B
PTS:
1
DIF:
3
REF:
93
62.
What is the most highly regulated aspect of the marketing strategy?
a.
promotion
b.
product
c.
pricing
d.
distribution
ANS: C
PTS:
1
DIF:
2
REF:
93
63.
When marketers notify customers of impending changes in return policies, what type of strategy are they
incorporating ethics into?
a.
promotional strategy
b.
pricing strategy
c.
product strategy
d.
distribution strategy
ANS: B
PTS:
1
DIF:
2
REF:
93
64.
What must marketers give equal weight to in order to meet the obligations of social responsibility?
a.
demands of activists, government, and employees in product development
b.
morality, philosophy, and practicality in their conduct of marketing activities
c.
profits, customer satisfaction, and social well-being in evaluating their firm’s performance
d.
multiple boards of directors and executive committees in top levels of corporate management
ANS: C
PTS:
1
DIF:
2
REF:
94
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65.
Aside from government regulation, what can influence the social responsibility of an organization?
a.
labour unions
b.
consumerism
c.
suppliers
d.
trade associations
ANS: B
PTS:
1
DIF:
2
REF:
94
66.
A firm’s philosophy when dealing with society as a whole is to “play by the rules” and no more. What level of
corporate social responsibility is this firm exhibiting?
a.
legal
b.
economic
c.
ethical
d.
philanthropic
ANS: A
PTS:
1
DIF:
2
REF:
94
67.
What is the HIGHEST level of corporate social responsibility?
a.
economic
b.
legal
c.
ethical
d.
philanthropic
ANS: D
PTS:
1
DIF:
2
REF:
94
68.
A firm donates money and used office equipment to a local school. It also contributes money and labour to build
a new park. What level of corporate social responsibility is this firm exhibiting?
a.
economic
b.
legal
c.
philanthropic
d.
ethical
ANS: C
PTS:
1
DIF:
2
REF:
94
69.
Which of the following product offerings is an example of planned obsolescence?
a.
disposable diapers
b.
a low-technology product
c.
travel-size shampoo
d.
a hexagonal container
ANS: A
PTS:
1
DIF:
2
REF:
95
70.
What is the production, promotion, and reclamation of environmentally sensitive products known as?
a.
pollution
b.
recycling
c.
planned obsolescence
d.
green marketing
ANS: D
PTS:
1
DIF:
1
REF:
97
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71.A firm has decided to alter its pricing and promotional strategies in response to lower-than-forecasted job growth and
declining personal incomes. What environment is the firm responding to changes in?
a.
its socio-cultural environment
b.
its political-legal environment
c.
its competitive environment
d.
its economic environment
ANS: D
PTS:
1
DIF:
2
REF:
62-63
72.
Carmen is a marketer for a global consumer products company. She is working on a promotional campaign
designed for a foreign market and is ensuring the promotional campaign is clearly understood by the nation’s
consumers and doesn’t inadvertently offend anyone. What type of environment in the country is Carmen being
influenced by?
a.
its socio-cultural environment
b.
its political-legal environment
c.
its competitive environment
d.
its economic environment
ANS: A
PTS:
1
DIF:
3
REF:
62-63
Chapter 4—Consumer Behaviour
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1.
What does consumer behaviour refer to?
a.
organizational purchase decision-making behaviour
b.
customer spending patterns
c.
post-purchase decision-making behaviour
d.
the ultimate buyer decision-making process
ANS: D
PTS:
1
DIF:
1
REF:
108
2.
Which of the following circumstances is NOT an example of consumer behaviour?
a.
buying a new car
b.
buying a new home theatre system
c.
deciding on a college or university
d.
purchasing a new computer system for work
ANS: D
PTS:
1
DIF:
2
REF:
108
3.
Which of the following is an interpersonal influence on consumer behaviour?
a.
one’s attitude
b.
one’s perception
c.
one’s family
d.
one’s self-concept
ANS: C
PTS:
1
DIF:
1
REF:
108
4.
According to psychologist Kurt Lewin, what facilitates understanding consumer behaviour?
a.
individual learning levels and massive group power
b.
personal influences and the influences of others
c.
attitudes and perceptions
d.
reference groups and personal inferences
ANS: B
PTS:
1
DIF:
2
REF:
108
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5.
According to Kurt Lewin’s theory of consumer behaviour, what interacts with personal factors to create the
function of consumer behaviour?
a.
perception
b.
learning
c.
attitudes
d.
interpersonal influences
ANS: D
PTS:
1
DIF:
2
REF:
108
6.
Samir plans to buy a car and discusses the purchase with his parents. What is their influence on this buying
decision considered?
a.
impersonal influence
b.
interpersonal influence
c.
personal influence
d.
institutional influence
ANS: B
PTS:
1
DIF:
2
REF:
109
7.
Rachael, an advertising executive, shops for clothing at a trendy store in town. The sales associate shows her the
latest styles in bright prints and bold colours. Despite the fact that these are the styles worn at her office, she
rejects them and purchases a wardrobe in neutrals and black. What type of influence has MOST likely driven
Rachael’s decision?
a.
impersonal
b.
interpersonal
c.
personal
d.
institutional
ANS: C
PTS:
1
DIF:
2
REF:
109
8.
What are values, beliefs, and tastes handed down from one generation to the next called?
a.
role
b.
culture
c.
status
d.
psychometry
ANS: B
PTS:
1
DIF:
1
REF:
108
9.
What is the broadest environmental determinant of consumer behaviour?
a.
folklore
b.
tradition
c.
culture
d.
status
ANS: C
PTS:
1
DIF:
1
REF:
108
10.
Which of the following is an example of a core value in Canadian culture?
a.
peace and order
b.
importance of team spirit
c.
dignity of the elderly
d.
importance of personal achievement
ANS: A
PTS:
1
DIF:
2
REF:
109
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11.
Only by the 1980s and 1990s did the Canadian population accept interracial marriages. What is this an example
of?
a.
how slowly cultural values change
b.
a lack of regard for other cultures
c.
a willingness to sacrifice individualism
d.
the desire for wealth accumulation
ANS: A
PTS:
1
DIF:
2
REF:
109
12.
What type of market would experience problems by a shift in cultural values away from accumulating material
possessions to spending time with family and friends?
a.
travel services
b.
luxury cars
c.
provincial parks and picnic areas
d.
children’s games and toys
ANS: B
PTS:
1
DIF:
2
REF:
109
13.
What is a heightened appreciation for quality of life an example of in Canadian culture?
a.
considerations involved in the formation of family groups
b.
objectives not necessarily reached by even a minority of people
c.
buying activities related to and based in institutionalism
d.
core values in Canadian culture
ANS: D
PTS:
1
DIF:
1
REF:
109
14.
Who are cultural differences particularly important to?
a.
firms marketing internationally
b.
not-for-profit organizations
c.
firms marketing to a specific target market in a single city
d.
firms marketing locally
ANS: A
PTS:
1
DIF:
1
REF:
108
15.
Within the existing Canadian culture, what are Orthodox Jews who purchase and consume only kosher foods an
example of?
a.
a status group
b.
a social influence
c.
a microculture
d.
a geographic community
ANS: C
PTS:
1
DIF:
1
REF:
110
16.
According to Statistics Canada, roughly what portion of Canadians will belong to a group that classifies itself as
a visible minority by 2031?
a.
21-24%
b.
29 - 32%
c.
35 - 39%
d.
16 - 19%
ANS: B
PTS:
1
DIF:
1
REF:
110
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17.
What theory suggested that marketing campaigns for French Canadians would be more successful if they were
designed specifically for the Quebec market?
a.
the microculture theory
b.
the twin beds theory
c.
the social stratification theory
d.
the separatist theory
ANS: B
PTS:
1
DIF:
2
REF:
111-112
18.
Which of the following statements best describes the South-Asian Canadian group?
a.
South Asians are the largest cultural group in Canada.
b.
The largest number lives in Vancouver.
c.
South Asians tend to associate more with their own sub-ethnic group.
d.
The majority of South Asians in Canada are elderly.
ANS: C
PTS:
1
DIF:
2
REF:
112
19.
What is the second largest cultural group in Canada, which represents 4.0 percent of the population?
a.
South-Asian Canadians
b.
Hispanic Canadians
c.
Filipino Canadians
d.
Black Canadians
ANS: A
PTS:
1
DIF:
1
REF:
112
20.
What are the values and behaviours that groups establish and deem appropriate for their members called?
a.
group rules
b.
group norms
c.
group ideals
d.
group behaviours
ANS: B
PTS:
1
DIF:
2
REF:
113
21.
What is the relative position of an individual within a group called?
a.
cultural assimilation
b.
a role
c.
status
d.
the Asch phenomenon
ANS: C
PTS:
1
DIF:
1
REF:
113
22. What does the
Asch phenomenon
state
about individuals?
a.
They will follow their personal influences much more closely than any other influence.
b.
They will follow the majority opinion even if it contradicts the individual’s beliefs.
c.
They will purchase products that maintain a positive looking-glass self.
d.
They will avoid extended problem-solving behaviour.
ANS: B
PTS:
1
DIF:
2
REF:
113
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23.
What purchasing behaviour concept is peer pressure closely related to?
a.
cognitive dissonance
b.
opinion leaders
c.
cultural influences
d.
Asch phenomenon
ANS: D
PTS:
1
DIF:
3
REF:
113
24.
When do reference groups
have a greater impact on the purchasing decision?
a.
when the consumer is already established as the opinion leader in the group
b.
when the purchase is hard to recognize or see by the group
c.
when the purchase is unique and conspicuous
d.
when the product is common
ANS: C
PTS:
1
DIF:
2
REF:
113
25.
Which of the following product purchases would reference-group influences MOST likely have the greatest
impact on?
a.
double mattress
b.
luxury car
c.
new dental floss
d.
black shoe polish
ANS: B
PTS:
1
DIF:
1
REF:
113
26.Which of the following are characteristics that determine social-class rankings?
a.
occupation and income
b.
cultural background and religious denomination
c.
geographic location and family size
d.
birth order and personal beliefs
ANS: A
PTS:
1
DIF:
3
REF:
114
27.What is the tendency of opinion leaders?
a.
to have basic core values that change
b.
to purchase products before other consumers
c.
to have above-average income
d.
to avoid extended problem-solving behaviour
ANS: B
PTS:
1
DIF:
2
REF:
115
28.
What role are spouses taking when they independently make an equal number of decisions about product
purchases?
a.
syncratic
b.
dominant fashion
c.
autonomic
d.
dependent
ANS: C
PTS:
1
DIF:
1
REF:
116
29.
Which of the following is NOT categorized as a spouse’s role in purchasing decisions?
a.
the syncratic role
b.
the husband-dominated role
c.
the opinion leader role
d.
the autonomic role
ANS: C
PTS:
1
DIF:
2
REF:
116
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30.
A newly married modern couple is looking to rent an apartment. Both of them work in different cities and need
to decide in which city they will start to look for the apartment. What kind of a decision is this likely to be?
a.
syncratic
b.
husband-dominant
c.
wife-dominant
d.
autonomic
ANS: A
PTS:
1
DIF:
2
REF:
116
31.
What is the imbalance between a consumer’s actual and desired states called?
a.
a need
b.
an attitude
c.
a motive
d.
a self-concept
ANS: A
PTS:
1
DIF:
1
REF:
117
32.
What is included in the personal determinants of consumer behaviour?
a.
the culture in which a person is raised
b.
the individual’s needs and motives
c.
the family to which one belongs
d.
the society from which one comes from
ANS: B
PTS:
1
DIF:
1
REF:
117
33.
What is created by motives that are an inner state that directs a person?
a.
equilibrium between the actual and desired states
b.
excitement in attaining the need satisfaction
c.
equity between the cost and benefits of the need satisfaction
d.
energy to participate in the limited problem-solving process
ANS: A
PTS:
1
DIF:
2
REF:
117
34.
Helene, an industrial sales representative, made sure her company car was equipped with OnStar in case she ever
had car trouble or got lost while travelling between appointments. What level of Maslow’s hierarchy of needs is
Helene addressing?
a.
physiological
b.
safety
c.
esteem
d.
self-actualization
ANS: B
PTS:
1
DIF:
2
REF:
118
35.
According to Maslow, which of the following characteristics of a country provides marketers with the greatest
opportunities to fill higher needs?
a.
a food shortage
b.
a limited police force
c.
a high standard of living
d.
a high need for clean water
ANS: C
PTS:
1
DIF:
3
REF:
118
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36.What type of need includes the need for fulfillment, realizing one’s own potential, and fully using one’s talents and
capabilities?
a.
self-actualization
b.
physiological
c.
social
d.
esteem
ANS: A
PTS:
1
DIF:
1
REF:
118
37.
What level of Maslow’s hierarchy of needs is a person who is satisfying the MOST basic level of needs
operating at?
a.
self-actualization
b.
esteem
c.
physiological
d.
belongingness
ANS: C
PTS:
1
DIF:
1
REF:
118
38.
A marketing campaign, featuring celebrity Lance Armstrong, promotes the campaign slogan “Together We Can
Prevail.” What category in Maslow’s hierarchy of needs is addressed by the use of the celebrity?
a.
esteem
b.
belongingness
c.
safety
d.
physiological
ANS: B
PTS:
1
DIF:
2
REF:
118
39.
According to Maslow, what need is attempting to be met by joining a local bowling league for social interaction?
a.
self-actualization
b.
belongingness
c.
esteem
d.
safety
ANS: B
PTS:
1
DIF:
2
REF:
118
40.
According to Maslow, what need fulfillment do not-for-profit organizations target when looking for donors?
a.
physiological
b.
self-esteem
c.
belongingness
d.
self-actualization
ANS: D
PTS:
1
DIF:
2
REF:
119
41.
What is the meaning that a person attributes to incoming stimuli gathered through the five senses called?
a.
self-concept
b.
attitude
c.
perception
d.
culture
ANS: C
PTS:
1
DIF:
1
REF:
119
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42.
Which of the following is NOT a stimulus factor?
a.
a
motivation of an individual
b.
a large house
c.
a heavy car
d.
a spherical decoration
ANS: A
PTS:
1
DIF:
1
REF:
119
43.
What does the invention of digital video recording (DVR) technology make it easier for consumers to use?
a.
their subliminal perception
b.
their perceptual screens
c.
their learning processes
d.
their cognitive dissonance
ANS: B
PTS:
1
DIF:
2
REF:
119
44.
Which of the following wouldMOST likely break through a person’s perceptual screen?
a.
newspaper ad featuring white type on a black background
b.
black-and-white classified ad
c.
reducing the size of an ad
d.
using fewer colours in an ad
ANS: A
PTS:
1
DIF:
2
REF:
119
45.
John quickly mutes his television every time a commercial comes on. What is this an example of?
a.
closure
b.
subliminal advertising
c.
a perceptual screen
d.
cognitive dissonance
ANS: C
PTS:
1
DIF:
1
REF:
119
46.
Which of the following best characterizes virtual reality?
a.
the transmission of marketing information in a three-dimensional fashion
b.
the least effective method for advertising high-priced products
c.
the only way that automobile dealerships can sell cars online
d.
the perception that consumers can be better satisfied by purchasing products online
ANS: A
PTS:
1
DIF:
2
REF:
120
47.
What does the cognitive component of attitude refer to?
a.
the measure of an emotional reaction to a concept
b.
the fact that an individual will tend to behave in a particular manner towards a concept
c.
the individual’s knowledge and information about an object or concept
d.
the speed with which one learns information about an object
ANS: C
PTS:
1
DIF:
2
REF:
120
48.
Food manufacturers often set up tables in grocery stores where customers can sample featured products. What
component of attitude does this type of promotion try to influence?
a.
behavioural
b.
rational
c.
cognitive
d.
affective
ANS: A
PTS:
1
DIF:
2
REF:
120
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49.
What component of attitude is being altered by an advertisement that creates warm feelings of goodwill toward
the advertiser and its products?
a.
cognitive
b.
behavioural
c.
traditional
d.
affective
ANS: D
PTS:
1
DIF:
2
REF:
120
50.
A business sends one coupon to consumers that have purchased in the past. What is this
an example of?
a.
a marketer trying to revive a failing product
b.
shaping
c.
subliminal advertising
d.
reinforcement
ANS: D
PTS:
1
DIF:
2
REF:
122
51.
In the learning process, what is reinforcement?
a.
the immediate expected change in behaviour as a result of experience
b.
the reduction in drive that results from a proper response
c.
an individual’s reaction to a set of cues
d.
any strong stimulus that impels action
ANS: B
PTS:
1
DIF:
1
REF:
122
52.
Which of the following describes the situation that people are likely to buy products they believe will move them
towards their desired image?
a.
their real self
b.
their looking-glass self
c.
their model self
d.
their ideal self
ANS: D
PTS:
1
DIF:
1
REF:
123
53.
In the area of self-concept theory, what is the real self?
a.
the way the individual views himself or herself
b.
the way the individual thinks other people see him or her
c.
the individual’s personal set of objectives to which he or she aspires
d.
an objective view of the total person
ANS: D
PTS:
1
DIF:
2
REF:
123
54.
Which of the following describes the looking-glass self?
a.
It is an objective view of oneself.
b.
It often differs from self-image because people may choose to project a different image to others.
c.
It is usually the same as the ideal self because most people want others to perceive them as successfu
d.
It is a personal view of how a person wants to be.
ANS: B
PTS:
1
DIF:
2
REF:
123
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55.
What products typically require high-involvement decisions?
a.
inexpensive and rarely purchased products
b.
inexpensive and frequently purchased products
c.
expensive and relatively simple products
d.
expensive and complicated products
ANS: D
PTS:
1
DIF:
2
REF:
124
56.
What are purchase decisions that have a potentially high level of social or economic consequences known as?
a.
low time and effort involvement
b.
low-involvement.
c.
high-involvement
d.
single-person involvement
ANS: C
PTS:
1
DIF:
3
REF:
124
57.
What happens to the consumer during the search step of the consumer decision process?
a.
The consumer realizes it’s time to make a change from the present situation.
b.
The consumer develops a set of evaluative criteria to guide the purchase decision.
c.
The consumer notices favourable, word-of-mouth communication about the product.
d.
The consumer gathers information about the attainment of a desired state of affairs.
ANS: D
PTS:
1
DIF:
2
REF:
125
58.
Which of the following is a characteristic of the evaluative criteria
used by consumers in the decision-making
process?
a.
It is set aside if the consumer finds a better means of making the purchase decision.
b.
It identifies alternative brands for consideration and possible purchase.
c.
It occurs during the first stage of the decision process.
d.
It includes objective facts or subjective opinions about the alternatives.
ANS: D
PTS:
1
DIF:
3
REF:
126
59.
What is one of the ways in which marketers can attempt to affect the outcome of the alternative evaluation stage
of the consumer decision-making process?
a.
trying to get consumers to expand their evoked sets to include their product
b.
attempting to convince consumers that a competing brand does not meet their criteria
c.
providing persuasive evidence about their products in a useful format
d.
helping consumers to identify potential problems or needs
ANS: A
PTS:
1
DIF:
3
REF:
126
60.
What is term for the number of alternatives a consumer actually considers in making a purchase decision?
a.
the evoked set
b.
customer options
c.
evaluative criteria
d.
cognitive choices
ANS: A
PTS:
1
DIF:
1
REF:
126
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61.
What is the term for product features a consumer considers when choosing among alternatives?
a.
appraisal standards
b.
evaluative criteria
c.
assessment parameters
d.
selection rules
ANS: B
PTS:
1
DIF:
1
REF:
126
62.
What is the anxiety that consumers begin to feel when they are dissatisfied with a product or service recently
purchased called?
a.
cognitive dissonance
b.
post-purchase regret
c.
product re-evaluation
d.
purchase rejection
ANS: A
PTS:
1
DIF:
1
REF:
126-127
63.
At which stage of the consumer decision-making process might cognitive dissonance occur?
a.
search
b.
evaluation
c.
purchase decision and purchase act
d.
post-purchase evaluation
ANS: D
PTS:
1
DIF:
2
REF:
126
64. What does the
post-purchase evaluation of the consumer decision process attempt to measure?
a.
the selling success experienced by the vendor
b.
the follow-up effectiveness of the firm
c.
the consumer satisfaction with the purchase
d.
the advertising influence on the purchase
ANS: C
PTS:
1
DIF:
2
REF:
126 - 127
65.
When is cognitive dissonance MOST likely to occur?
a.
during the pre-purchase stage
b.
decreases if the product does not have the desired features
c.
when there is a balance between attitudes, beliefs, and knowledge
d.
as the cost and complexity of the purchase increases
ANS: D
PTS:
1
DIF:
2
REF:
127
66.
How can marketers attempt to shape the outcome of the post-purchase evaluation?
a.
by helping consumers to identify potential problems or needs
b.
by offering personal assistance with any problem experienced with the product
c.
by attempting to convince consumers that a competing brand does not meet their criteria
d.
by trying to get consumers to expand their evoked sets to include their product
ANS: B
PTS:
1
DIF:
2
REF:
127
67.
Which of the following consumer problem-solving behaviours requires the LEAST effort?
a.
extended problem solving
b.
limited problem solving
c.
routinized response behaviour
d.
impulsive buying
ANS: C
PTS:
1
DIF:
1
REF:
128
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68.
A new brand is introduced into an array of familiar brands for which a consumer has previously set evaluative
criteria. What might be the result of this introduction?
a.
limited problem solving
b.
extended problem solving
c.
a routinized response
d.
brand evaluation
ANS: A
PTS:
1
DIF:
2
REF:
128
69.
When a product is unique or difficult to categorize, what is the thought process involved in a purchase decision
known as?
a.
research analysis
b.
extensive analysis buying
c.
limited problem solving
d.
extended problem solving
ANS: D
PTS:
1
DIF:
2
REF:
128
70.
How can marketers influence the outcome of the evaluation stage of the consumer purchase decision process?
a.
by attempting to convince consumers that certain attributes are more important than others in decidin
which product to buy from among an array of them
b.
by identifying which evaluative criteria are important to the individual and pointing out which brand
best meets those criteria
c.
by trying to get the customer to reduce the size of the evoked set to exclude many of the choices
d.
by attempting to convince the consumer to spend more than was budgeted for the purchase to acquir
more features he or she might prefer
ANS: B
PTS:
1
DIF:
3
REF:
126
71.
A hurricane has destroyed a small town and now the inhabitants have nothing. According to Maslow, what are
the inhabitants MOST likely to seek next?
a.
a tent
b.
medicine
c.
a working automobile
d.
a blowdryer
ANS: A
PTS:
1
DIF:
1
REF:
118
72.
Which of the following is the easiest for a marketer to accomplish regarding a product?
a.
Change an unfavourable to a favourable attitude
b.
Maintain a positive attitude
c.
Change a positive to a more positive attitude
d.
Maintain a need
ANS: B
PTS:
1
DIF:
1
REF:
121
Chapter 5—Business-to-Business (B2B) Marketing
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1.
How does the purchasing process for business products differ from the purchasing process for consumer
products?
a.
distribution channels for business products are significantly longer
b.
customer relationships for business products tend to be short term and transaction based
c.
personal selling plays a much larger role in business product markets
d.
customer service plays a smaller role in the distribution of business products
ANS: C
PTS:
1
DIF:
2
REF:
138
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2.
Why do marketing strategies designed to reach consumers differ from strategies designed to reach businesses?
a.
consumers expect a higher level of customer service than do businesses
b.
businesses respond better to advertising than do consumers
c.
consumers act in groups but business buyers act alone
d.
business buying often involves more technical issues
ANS: D
PTS:
1
DIF:
2
REF:
139
3.
What do MOST businesses expect when they enter the marketplace to buy goods and services?
a.
to enjoy a high level of customer service
b.
to locate vendors through the Yellow Pages
c.
to find standard items that will fill their needs
d.
to make quick purchasing decisions
ANS: A
PTS:
1
DIF:
2
REF:
138
4.
Which of the following statements best describes the business market compared to the consumer market
?
a.
Customization tends to be less.
b.
Negotiations are shorter.
c.
Distribution channels are shorter.
d.
Customer relations are less enduring.
ANS: C
PTS:
1
DIF:
3
REF:
138
5.
Which of the following is NOT included in
the four segments of the B2B marketplace?
a.
the entertainment industry
b.
government
c.
the commercial market
d.
trade industries
ANS: A
PTS:
1
DIF:
1
REF:
138
6.
What is the largest segment of the business market?
a.
trade industries
b.
institutions
c.
government organizations
d.
commercial markets
ANS: D
PTS:
1
DIF:
2
REF:
140
7.
What is the name of the component of the business market that consists of individuals and firms that acquire
goods and services to be used, directly or indirectly, in producing other goods and services?
a.
wholesaling and retailing
b.
government
c.
the commercial market
d.
an institution
ANS: C
PTS:
1
DIF:
1
REF:
140
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8.
What do the trade industries consist of?
a.
manufacturers
b.
wholesalers and retailers
c.
farmers
d.
transportation
ANS: B
PTS:
1
DIF:
1
REF:
140
9.
Which of the following characteristics best describes the institution segment of a B2B market?
a.
It may have rigid purchasing procedures.
b.
It provides business services to the other members of the market.
c.
It tends to have greater financial resources than industrial customers.
d.
It is accountable to their clients and shareholders.
ANS: A
PTS:
1
DIF:
2
REF:
141
10.
Why does the government segment of the B2B market MOST commonly buy products?
a.
to resell to the public
b.
to provide public benefits
c.
to acquire customized items
d.
to use domestic sources only
ANS: B
PTS:
1
DIF:
2
REF:
140
11.
What market has the primary motivation of providing some form of public benefit when making a purchase?
a.
the industrial market
b.
the global market
c.
the government market
d.
the trade industries
ANS: C
PTS:
1
DIF:
2
REF:
140
12.
Which of the following is
NOT
found in e-commerce serving the business market?
a.
private portals that allow customers access to products and vendors
b.
service pages accessed using passwords provided by B2B marketers
c.
online auctions where business goods may be purchased
d.
chat rooms dedicated to opinions of new products
ANS: D
PTS:
1
DIF:
1
REF:
141
13.
Which of the following is
NOT
a commonly used basis for segmenting the business market?
a.
educational attainments of buyers
b.
customer type
c.
demographics using the size of the firm
d.
product end-use application
ANS: A
PTS:
1
DIF:
3
REF:
143
14.
When the B2B market is segmented on the basis of product specifications issued by organizational buyers, what
type of segmentation is it known as?
a.
customer-based segmentation
b.
profit-generating segmentation
c.
benefits segmentation
d.
engineering and design segmentation
ANS: A
PTS:
1
DIF:
2
REF:
143
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15.
Zardo Inc. divides its customers into the following categories: small business, large business, government, and
not-for-profit institutions. Which type of segmentation is Zardo practising?
a.
end use
b.
customer type
c.
demographic
d.
purchase category
ANS: B
PTS:
1
DIF:
2
REF:
143
16.
What is the system for grouping businesses that grew out of the North American Free Trade Agreement known
as?
a.
the Standard Industrial Classification System
b.
the Industrial Data Recording System
c.
the Standard Industrial Census System
d.
the North American Industry Classification System
ANS: D
PTS:
1
DIF:
3
REF:
144
17.
What type of segmentation are customer relationship management systems MOST useful in?
a.
end use
b.
demographic
c.
customer type
d.
purchase category
ANS: D
PTS:
1
DIF:
2
REF:
145
18.
In the B2B marketplace, what type of segmentation is based on the precise way in which the business will use
the product?
a.
segmentation by purchasing situation
b.
segmentation by customer type
c.
segmentation by end-use application
d.
segmentation by demographic characteristics
ANS: C
PTS:
1
DIF:
2
REF:
144
19.
What is the basis for market segmentation for a manufacturer that produces glass for microwave-oven doors,
shower enclosures, and patio tabletops?
a.
cost-plus considerations
b.
end-use application
c.
benefits offered
d.
design factors
ANS: B
PTS:
1
DIF:
2
REF:
144
20.
Which of the following is
NOT
a characteristic that distinguishes B2B markets from consumer markets?
a.
Organizational markets are more geographically concentrated.
b.
More people exert influence on the organizational buying decision.
c.
The organizational market tends to have a greater number of buyers.
d.
Organizations often engage in multiple sourcing and vendor analysis.
ANS: C
PTS:
1
DIF:
2
REF:
145
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21.
Which of the following will generally NOT be affected by the location of a business supplier compared to its
customers?
a.
end-use applications of products
b.
ability of the supplier to render better service
c.
supplier costs
d.
supplier parts inventories
ANS: A
PTS:
1
DIF:
2
REF:
145
22.
Dell Computer purchases parts and resources for its computers from suppliers worldwide. What is this practice
known as?
a.
outsourcing
b.
global sourcing
c.
joint demand
d.
derived demand
ANS: B
PTS:
1
DIF:
1
REF:
148
23.
The demand for computer microprocessor chips is based on the demand for personal computers. What is this an
example of?
a.
joint demand
b.
derived demand
c.
volatile demand
d.
demand variability
ANS: B
PTS:
1
DIF:
2
REF:
149
24.
Cotton and polyester are used in the production of permanent press clothing. If the supply of cotton is reduced,
there will be an immediate effect on the demand for polyester. What does this relationship represent?
a.
derived demand
b.
demand variability
c.
inventory adjustments
d.
joint demand
ANS: D
PTS:
1
DIF:
2
REF:
149
25.
If the demand for product A stays constant regardless of the increase or decrease in demand for product B, what
kind of demand is product A experiencing?
a.
derived
b.
joint
c.
volatile
d.
inelastic
ANS: D
PTS:
1
DIF:
3
REF:
149
26.
What type of delivery reduces inventories to absolute minimum levels and requires vendors to deliver the items
as they are needed in the production process?
a.
in-real-time (IRT) delivery
b.
just-in-time (JIT) delivery
c.
on-time (OT) delivery
d.
next-time-in (NTI) delivery
ANS: B
PTS:
1
DIF:
2
REF:
150
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27.
Which of the following questions would NOT likely be considered when deciding whether to manufacture
needed parts and equipment in-house?
a.
Do we have the needed capability to manufacture this equipment?
b.
Can someone else do this job better than we can?
c.
Can someone else do this work cheaper than we can?
d.
Do we create new distribution systems by manufacturing this equipment?
ANS: D
PTS:
1
DIF:
3
REF:
152
28.
Why is outsourcing often chosen as an alternative to making goods in-house or providing in-house services?
a.
outsourcing solves customer pressure for firms to diversify production
b.
outsourcing guarantees that the highest-quality product will be produced
c.
outsourcing solves security problems when proprietary technology is involved
d.
outsourcing allows firms to concentrate their resources on their core businesses
ANS: D
PTS:
1
DIF:
3
REF:
152
29.
What is turning to outsiders to provide goods and services that were formerly produced or handled internally
known as?
a.
outsourcing
b.
supplier sourcing
c.
supply-chain management
d.
external buying
ANS: A
PTS:
1
DIF:
1
REF:
152
30.
Which of the following is NOT a drawback of outsourcing
?
a.
lower-than-anticipated cost savings
b.
concerns over proprietary technology
c.
poor customer service
d.
higher risk of losing touch with customers
ANS: C
PTS:
1
DIF:
2
REF:
152
31.
How do unions generally view outsourcing?
a.
as a threat to union jobs
b.
as a bargaining tool for higher wages
c.
as a good idea to stay competitive and preserve jobs
d.
as a means of saving money and putting the savings into wages and benefits
ANS: A
PTS:
1
DIF:
1
REF:
153
32.
Which of the following is NOT an important product factor in the buying decision?
a.
replacement cost
b.
purchase price
c.
operating and maintenance costs
d.
vendor service
ANS: A
PTS:
1
DIF:
2
REF:
153
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33.
The Fairchild Company decides to defer purchasing new production equipment for its factory due to slowing
economic activity. What type of factor has influenced the company’s buying decision?
a.
a product-specific factor
b.
an environmental factor
c.
an organizational factor
d.
an interpersonal factor
ANS: B
PTS:
1
DIF:
2
REF:
153
34.
When a firm undertakes systems integration and designates a major trade industry supplier as the systems
integrator, what is that supplier known as?
a.
the category captain
b.
the purchasing coordinator
c.
the division leader
d.
the supply-chain manager
ANS: A
PTS:
1
DIF:
2
REF:
154
35.
What is an employee participating in when he/she recognizes that the use of a new product can potentially
improve the company’s market performance?
a.
need or opportunity recognition
b.
identification of suppliers
c.
word-of-mouth exploration
d.
information search
ANS: A
PTS:
1
DIF:
2
REF:
155
36.
What contributes to the need for more steps in the organizational buying process than the consumer buying
process?
a.
the limited number of suppliers in the B2B marketplace
b.
the importance of integrating the responsibilities of the wholesalers or retailers
c.
interpersonal and environmental influences not seen in consumer buying decisions
d.
business purchasing introduces new complexities that do not affect consumers
ANS: D
PTS:
1
DIF:
3
REF:
155
37.
What is the price negotiation process commonly experienced by government and institutional entities known as?
a.
competitive bidding
b.
decentralized buying
c.
collective bargaining
d.
systems integration
ANS: A
PTS:
1
DIF:
2
REF:
156
38.
Once a search for suppliers is completed and the company makes the suppliers aware of its needs, what will the
company do next?
a.
evaluate proposals
b.
notify the distribution channels of the new product introduction
c.
acquire and analyze proposals
d.
select an order routine
ANS: C
PTS:
1
DIF:
2
REF:
156
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39.
What step in the business buying process involves establishing specifications for a required product?
a.
recognizing a need
b.
describing product characteristics
c.
qualifying potential vendors
d.
selecting an order routine
ANS: B
PTS:
1
DIF:
2
REF:
156
40.
Adam, a purchasing agent for the American Heart Association, has made a list of suppliers that may be
considered for payroll services. What step in the organizational buying process is Adam currently at?
a.
recognizing a problem or opportunity
b.
determining the characteristics and quantity of the needed product
c.
describing the characteristics of the needed product
d.
searching for and qualifying potential sources
ANS: D
PTS:
1
DIF:
2
REF:
156
41.
What step in the organizational buying process would involve procedures that measure characteristics such as a
supplier’s reliability, price, and order accuracy?
a.
searching for potential sources
b.
analyzing proposals
c.
recognizing a need
d.
evaluating proposals and selecting suppliers
ANS: D
PTS:
1
DIF:
2
REF:
155
42.
What is the final step in the business buying process?
a.
selecting an order routine
b.
obtaining feedback and evaluating performance
c.
evaluating proposals and selecting suppliers
d.
acquiring and analyzing proposals
ANS: B
PTS:
1
DIF:
2
REF:
156
43.
What is a unique purchase situation in the business market called that requires considerable effort on the decision
maker’s part?
a.
a straight rebuy
b.
a modified rebuy
c.
new-task buying
d.
a selective rebuy
ANS: C
PTS:
1
DIF:
1
REF:
158
44.
What kind of buying situation is it when a business purchaser accepts the terms of sale of an item that has
performed satisfactorily in the past and requires no new information to decide to purchase it again?
a.
straight rebuy
b.
service purchase
c.
contract purchase
d.
modified rebuy
ANS: A
PTS:
1
DIF:
1
REF:
157
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45.What is often the cause when business purchasers shift from straight rebuy to modified rebuy behaviour?
a.
a change in the accelerator principle
b.
the routine buying format being outdated
c.
corporate expansion
d.
a deterioration in supplier service or delivery
ANS: D
PTS:
1
DIF:
2
REF:
158
46.
What is a buying situation in which business purchasers are willing to re-evaluate their available options known
as?
a.
a straight rebuy
b.
a modified rebuy
c.
new-task buying
d.
routinized response behaviour
ANS: B
PTS:
1
DIF:
2
REF:
158
47.
What term refers to the business buying situation in which a company buys component parts never before
purchased?
a.
complex rebuying
b.
new-task buying
c.
technical buying
d.
modified rebuying
ANS: B
PTS:
1
DIF:
2
REF:
158
48.
What is the practice of buying from suppliers that are also customers known as?
a.
a modified rebuy
b.
a straight rebuy
c.
vendor analysis
d.
reciprocity
ANS: D
PTS:
1
DIF:
1
REF:
158
49.
What is the ongoing evaluation of a supplier’s performance in categories such as price, Electronic Data
Interchange capability, delivery times, and attention to special requests known as?
a.
product-substitution analysis
b.
component redesign
c.
vendor analysis
d.
costs-benefits analysis
ANS: C
PTS:
1
DIF:
2
REF:
159
50.
Reciprocity has been MOST common in industries featuring what type of products?
a.
homogeneous products with different prices
b.
diverse products with different prices
c.
diverse products with similar prices
d.
homogeneous products with similar prices
ANS: D
PTS:
1
DIF:
2
REF:
158
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51.
What does a company’s buying centre encompass?
a.
a representative from each department within an organization
b.
a gatekeeper and a buyer
c.
everyone who is involved in any aspect of the buying process
d.
a top-notch buying department
ANS: C
PTS:
1
DIF:
2
REF:
159
52.
In a business buying centre situation, who are the people that sometimes initially request the product, utilize the
purchased product, and may assist in developing the product specifications?
a.
users
b.
consumers
c.
influencers
d.
gatekeepers
ANS: A
PTS:
1
DIF:
2
REF:
159
53.
What is the function performed by the gatekeeper in the company buying centre?
a.
to supply information to guide evaluation of alternatives
b.
to select a supplier and implement the procedures for securing the goods and services
c.
to choose which goods and services will actually be bought
d.
to control the information that all buying centre members will review
ANS: D
PTS:
1
DIF:
2
REF:
159
54.
Who controls the information that enters the company’s buying centre?
a.
the buyer
b.
the influencer
c.
the gatekeeper
d.
the user
ANS: C
PTS:
1
DIF:
2
REF:
159
55.
Which of the following is one type of buying centre role?
a.
the influencer, who supplies information to guide evaluation of alternatives
b.
the contractor, who has the formal authority to select a supplier
c.
the distributor, who controls the information that all buying centre members will review
d.
the technician, who presents technical requirements
ANS: A
PTS:
1
DIF:
2
REF:
159
56.
The buying centre concept explains how groups of people participate informally in business purchase decisions.
What else does the buying centre concept explain?
a.
the methods to break through group perceptions
b.
the roles group members play in making the decisions
c.
the formation dynamics of new groups of decision makers
d.
the way family units operate as buying centres
ANS: B
PTS:
1
DIF:
3
REF:
159
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57.
Janet works in distribution management at a winery and has formal authority to select a bottle supplier, although
many people have provided her with input regarding the decision. What role does Janet play in the buying
centre?
a.
the influencer
b.
the gatekeeper
c.
the buyer
d.
the user
ANS: C
PTS:
1
DIF:
2
REF:
160
58.
Which of the following is
NOT
a challenge ordinarily encountered in marketing to government entities?
a.
handling retail sales contracts using credit cards
b.
fixed-price contracts based on a bid process
c.
cost-reimbursement contracts providing for allowable costs and profits
d.
a standing offer
ANS: A
PTS:
1
DIF:
2
REF:
161
59.
Who does much of the purchasing for the federal government of Canada?
a.
the City of Toronto
b.
Public Works and Government Services Canada
c.
MERX
d.
independent merchandisers
ANS: B
PTS:
1
DIF:
1
REF:
161
60.
How are institutional markets characterized?
a.
by similar buying practices
b.
by widely diverse buying practices
c.
by few group purchasing arrangements
d.
by little negotiation to secure volume discounts
ANS: B
PTS:
1
DIF:
2
REF:
162
61.
Which of the following types of organizations would NOT ordinarily be considered a part of the institutional
market?
a.
public libraries
b.
department stores
c.
educational foundations
d.
churches
ANS: B
PTS:
1
DIF:
1
REF:
162
62.
What do many institutions choose to do in order to receive quantity discounts on needed purchases?
a.
purchase products they do not need
b.
put off purchases for as long as possible
c.
join cooperative associations to pool purchases
d.
rely on their independence and future growth
ANS: C
PTS:
1
DIF:
2
REF:
162
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63.
A car tire supplier is noticing an 5% increase in sales in tires it sells to car manufacturers. What is this an
example of?
a.
joint demand
b.
derived demand
c.
volatile demand
d.
demand variability
ANS: B
PTS:
1
DIF:
3
REF:
149
64.
A rail service company has a special “2 for 1 seat sale” and requires an additional 100 railcars to meet the
forecasted demand in the next 10 months. After the 10 months, demand is anticipated to fall to previous levels.
Which of the following is the MOST LIKELY option for the company to choose?
a.
Manufacturing the product in-house
b.
Purchasing the product from an outside vendor
c.
Leasing the product
d.
Outsourcing
ANS: C
PTS:
1
DIF:
3
REF:
151-152
65.
ACME Inc., a small and growing computer animation business, requires laptops for 10 new employees. Which
of the following is the MOST LIKELY option for the company to choose?
a.
Manufacturing the product in-house
b.
Purchasing the product from an outside vendor
c.
Leasing the product
d.
Outsourcing
ANS: C
PTS:
1
DIF:
2
REF:
151
66.
Which of the following BEST describes the challenge of identifying participants in international buying centres,
compared to domestic buying centres?
a.
Quite easier to identify
b.
Slightly easier to identify
c.
Same level of difficulty to identify
d.
More difficult to identify
ANS: D
PTS:
1
DIF:
2
REF:
160
Chapter 6—Serving Global Markets
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1.
What two categories can international trade be divided into?
a.
exporting and importing
b.
national and international
c.
general and foreign
d.
direct and indirect
ANS: A
PTS:
1
DIF:
1
REF:
172
2.
Which of the following is NOT a reason why global trade is vital to a nation and its marketers?
a.
market expansion
b.
increased dependence on domestic economic conditions
c.
production and distribution economies
d.
growth opportunities
ANS: B
PTS:
1
DIF:
2
REF:
172
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3.
What is a characteristic that many North American economies have for products that result in increased
importance of global trade?
a.
a growing market
b.
a technologically advanced market
c.
an advanced market
d.
a mature market
ANS: D
PTS:
1
DIF:
2
REF:
172
4.
In addition to natural resources, what exports are equally as important to Canada’s economy?
a.
processed and packaged foods
b.
machinery and automotive products
c.
low-technology trade goods
d.
melons and other wet fruits
ANS: B
PTS:
1
DIF:
1
REF:
172-173
5.
Following the United States, who is Canada’s second largest trading partner?
a.
the European Union
b.
Japan
c.
China
d.
United Kingdom
ANS: A
PTS:
1
DIF:
1
REF:
173
6.
Who is the largest private employer in the world?
a.
General Motors Corporation
b.
McDonalds
c.
Microsoft
d.
Walmart
ANS: D
PTS:
1
DIF:
1
REF:
173
7.
What accounts for 70 percent of Canada’s gross domestic product?
a.
agriculture
b.
manufacturing
c.
retail
d.
services
ANS: D
PTS:
1
DIF:
1
REF:
174
8.
Procter & Gamble successfully introduced a lower-priced version of its popular Tide laundry detergent to the
rural Chinese market, and a higher-priced version to city-dwellers in China. What does this illustrate about
succeeding in a foreign market?
a.
Marketers must look for alternative distribution channels.
b.
Marketers must partner with a local marketing firm.
c.
Marketers must adapt a product to local preferences and culture.
d.
Marketers must maintain the exact product characteristics that were successful in the domestic mark
ANS: C
PTS:
1
DIF:
2
REF:
175
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9.
Before entering a country, what is the underlying foundation marketers need to determine it has?
a.
a moral code
b.
a legal system
c.
an infrastructure
d.
a trade organization
ANS: C
PTS:
1
DIF:
1
REF:
176
10.
Which of the following is NOT considered a part of a nation’s infrastructure
?
a.
wholesale networks
b.
transportation networks
c.
communications systems
d.
energy facilities
ANS: A
PTS:
1
DIF:
1
REF:
176
11.
Which of the following markets are strong for a nation with low per-capita incomes?
a.
automobiles and electronics
b.
industrial machinery
c.
agricultural hand tools
d.
technical services
ANS: C
PTS:
1
DIF:
2
REF:
176
12.
In order for a marketer to operate efficiently in a foreign country, what must be in place and stable to facilitate
trade?
a.
a free trade agreement
b.
infrastructure
c.
tariffs
d.
a labour force
ANS: B
PTS:
1
DIF:
1
REF:
176
13.
What idea is the basis for the European Union currency, the euro
?
a.
Tying other European currencies to the euro will stabilize exchange rates.
b.
The presence of the euro will eliminate soft currencies from the marketplace.
c.
Having a single currency will strengthen Europe’s global competitiveness.
d.
The euro will eventually be used in Eastern Europe.
ANS: C
PTS:
1
DIF:
2
REF:
176
14.
When entering a foreign market, care must be taken to ensure that product names and advertising slogans are
translated correctly and do not cause misunderstandings among foreign consumers. What element of the
international environment does this illustrate?
a.
social-cultural
b.
political-legal
c.
economic
d.
technological
ANS: A
PTS:
1
DIF:
2
REF:
176
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15.
What are many Western firms utilizing in order to stay abreast of changing political and legal environments that
exist in various foreign countries?
a.
the Internet
b.
political risk assessment units
c.
the World Trade Organization
d.
consumer research groups
ANS: B
PTS:
1
DIF:
2
REF:
178
16.
What do ISO 9000 standards set requirements for?
a.
quality in goods and services
b.
prices
c.
worker compensation
d.
environmental protection
ANS: A
PTS:
1
DIF:
2
REF:
178
17.
What do ISO 14000 standards set requirements for?
a.
product quality
b.
prices
c.
worker compensation
d.
environmental protection
ANS: D
PTS:
1
DIF:
2
REF:
179
18.
Who provides advice and assistance to Canadian businesses that want to enter foreign markets?
a.
the World Trade Organization
b.
the Trade Commissioner Service
c.
the Canadian Tourism Commission
d.
the International Monetary Fund
ANS: B
PTS:
1
DIF:
1
REF:
179
19.
Which of the following is
NOT
considered a trade barrier to an exporter?
a.
tariffs
b.
import quotas
c.
subsidies
d.
related-party trade
ANS: D
PTS:
1
DIF:
3
REF:
180-181
20.
What is the basic purpose of revenue tariffs?
a.
to raise money for the country into which the products are being imported
b.
to raise the retail prices of imported products to match or exceed those of similar domestic products
c.
to counter the effects of protective tariffs on the domestic market
d.
to stabilize the prices of imported goods
ANS: A
PTS:
1
DIF:
1
REF:
180
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21.
The Republic of Eastern Africa imposes a duty on imported goods to pay for government services. What is this
BEST described as?
a.
a protective tariff
b.
a revenue tariff
c.
an import quota
d.
a subsidy
ANS: B
PTS:
1
DIF:
2
REF:
180
22.What is the basic purpose of protective tariffs?
a.
to raise money for the country into which the products are being imported
b.
to raise the retail prices of imported products to match or exceed those of similar domestic products
c.
to counter the effects of tariffs on the domestic market
d.
to stabilize the prices of imported goods
ANS: B
PTS:
1
DIF:
1
REF:
180
23.
What is a complete ban on the import of a product known as?
a.
an import quota
b.
an embargo
c.
a revenue tariff
d.
a protective tariff
ANS: B
PTS:
1
DIF:
1
REF:
180
24.
Which of the following is one requirement for companies regarding exchange control?
a.
Companies that export need to sell foreign currencies to a foreign agency or the central bank.
b.
Companies need to support domestic industry through grants of money or research support.
c.
Companies need a complete ban on the importation of a product.
d.
Companies that sell products in a foreign market price the products cheaper than they are sold
domestically.
ANS: A
PTS:
1
DIF:
2
REF:
181
25.
What is the ideal way for a nation to stop a foreign company from dumping?
a.
pay the exporter with soft currency
b.
impose protective tariffs
c.
cite international law
d.
appeal to the International Monetary Fund
ANS: B
PTS:
1
DIF:
2
REF:
182
26.
A company sells products to a foreign market at a price lower than it sells within its own country. What is this
practice known as?
a.
dumping
b.
inventory reduction
c.
open-market theory
d.
competitive counterstrategy
ANS: A
PTS:
1
DIF:
1
REF:
182
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27.
What have a group of nations created when they agree to the exchange of goods among themselves by abolishing
tariffs and trade restrictions?
a.
a common market
b.
a customs union
c.
a trading block
d.
a free trade area
ANS: D
PTS:
1
DIF:
2
REF:
182
28.
What type of multinational organization features the no tariff exchange of goods among its members and a
uniform tariff for trade with nonmember nations?
a.
common market
b.
administration common
c.
customs union
d.
free trade area
ANS: C
PTS:
1
DIF:
2
REF:
182
29.
What organization was established as a result of the General Agreement on Tariffs and Trade?
a.
North American Free Trade Agreement
b.
European Union
c.
World Trade Organization
d.
Free Trade Area of the Americas
ANS: C
PTS:
1
DIF:
1
REF:
184
30.
What type of progress has the World Trade Organization made toward its goals of liberalizing world financial
services, telecommunications, and maritime markets?
a.
slow—its activities have focused on complaint resolution, not trade barriers
b.
rapid—several major new treaties have been ratified in the last two years
c.
about as expected—there have been the usual victories and the usual defeats
d.
relatively fast—some authorities claim a new world order by the year 2016
ANS: A
PTS:
1
DIF:
3
REF:
184
31.
Which of the following is one of the major policy initiatives of the World Trade Organization?
a.
increasing the average level of education worldwide
b.
liberalizing world financial services
c.
promoting and protecting the environment
d.
regulating automobile production by less-advanced nations
ANS: B
PTS:
1
DIF:
2
REF:
184
32.
Assume China and Canada are involved in a trade dispute. Which organization will attempt to resolve the
dispute?
a.
United Nations
b.
World Trade Organization
c.
European Union
d.
General Agreement on Tariffs and Trade
ANS: B
PTS:
1
DIF:
2
REF:
184
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33.
What would be included in the Free Trade Area of the Americas
when goals are completed?
a.
Existing nations will become members of the World Trade Organization.
b.
The World Trade Organization would be the largest free-trade zone in the world.
c.
It would include nations from Central, North and South America.
d.
More intensive customs procedures via General agreement on Trades and Tariffs.
ANS: C
PTS:
1
DIF:
2
REF:
184
34.
What is the goal of the EU?
a.
to establish manufacturing standards
b.
to expand globally
c.
to remove all barriers to free trade among its members
d.
to completely absorb the former Eastern bloc of nations
ANS: C
PTS:
1
DIF:
1
REF:
185
35.
What is a company’s first step toward successful global marketing?
a.
to prepare an international business plan
b.
to seek to license a foreign company
c.
to enter into a joint venture with a foreign company
d.
to establish marketing operations in a foreign country
ANS: A
PTS:
1
DIF:
2
REF:
207
36.
What is an organization called that provides first-time exporters with expertise in locating foreign buyers,
handling paperwork, and conforming to local labelling and testing laws?
a.
an export facilitator
b.
an export title company
c.
a trade assistance corporation
d.
an export management company
ANS: D
PTS:
1
DIF:
2
REF:
187
37.
What is the term for an arrangement in which a small firm teams with, and serves as a subcontractor for, a larger
international company on a foreign project?
a.
international trade mentorship
b.
trade facilitation
c.
an offset agreement
d.
a mutual trade agreement
ANS: C
PTS:
1
DIF:
2
REF:
187
38. What
is the term for a contractual arrangement in which a wholesaler or retailer agrees to meet the operating
requirements of a manufacturer?
a.
foreign licensing
b.
franchising
c.
joint licensing
d.
offset licensing
ANS: B
PTS:
1
DIF:
1
REF:
188
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39.
Which of the following is an advantage of foreign licensing over exporting
?
a.
access to the local partners’ pricing
b.
use of the local partner’s distribution channels
c.
capital investment in foreign country
d.
slow entry into a foreign market
ANS: B
PTS:
1
DIF:
2
REF:
188
40.
What is the term for a contractual agreement by which a domestic firm grants foreign marketers the right to
distribute a firm’s merchandise or use its trademark, patent, or process in a specified geographic area?
a.
subcontracting
b.
franchising
c.
reciprocal partnership
d.
foreign licensing
ANS: D
PTS:
1
DIF:
1
REF:
188
41.
Toyota, a Japanese firm, builds a factory in Ontario to make vehicles to be marketed to Canadians. How is this
strategy BEST described?
a.
as a joint venture between Toyota and the Ontario provincial government seeking to increase
employment opportunities
b.
as foreign marketing by Toyota
c.
as international direct investment by Toyota in Canada
d.
as indirect exporting
ANS: C
PTS:
1
DIF:
2
REF:
189
42.
What is the international market-entry strategy that involves high levels of involvement and risk potential and
also offers a competitive advantage over other alternatives?
a.
franchising
b.
offset agreement
c.
foreign licensing
d.
international direct investment
ANS: D
PTS:
1
DIF:
2
REF:
189
43.
Which of the following is
NOT
an example of international direct investment by a firm?
a.
a foreign sales office
b.
overseas marketing subsidiaries
c.
acquisition of an existing foreign company
d.
an export management company
ANS: D
PTS:
1
DIF:
2
REF:
189
44.
What is a firm with significant operations and marketing activities outside its home country called?
a.
a monopoly
b.
an active exporter
c.
a multinational corporation
d.
an overseas marketer
ANS: C
PTS:
1
DIF:
2
REF:
189
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45.
Which of the following BEST describes IBM and General Electric?
a.
global exporters
b.
multinational corporations
c.
domestic corporations
d.
global importers
ANS: B
PTS:
1
DIF:
2
REF:
189
46.
What does a multi-domestic marketing strategy indicate about a firm?
a.
that it customizes its marketing decisions to effectively reach individual marketplaces
b.
that it disregards the principles of market segmentation
c.
that it considers all foreign countries to have equally competitive situations
d.
that it employs universal promotional messages
ANS: A
PTS:
1
DIF:
3
REF:
190
47.
What type of standard marketing strategy modifies only minimally for use in each of the firm’s foreign markets?
a.
a single-space marketing strategy
b.
a monolithic marketing strategy
c.
a global marketing strategy
d.
a multi-domestic marketing strategy
ANS: C
PTS:
1
DIF:
1
REF:
190
48.
Dell is famous for its build-to-order computers; however, the company decided to sell prebuilt computers in
China’s retail stores. What is this a result of?
a.
a global marketing strategy
b.
a multinational marketing strategy
c.
a countertrade policy
d.
a multi-domestic marketing strategy
ANS: D
PTS:
1
DIF:
2
REF:
190
49.
Which of the following advantages does
NOT
ordinarily arise out of customizing marketing strategies for
different international markets?
a.
lower production costs per unit
b.
attention to local preferences
c.
products tailored to target market needs
d.
promotions that appeal to local tastes
ANS: A
PTS:
1
DIF:
2
REF:
191
50.
Which of the following are alternative strategies from which international marketers can choose when selecting
an appropriate product/promotion strategy?
a.
product adaptation and dual adaptation
b.
promotion adaptation and direct exporting
c.
countertrading and product invention
d.
global marketing and multinational marketing
ANS: A
PTS:
1
DIF:
2
REF:
191
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51.
In the international market, what does a product adaptation strategy combine?
a.
changes in promotion strategy with changes in the product itself
b.
the domestic product with promotional changes tuned to the foreign market
c.
product changes with the same promotional strategy used in the domestic market
d.
product characteristics not seen in the home country with a foreign promotional strategy
ANS: C
PTS:
1
DIF:
2
REF:
191
52.
What is developing a completely new product to take advantage of a unique foreign opportunity called?
a.
product development
b.
product commercialization
c.
product invention
d.
product origination
ANS: C
PTS:
1
DIF:
1
REF:
191
53.
Which of the following need
NOT
be considered in making an international expansion decision?
a.
precise domestic distribution duplication
b.
quality of the firm’s products
c.
currently available transportation options
d.
warehousing facilities
ANS: A
PTS:
1
DIF:
2
REF:
213
54.
What type of constraint can MOST likely limit pricing decisions in a foreign market?
a.
ecological
b.
political
c.
social
d.
ethical
ANS: B
PTS:
1
DIF:
2
REF:
192
55.
Which of the following BEST describes the role of The Organization of Petroleum Exporting Countries as a
marketing organization?
a.
It uses a pricing strategy of controlling world prices through collective action.
b.
It is regulated by NAFTA and the EU.
c.
It uses countertrade to obtain valuable foreign investments.
d.
It was formed to address the growing competition from Venezuela and North Sea crude exploration.
ANS: A
PTS:
1
DIF:
1
REF:
192
56.
In order to gain access to some foreign markets, a firm may barter products rather than selling them for cash.
What is this referred to as?
a.
fair trade
b.
product adaptation
c.
countertrade
d.
multi-domestic marketing
ANS: C
PTS:
1
DIF:
1
REF:
192
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57.
Which of the following is NOT a reason why Canada is an attractive market for international marketers?
a.
high levels of discretionary income
b.
political stability
c.
low level of domestic competitors
d.
well-controlled economy
ANS: C
PTS:
1
DIF:
1
REF:
192
58.
A Canadian firm is considering marketing its products in another country. The new market is attractive, but the
country’s cultural and legal environments are different from those in Canada. Based only on the information
provided, how should the firm proceed?
a.
Avoid the new market completely and focus only on the domestic market.
b.
Enter the new market using the same marketing strategy the firm uses in Canada.
c.
Enter the new market using the same marketing strategy the firm employs in existing foreign market
d.
Enter the new market using a new marketing strategy designed for that specific market.
ANS: D
PTS:
1
DIF:
3
REF:
191
59.
Growth in the services of developing markets is MOST likely to continue due to which of the following?
a.
defined service measurements
b.
advancing information technology
c.
ongoing
categorization improvements
d.
data comparison
ANS: B
PTS:
1
DIF:
2
REF:
174
60.
Which of the following is the world’s most frequently spoken language?
a.
Spanish
b.
English
c.
Mandarin
d.
Arabic
ANS: C
PTS:
1
DIF:
1
REF:
177
61.
Administrative trade barriers include which of the following?
a.
quotas on exports
b.
liberal standards for imports
c.
import subsidies
d.
customs barriers
ANS: D
PTS:
1
DIF:
2
REF:
180
62.
A Canadian cereal company has completed market research that indicates children from the United Kingdom
enjoy the taste of the Canadian version of Snacky Cereal.
However, they have a difficult time chewing it
because the pieces are so large and are therefore eating less of it.
Which of the following is MOST likely
strategy?
a.
straight extension
b.
product adaptation
c.
promotion adaptation
d.
dual adaptation
ANS: D
PTS:
1
DIF:
3
REF:
180
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63.
FedEx has a slogan, “FedEx Delivers to a Changing World” and has run this slogan in Canada, Brazil, China,
and additional countries. This example BEST illustrates which of the following?
a.
straight extension
b.
product adaptation
c.
promotion adaptation
d.
dual adaptation
ANS: A
PTS:
1
DIF:
2
REF:
191
64.
A North American company has created a North American product ad that includes the use of a handshake.
The
use of a handshake may be seen as offensive by some countries overseas, where the product is also sold. Which
of the following is MOST likely?
a.
straight extension
b.
product adaptation
c.
promotion adaptation
d.
dual adaptation
ANS: C
PTS:
1
DIF:
3
REF:
191
65.
A global company recognizes that people in Canada shop less frequently, buy larger sized containers of grocery
product and drive to and from the store.
In another country, people tend to shop daily and walk to and from the
stores.
To address the needs of the other country, which of the following is MOST likely?
a.
straight extension
b.
product adaptation
c.
promotion adaptation
d.
dual adaptation
ANS: B
PTS:
1
DIF:
3
REF:
191
66.
The largest category, with respect to dollar amount, that Canada measures service exports and imports is which
of the following?
a.
travel
b.
transportation
c.
management
d.
commercial
ANS: D
PTS:
1
DIF:
2
REF:
174
67.
A major benefit of a global marketing strategy includes which of the following?
a.
different market segmentation occurs
b.
services are excluded
c.
implementation costs are low
d.
very different marketing mixes are created
ANS: C
PTS:
1
DIF:
2
REF:
191
68.
The International Monetary Fund is responsible for defining and classifying which of the following transactions?
a.
service
b.
goods
c.
exchange rate
d.
technology
ANS: A
PTS:
1
DIF:
2
REF:
174
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69.
A global marketing strategy for luxury products will often use ads with a picture of the luxury item and the name
in various countries. This is an example of which the following?
a.
straight extension
b.
product adaptation
c.
promotion adaptation
d.
dual adaptation
ANS: A
PTS:
1
DIF:
3
REF:
190-191
Chapter 7—Marketing Research, Decision Support Systems, and Sales Forecasting
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1.
Who does market research aid by presenting pertinent information in a useable format?
a.
managers with a means to judge sales performance
b.
decision makers in analyzing data and suggesting possible actions
c.
virtual marketplaces that will accurately depict what will happen in the actual marketplace
d.
consumers to validate their purchases
ANS: B
PTS:
1
DIF:
1
REF:
204
2.
Which of the following areas are working more closely together in order to take advantage of the methodologies
available?
a.
telephone, in-person, and Internet research
b.
food, beverage, and health care research
c.
competitive intelligence, public intelligence, and private research
d.
marketing research, database management, and competitive intelligence
ANS: D
PTS:
1
DIF:
1
REF:
204
3.
What did much of the early marketing research consist of?
a.
written testimonials received from purchasers of firms’ products
b.
use of mailed questionnaires to gather data
c.
telephone surveys conducted to assess overall household preferences
d.
sampling studies using techniques derived from voting records
ANS: A
PTS:
1
DIF:
2
REF:
204
4.
In recent years, how have advances in computer technology significantly changed the nature of marketing
research?
a.
by narrowing the focus of the data collection process
b.
by allowing the use of simulations that ask “what-if” questions
c.
by eliminating the need for outside research firms
d.
by providing an in-house market research group with primary data
ANS: B
PTS:
1
DIF:
2
REF:
204
5.
When is marketing research MOST likely to be contracted to an outside firm?
a.
when the problem is well defined and clearly understood by the hiring company
b.
when the project is being led by in-house personnel with marketing degrees
c.
when the outside provider has the ability to do the work for a lower cost
d.
when the outside provider has the latest technology
ANS: C
PTS:
1
DIF:
2
REF:
205
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6.
What type of firm is a marketing research firm who contracts with clients to conduct complete marketing
research projects?
a.
a syndicated firm
b.
a limited-service firm
c.
a full-service firm
d.
a customer-service firm
ANS: C
PTS:
1
DIF:
2
REF:
206
7.
Which of the following describes Environics Research Group?
a.
a full-service research supplier firm
b.
a limited-service research supplier firm
c.
a full-service media and advertising firm
d.
a limited-service media and advertising firm
ANS: A
PTS:
1
DIF:
1
REF:
206
8.
What happens after the marketing research problem has been well defined?
a.
Researchers can focus on securing the exact information needed to solve it.
b.
The issue then becomes whether you’re looking at a problem or at its symptoms.
c.
The research process is sometimes slowed down and becomes inaccurate.
d.
All that is left is to adjust the marketing mix to the conditions.
ANS: A
PTS:
1
DIF:
3
REF:
207
9.
Which of the following is one of the steps in the marketing research process?
a.
identifying theories
b.
defining the problem
c.
determining whether data are primary or secondary
d.
interviewing the marketing research staff about skill levels
ANS: B
PTS:
1
DIF:
1
REF:
207
10.
Which of the following describes a symptom?
a.
a problem that has outgrown its ability to be contained easily
b.
the cause of market share loss
c.
a bad decision or a poor use of strategic planning
d.
an alert to marketers that a problem exists
ANS: D
PTS:
1
DIF:
2
REF:
207
11.
What kind of research seeks to discover the cause of a problem by discussing the problem with informed sources
and examining pre-existing data?
a.
situation analysis
b.
informal investigation
c.
exploratory research
d.
cost or bottom-line analysis
ANS: C
PTS:
1
DIF:
1
REF:
208
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12.
What can researchers begin doing once a firm has defined the problem it seeks to solve?
a.
looking for government data that will provide the needed information
b.
conducting exploratory research
c.
completely changing the marketing mix
d.
deciding whether to experiment or conduct a survey
ANS: B
PTS:
1
DIF:
2
REF:
208
13.
Walmart prefers transaction records sorted by customer type, product, sales method, type of order, and order
size. What is analyzing internal data sorted in this manner called?
a.
sales analysis
b.
financial analysis
c.
accounting analysis
d.
marketing cost analysis
ANS: A
PTS:
1
DIF:
1
REF:
208
14.
What is a benefit of using internal data for marketing research?
a.
Most internal data are not current enough to be used.
b.
Internal controls limit the use of such data.
c.
Tracking consumer information lacks detail and consistency.
d.
Sales analysis is one of the least expensive methods.
ANS: D
PTS:
1
DIF:
3
REF:
208
15.
What does a marketing cost analysis evaluate?
a.
effectiveness of the sales force
b.
current levels of corporate assets and liabilities
c.
profitability of certain customers, territories, or product lines
d.
whether summaries of invoices and orders received can be useful
ANS: C
PTS:
1
DIF:
2
REF:
208
16.
As part of his marketing research duties, Nathan evaluates company expenses for selling, warehousing,
advertising, and delivery by the Mendocino Vinegar Cooperative. What is Nathan conducting?
a.
an informal competency investigation
b.
an experimental research project
c.
an external profile project
d.
a marketing cost analysis
ANS: D
PTS:
1
DIF:
2
REF:
208
17.
What is a statement called that potentially explains the relationship among variables, which, in turn, carries clear
implications for testing the relationship?
a.
survey mission
b.
census criterion
c.
scanning protocol
d.
hypothesis
ANS: D
PTS:
1
DIF:
1
REF:
208
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18.
Megan believes the reason the sales of one of her company’s products have fallen is due to a price increase. She
cites sales from the previous year to the same customers as evidence of declining sales. Where is Megan in the
marketing research process?
a.
defining a problem
b.
developing a hypothesis
c.
creating a research design
d.
collecting data
ANS: B
PTS:
1
DIF:
2
REF:
208
19.
After a problem has been defined and an exploratory investigation is conducted, what should the marketing
researcher be able to do next?
a.
collect both primary and secondary data
b.
draw significant conclusions
c.
immediately proceed to a solution
d.
formulate a hypothesis
ANS: D
PTS:
1
DIF:
1
REF:
208
20.
What is a master plan or model for conducting marketing research called?
a.
a hypothesis
b.
a research design
c.
a theory
d.
an analysis
ANS: B
PTS:
1
DIF:
1
REF:
208
21.
When is a research design deemed to be successful?
a.
when a structured conclusion is drawn from an investigative study
b.
when it measures only what researchers intend to measure
c.
when the secondary data does not easily solve the problem
d.
when it has the proper style for statistical and technical reports
ANS: B
PTS:
1
DIF:
2
REF:
208
22.
Raj is deciding which customers to include in a sample. Where is he in the marketing research process?
a.
formulating a hypothesis
b.
collecting data
c.
creating a research design
d.
defining a problem
ANS: C
PTS:
1
DIF:
2
REF:
208
23.
What kind of data is information collected for the first time, specifically for a marketing research study?
a.
secondary data
b.
primary data
c.
soft data
d.
experimental data
ANS: B
PTS:
1
DIF:
1
REF:
209
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24.
Phil is using data collected and published by a trade association in his marketing research study. What kind of
data is Phil using?
a.
secondary data
b.
primary data
c.
soft data
d.
hard data
ANS: A
PTS:
1
DIF:
2
REF:
209
25.
What are the two important advantages of secondary data over primary data?
a.
a wide variety of statistics and large sample groups used to create the data
b.
a high level of detail and endorsement by other users
c.
accuracy and specificity of the data gathered for the research study
d.
cost and speed of locating the data
ANS: D
PTS:
1
DIF:
2
REF:
209
26.
A department manager recommends using secondary data in a marketing research project. Which of the
following best describes what the department manager is looking for?
a.
personal interviews of people not directly related to the project
b.
information previously compiled and published
c.
newly generated database entries that need to be sorted before use
d.
personal observations of situations affecting the business
ANS: B
PTS:
1
DIF:
1
REF:
209
27.
Managerial decision makers are often presented with the results of a marketing research study. What is a
common problem these results confront them with?
a.
They are too concerned about the costs associated with market research.
b.
They prefer to use the finance department as their main source of information.
c.
They believe the data will be of little use because of the research limitations.
d.
The data presented does not lead directly to the solution stage.
ANS: C
PTS:
1
DIF:
3
REF:
209
28.
What is the final step in the marketing research process?
a.
interpreting findings and presenting information to decision makers
b.
in-depth computer analysis of the data followed by database update
c.
evaluating the research design for improvement and efficiency
d.
providing feedback to researchers concerning their effectiveness
ANS: A
PTS:
1
DIF:
2
REF:
210
29.
Which of the following best describes primary data?
a.
It is collected for the first time specifically for a marketing research study.
b.
It takes less time to acquire and is less costly than secondary data.
c.
Its newly published results consist of government investigations.
d.
It is part of a strategic planning activity to ensure proper resource allocation.
ANS: A
PTS:
1
DIF:
1
REF:
209
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30.
Which of the following is NOT a good source of secondary data for marketing research studies?
a.
Statistics Canada
b.
Industry Canada
c.
federal, provincial, and municipal governments
d.
Internet newsgroups
ANS: D
PTS:
1
DIF:
1
REF:
212
31.
You are a market researcher for a cable television company seeking to determine the number of multi-dwelling
buildings in a selected neighbourhood. What source would be your best chance of acquiring this information
quickly?
a.
Industry Canada
b.
the local Better Business Bureau
c.
interviews with neighbourhood leaders
d.
interviews with the local Chamber of Commerce
ANS: A
PTS:
1
DIF:
2
REF:
211
32.
A marketer wants information about counties and cities in western Canada with 25 000 residents or more. Where
would be a good place to look for this information?
a.
Canada Revenue Agency
b.
Canadian Post Office Postal Code Directory
c.
Statistics Canada
d.
provincial maps of land usage and title
ANS: C
PTS:
1
DIF:
2
REF:
210
33.
A consumer product company is analyzing data collected and published by trade associations and general
business magazines. What is this data best referred to as?
a.
internal and primary data
b.
external and private data
c.
internal and secondary data
d.
external and public data
ANS: B
PTS:
1
DIF:
3
REF:
211
34.
What kind of data is collected and published by organizations such as trade associations or general business
magazines?
a.
primary data
b.
external data
c.
internal data
d.
private data
ANS: D
PTS:
1
DIF:
1
REF:
211
35.
Along with reducing purchase transaction time, what are Universal Product Codes used for?
a.
National Surveys of Canada data collection
b.
Canada Border Services Agency monitoring
c.
inventory control, ordering, and delivery research
d.
Industry and Consumer Business Bureau tracking
ANS: C
PTS:
1
DIF:
2
REF:
211
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36.
Since few libraries carry specialized trade journals, what is one of the best ways to gather data from these
journals?
a.
through the newspaper
b.
through
Maclean’s
magazine
c.
through ProQuest Direct’s
ABI/Inform
d.
through the City of Toronto Directory
ANS: C
PTS:
1
DIF:
2
REF:
211
37.
What is the total group of people that a researcher wants to study called?
a.
population or universe
b.
sample or unit
c.
quota or target
d.
cluster or group
ANS: A
PTS:
1
DIF:
1
REF:
212
38.
What is a group of people chosen from a defined population to be survey respondents or research participants
called?
a.
a quota
b.
a cluster
c.
a sample
d.
a community
ANS: C
PTS:
1
DIF:
1
REF:
212
39.
Why is sampling one of the MOST important aspects of research design?
a.
If a study fails to involve consumers who accurately reflect the target market, the research will likely
yield misleading conclusions.
b.
If a study includes a large enough number of people, it will be accurate; determining that number is
hard part.
c.
If a study uses a sampling method that has never been tried before, the sampling method will have to
defended in depth before the conclusions can be used.
d.
If a study doesn’t say what people think it’s going to say, it will have to be redone.
ANS: A
PTS:
1
DIF:
2
REF:
212
40.
What is the basic characteristic of a probability sample?
a.
every individual in the relevant universe has an equal chance of being selected
b.
there is a chance of any member of the population being selected
c.
all possible members of the population have provided information
d.
100 percent of all subgroups have been handpicked
ANS: B
PTS:
1
DIF:
2
REF:
212
41.
What kind of probability sample is constructed so that randomly selected subsamples of different groups are
represented in the total sample?
a.
a stratified sample
b.
a convenience sample
c.
a quota sample
d.
a cluster sample
ANS: A
PTS:
1
DIF:
1
REF:
212
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42.
Which of the following is one result of using nonprobability sampling?
a.
The handpicked sample will represent a true population.
b.
Representatives will answer honestly because they are proud to have been chosen.
c.
A homogenous sample will be selected.
d.
A definitive study will not be done on this data.
ANS: D
PTS:
1
DIF:
2
REF:
213
43.
What are the two types of nonprobability samples?
a.
convenience and quota samples
b.
cluster and convenience samples
c.
stratified and convenience samples
d.
random and cluster samples
ANS: A
PTS:
1
DIF:
2
REF:
213
44.
What kind of sampling involves “on the street” interviews conducted with anyone who passes by?
a.
media
b.
convenience
c.
cluster
d.
stratified
ANS: B
PTS:
1
DIF:
2
REF:
213
45.
What kind of survey on highway drivers includes 100 drivers from north of downtown, 100 from south of
downtown, 100 from west of downtown, and 100 from east of downtown?
a.
vehicle
b.
cluster
c.
quota
d.
convenience
ANS: C
PTS:
1
DIF:
2
REF:
213
46.
Erica is a marketing researcher involved in improving drug store layouts. Erica would like to know how
frequently customers in a particular store actually turn left to the cosmetics counter and try out tester fragrances.
What would be the best method for Erica to collect this data?
a.
observation
b.
controlled experiment
c.
voluntary mail-back questionnaires
d.
interviews at the cash register
ANS: A
PTS:
1
DIF:
1
REF:
213-214
47.
Which of the following describes people meters?
a.
physical devices used in interviewing techniques
b.
secondary-data generators for tracking turnstile activity
c.
electronic devices that record TV viewing habits
d.
phone-interview tracking procedures
ANS: C
PTS:
1
DIF:
1
REF:
213
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48.
How do marketers obtain primary data?
a.
through trend analysis, exponential smoothing, and the Delphi technique
b.
through observation, surveys, and experiments
c.
through private data, government data, and internal data
d.
through marketing information systems, business intelligence, and consumer intentions
ANS: B
PTS:
1
DIF:
2
REF:
213
49.
What method was developed by social anthropologists in which customers are observed in their natural setting
and their behaviour is interpreted based on social and cultural characteristics?
a.
controlled experiment
b.
mall intercept surveys
c.
exploratory research
d.
interpretive research
ANS: D
PTS:
1
DIF:
1
REF:
214
50.
When might market researchers employ the survey method?
a.
when it is necessary to obtain exact demographic information
b.
when it is not necessary to establish contact or involvement with the respondent
c.
when it is more cost-effective than secondary data collection
d.
when it is coupled with observation to create a “complete” research technique
ANS: A
PTS:
1
DIF:
2
REF:
214
51.
Which of the following in one of the obstacles to telephone interviewing for marketing research?
a.
telephone caller-ID systems
b.
the cost of multiple telephone lines and long-distance charges
c.
getting quality interviewers
d.
the call-waiting service
ANS: A
PTS:
1
DIF:
1
REF:
215
52.
Which of the following statements is an advantage of personal interviews?
a.
They provide biased and inaccurate information.
b.
They allow the researcher to collect more detailed information.
c.
They are a relatively quick method of ongoing data collection.
d.
They have limited flexibility in the format of the interviews.
ANS: B
PTS:
1
DIF:
2
REF:
215
53.
Overall, what is the ideal method for obtaining primary data about consumers?
a.
telephone interviews
b.
focus groups
c.
videotaping behaviour over an extended period of time
d.
personal interviews conducted face-to-face
ANS: D
PTS:
1
DIF:
3
REF:
215
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54.What is the average size of a focus group?
a.
3–7
b.
8–12
c.
13–17
d.
18–22
ANS: B
PTS:
1
DIF:
2
REF:
216
55.
Teenage Research Unlimited, a consumer-oriented marketing research firm, wishes to obtain data on the buying
habits and shopping preferences of teenagers. What kind of research should it use?
a.
observations of how teenagers walk around and check out their cars
b.
a mail survey sent out to high school students
c.
interviews of sales people in stores catering to teens
d.
focus group interviews with teens
ANS: D
PTS:
1
DIF:
3
REF:
214
56.
Which of the following is an advantage of using mail surveys when conducting market research
?
a.
Mail surveys take a short time from the point of view of the researcher.
b.
Mail surveys may encourage more honest responses.
c.
Mail survey respondents are not susceptible to biases.
d.
Mail surveys have a higher response rate than personal interviews.
ANS: B
PTS:
1
DIF:
2
REF:
216-217
57.
Net Assets is a regional Internet company that has decided to conduct online research through its business. What
is a major feature of such online research?
a.
People consider it more intrusive and, therefore, results are more detailed for the researcher.
b.
The ease of answering a survey online encourages higher response rates.
c.
It can be extraordinarily time consuming.
d.
It is associated with increased costs.
ANS: B
PTS:
1
DIF:
2
REF:
217
58.
What is introducing a new product into a chosen area and then observing its degree of success is the marketing
research technique known as?
a.
laboratory experimentation
b.
concept testing
c.
test-marketing
d.
observational marketing
ANS: C
PTS:
1
DIF:
1
REF:
218
59.
Which of the following products is the LEAST likely to be subject to test-marketing prior to introduction?
a.
a new brand of low-carb pasta
b.
a new type of Internet service
c.
a new type of debit card
d.
a new car model
ANS: D
PTS:
1
DIF:
2
REF:
218-219
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60.Which of the following describes the experimental method of marketing research?
a.
It is the least expensive of all marketing research procedures.
b.
Most marketing research experiments are conducted in the laboratory.
c.
The researcher controls or manipulates a test group.
d.
It is a nonscientific investigation compared to survey research.
ANS: C
PTS:
1
DIF:
2
REF:
218-219
61.
Subway introduces a new line of vegetarian sandwiches in 20 locations in Southern Ontario for a six-month
period. If the product and promotional efforts behind it are successful, the company may launch the sandwiches
nationwide. What type of research is being conducted to determine potential success?
a.
test-marketing
b.
exploratory research
c.
random sampling
d.
focus groups
ANS: A
PTS:
1
DIF:
2
REF:
218-219
62.
Which of the following statements best describes primary data collection methods used by marketing researchers
in Canada?
a.
It can be used without alteration in most foreign countries because they are universal.
b.
It may need to be adjusted when used elsewhere because some methods may not transfer.
c.
It is completely unusable anywhere else because it is based uniquely on the use of English.
d.
It will have become outdated and will need significant improvement.
ANS: B
PTS:
1
DIF:
1
REF:
220
63.
Marc is an entrepreneur who wants to export products to other countries. What is a major source for Marc to
learn about marketing activities and consumers in those countries?
a.
conduct exploratory studies in each foreign country
b.
establish a market research department in each country
c.
contact Industry Canada
d.
join his local Better Business Bureau (BBB)
ANS: C
PTS:
1
DIF:
2
REF:
220
64.
What is a common barrier for Canadian companies doing research outside Canada?
a.
language and cultural issues
b.
lack of an effective research plan and a means of carrying it out
c.
lack of skilled personnel and high-tech hardware
d.
the economics of getting the research job done
ANS: A
PTS:
1
DIF:
3
REF:
220
65.
What is involved in interpretive research?
a.
It involves influencing a customer in his or her natural setting.
b.
It is often used to interpret consumer behaviour in domestic cultures.
c.
It was developed by social networks.
d.
It is a relatively expensive source of primary data.
ANS: D
PTS:
1
DIF:
2
REF:
214
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66.
A marketing research firm has set up a special store where customers are told they may be observed while
shopping. Customer behaviour is observed in this setting, and then the firm interprets the data based on an
understanding of social and cultural characteristics of that setting. What type of research is this firm conducting?
a.
secondary data collection research
b.
interpretative research
c.
controlled experiment research
d.
focus group research
ANS: B
PTS:
1
DIF:
2
REF:
214
67.
Dana is working with a computer-based system that provides a continuous flow of information relevant to his
responsibilities. What system is Dana working with?
a.
marketing decision support
b.
business intelligence
c.
data mining
d.
marketing information
ANS: D
PTS:
1
DIF:
2
REF:
220
68.
What is the outcome of a properly constructed marketing information system?
a.
It makes appropriate decisions.
b.
It provides information instantaneously.
c.
It accurately predicts sales and profits.
d.
It places orders for needed amounts of products at the appropriate time.
ANS: B
PTS:
1
DIF:
2
REF:
220
69.
Tarek is the owner of a construction company and uses a Marketing Information System to provide him with
statistics reflecting the previous week’s contracts. Why should Tarek use Marketing Decision Support System
software?
a.
to determine contract volume and needed levels
b.
to make the appropriate decisions regarding his overall future business plans
c.
to connect him with the top five lumber offers that week
d.
to transform the data into a format that will help him make better decisions
ANS: D
PTS:
1
DIF:
2
REF:
220
70.
Keith is working on a computerized search through one of his company’s massive data files. The purpose of the
search is to try to detect patterns in product sales. What is Keith engaged in?
a.
data forecasting
b.
marketing decision support systems
c.
data mining
d.
sales forecasting
ANS: C
PTS:
1
DIF:
1
REF:
221
71.
What is it called when huge amounts of customer information are entered into a database to be used for data
mining?
a.
a data warehouse
b.
a marketing decision data cube
c.
a statistical database
d.
a data storage base
ANS: A
PTS:
1
DIF:
1
REF:
221
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72.
Julia is focused on finding information about her firm’s competitors. She is looking through published sources,
as well as reviewing her competition’s advertising. What is Julia engaged in?
a.
business intelligence
b.
competitive intelligence
c.
data mining
d.
the Delphi technique
ANS: B
PTS:
1
DIF:
2
REF:
221
73.
A basic building block of marketing planning is an estimate of the firm’s revenue for a specified future time
period. What is this referred to as?
a.
a sales forecast
b.
marketing research
c.
a marketing audit
d.
market growth/market share matrix
ANS: A
PTS:
1
DIF:
1
REF:
221
74.
What do sales forecasts play a major role in?
a.
quality control
b.
marketing research
c.
new product decisions
d.
qualitative techniques
ANS: C
PTS:
1
DIF:
1
REF:
221
75.
Which of the following is a qualitative sales forecasting technique?
a.
econometric forecasting model
b.
Delphi technique
c.
exponential smoothing
d.
trend analysis
ANS: B
PTS:
1
DIF:
2
REF:
223
76.
Carlos, CEO of Fresh Foods, wants a qualitative forecasting technique that is quick, inexpensive, and can be
effectively used to forecast sales in the short run and for new product development. What method should he use?
a.
the sales force composite
b.
the survey of buyer intentions
c.
the Delphi technique
d.
the jury of executive opinion
ANS: D
PTS:
1
DIF:
2
REF:
222
77.
Which of the following should NOT be utilized as short-run sales forecasting technique?
a.
the survey of buyer intentions
b.
the Delphi technique
c.
the jury of executive opinion
d.
the sales force composite
ANS: B
PTS:
1
DIF:
2
REF:
223
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78.
Rather than relying completely on company executives, the qualitative forecasting technique seeks opinions from
outside the firm, such as university researchers and scientists. What is this technique known as?
a.
the jury of executive opinion
b.
exponential smoothing
c.
the Delphi technique
d.
the sales force composite
ANS: C
PTS:
1
DIF:
2
REF:
223
79.
What is the sales forecasting technique called that typically works from the bottom up?
a.
the sales force composite
b.
market testing
c.
trend analysis
d.
exponential smoothing
ANS: A
PTS:
1
DIF:
1
REF:
223
80.
What technique uses mail-in questionnaires, online feedback, telephone polls, and personal interviews with
people representative of present and potential customers?
a.
market tests
b.
quantitative forecasting techniques
c.
survey of buyer intentions
d.
the Deming model
ANS: C
PTS:
1
DIF:
1
REF:
223
81.
What technique uses statistical computations as the bases of sales forecasts?
a.
the survey of buyer intentions
b.
qualitative forecasting techniques
c.
the jury of executive opinion
d.
quantitative forecasting techniques
ANS: D
PTS:
1
DIF:
2
REF:
223
82.
Which of the following techniques are used in quantitative forecasting methods?
a.
exponential smoothing
b.
sales force composite approach
c.
executive opinion summaries
d.
consumer surveys
ANS: A
PTS:
1
DIF:
1
REF:
223-224
83.
If you wanted to use a quantitative forecasting method that could be used to forecast sales of new products, what
method would you select?
a.
survey of buyer intentions
b.
exponential smoothing
c.
test-market forecasting
d.
trend analysis
ANS: C
PTS:
1
DIF:
2
REF:
223
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84.
Landsdowne Dairy is planning to introduce a new flavoured milk drink. As marketing manager, you want to
appraise consumer response to this new product. What procedure would typically be used?
a.
trend analysis
b.
a jury of executive opinion
c.
test-markets
d.
the Delphi technique
ANS: C
PTS:
1
DIF:
2
REF:
223
85.
What is a major benefit of test-markets as a quantitative forecasting method?
a.
They provide realistic information on actual purchases rather than intent to buy.
b.
They are quick and provide salespeople with an opportunity to explain their markets.
c.
They are effective in situations with stable customer demand and environmental conditions.
d.
They are useful for long–term predicitions.
ANS: A
PTS:
1
DIF:
2
REF:
221
86.
What underlying assumption is the danger of using trend analysis?
a.
Trends only last a short time and then change radically.
b.
Trend characteristics remain the same, even if outside conditions change.
c.
A change in the environment enhances characteristic relationships.
d.
Future events will continue in the same manner as they did in the past.
ANS: D
PTS:
1
DIF:
2
REF:
224
87.
Which of the following is a quantitative forecasting method?
a.
the sales force composite approach
b.
the survey of buyer intentions
c.
the Delphi technique
d.
trend analysis
ANS: D
PTS:
1
DIF:
1
REF:
223-224
88.
Hi-Test Cola Company wanted to create a sample that would contain 25 of its regular cola drinkers, 25 of its diet
cola drinkers, 25 of its diet caffeine-free drinkers, and 25 of its caffeine-free regular cola drinkers. The company
did this by stopping people on the street and continuing until it had spoken to enough people to meet the
requirement. Which of the following the sampling methods was used?
a.
Non-probability convenience sample
b.
Non-probability quota sample
c.
Probability cluster sample
d.
Probability simple random sample
ANS: B
PTS:
1
DIF:
3
REF:
212-213
89.
If the United Nations were to bring experts together to discuss the impact of technological change on less-
developed countries, which of the following forecasting techniques would the United Nations be using?
a.
Delphi
b.
Jury of Executive Opinion
c.
Trend analysis
d.
Exponential smoothing
ANS: A
PTS:
1
DIF:
2
REF:
222-223
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90.
Millions of consumers purchase Johnson & Johnson Band-Aid adhesive strips each year. Which of the following
forecasting techniques would be the MOST appropriate for a firm to use?
a.
Survey of buyers intentions
b.
Sales Force Composite
c.
Trend Analysis
d.
Delphi Technique
ANS: C
PTS:
1
DIF:
3
REF:
223
91.
Emily is a custom homebuilder and estimates that last year’s sales were $1,500,000 and the sales growth rate for
the past several years has been averaging 10 percent. On that basis, this year’s sales should be $1,650,000.
Which of the following forecasting techniques is Emily using?
a.
Survey of buyers intentions
b.
Sales Force Composite
c.
Trend Analysis
d.
Delphi Technique
ANS: C
PTS:
1
DIF:
2
REF:
223
92.
In which of the following examples would it be the MOST effective to use a test market?
a.
A new house design
b.
A new car design
c.
A new floral arrangement
d.
A new hamburger
ANS: D
PTS:
1
DIF:
2
REF:
219
93.
Which of the following indicates the frequency with which Stats Canada conducts a Canadian Census?
a.
every 3 years
b.
every 5 years
c.
every 7 years
d.
every 9 years
ANS: B
PTS:
1
DIF:
1
REF:
211
94.
A business to business company has 3 clients that comprise 80% of the company’s revenue. The company wants
to forecast sales for one to five years. Which of the following forecasting techniques would be the MOST
appropriate for a firm to use?
a.
Survey of buyers intentions
b.
Sales Force Composite
c.
Trend Analysis
d.
Delphi Technique
ANS: A
PTS:
1
DIF:
3
REF:
223
Chapter 8—Market Segmentation, Targeting, and Positioning
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1.
How might business products be identified?
a.
as goods and services purchased for use either directly or indirectly in the production of other goods
and services for resale
b.
as goods and services of any kind bought for use in the home, but sold later as used items
c.
as goods and services, such as legal services, that can be bought by businesses or individuals but do
enter into the production of finished goods
d.
as goods and services sold in a finished state for use in the home or the business office
ANS: A
PTS:
1
DIF:
1
REF:
234
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2.
What are goods and services purchased by the ultimate user for personal use called?
a.
personal products
b.
purchased products
c.
consumer products
d.
commercial products
ANS: C
PTS:
1
DIF:
1
REF:
234
3.
Kyle plans to buy new tires for a converted bus his family uses for camping trips. The tires are the same type
used on General Motors commercial trucks and can be purchased from Industrial Tire Company. How are the
tires that Kyle will buy for this bus classified?
a.
as business products
b.
as service products
c.
as commercial products
d.
as consumer products
ANS: D
PTS:
1
DIF:
1
REF:
234
4.
What is the lumber a carpenter purchases to finish a client’s basement known as?
a.
a raw material
b.
a business product
c.
a consumer good
d.
a home-improvement product
ANS: B
PTS:
1
DIF:
2
REF:
234
5.
Generally speaking, what are rubber and raw cotton examples of?
a.
business products
b.
consumer products
c.
fabricated materials
d.
nonpersonal products
ANS: A
PTS:
1
DIF:
2
REF:
234
6.
When one product becomes part of another product that is destined for resale, what is the first product
considered?
a.
a consumer product
b.
a business product
c.
a commercial market product
d.
an industrial market product
ANS: B
PTS:
1
DIF:
2
REF:
234
7.
Concerning market segmentation, which of the following statements is NOT correct?
a.
Only for-profit organizations practice market segmentation.
b.
Firms that practice market segmentation don’t necessarily change their products to meet the needs of
different market segments.
c.
There are too many variables to attract all customers using the same marketing mix.
d.
Market segmentation attempts to divide the total market into smaller groups.
ANS: A
PTS:
1
DIF:
1
REF:
235
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8.
Which of the following basic requirements must market segmentation meet to be effective?
a.
The firm must avoid focusing on non-variables, such as profitability and volume.
b.
The market segment must reflect the population’s changing attitudes and lifestyles.
c.
The company must expand beyond its marketing capabilities to capture growing markets.
d.
The market segment must have measurable purchasing power and size.
ANS: D
PTS:
1
DIF:
2
REF:
235
9.
What is the basis for determining whether pencils are consumer products or business products?
a.
the purpose for which the pencils are purchased
b.
the number of pencils that are purchased
c.
where the pencils are purchased from
d.
the total price paid for the number of pencils
ANS: A
PTS:
1
DIF:
1
REF:
234-235
10.
Which of the following market segments could a marketing organization MOST effectively promote to and serve
based on the segment’s size and profit potential?
a.
the staff of foreign embassies from European countries
b.
baby boomers
c.
captains and crews of sea-going vessels
d.
collectors of classic MG sports cars
ANS: B
PTS:
1
DIF:
2
REF:
235
11.
Which of the following is NOT a common basis for segmenting consumer markets?
a.
geographic
b.
psychographic
c.
competitive
d.
demographic
ANS: C
PTS:
1
DIF:
1
REF:
236
12.
What is a commonly used basis for segmenting consumer markets?
a.
geographic segmentation based on locations
b.
career segmentation based on industry affiliation
c.
national segmentation based on citizenship
d.
institutional segmentation based on membership
ANS: A
PTS:
1
DIF:
1
REF:
236
13.
In addition to population and geography, a researcher might combine other indicators to segment markets
geographically. Of the indicators listed, what would marketers be LEAST likely to use?
a.
income and job growth
b.
migration patterns
c.
average size of the households
d.
product-usage patterns
ANS: C
PTS:
1
DIF:
2
REF:
237 | 252 | 253
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14.
What is one of the two largest metropolitan areas in the world?
a.
Montreal
b.
Tokyo
c.
New York
d.
London
ANS: B
PTS:
1
DIF:
2
REF:
237
15.
Based on the MOST recent census data, where does 68 percent of the Canadian population live?
a.
in Toronto, Ontario
b.
between Montreal, Quebec, and Windsor, Ontario
c.
in 33 metropolitan areas across the country
d.
in Calgary, Alberta
ANS: C
PTS:
1
DIF:
1
REF:
237
16.
How would a geographic area surrounding an urban core with a population of at least 100 000 be classified?
a.
as a census metropolitan area (CMA)
b.
as a primary metropolitan region (PMR)
c.
as a metropolitan statistical area (MSA)
d.
as a census agglomeration (CA)
ANS: C
PTS:
1
DIF:
2
REF:
238
17.
An automobile manufacturer generates approximately one-half of its sales in two provinces in Canada.
What do
these provinces constitute for the company?
a.
its primary consumer market
b.
its core region
c.
its secondary market
d.
its sales region
ANS: B
PTS:
1
DIF:
2
REF:
238
18.
What do pizza delivery companies use to succeed in delivering thousands of pizzas to Canadian homes on Super
Bowl Sunday?
a.
advertising shown during the game
b.
statistical databases and written reports from area managers
c.
motor scooters rather than automobiles as delivery vehicles
d.
a geographic information system that can display location-specific data
ANS: D
PTS:
1
DIF:
1
REF:
238
19.
Which of the following is a characteristic of a Geographic Information Systems (GIS)?
a.
It is very expensive to use because of the high cost of leasing the technology from the military.
b.
It is complicated to use because the data is produced using logarithmic displays that most small
computer systems cannot handle.
c.
It has very sophisticated digital readouts that require three-dimensional colour coding to read.
d.
It assembles, stores, and displays data by location.
ANS: D
PTS:
1
DIF:
2
REF:
238-239
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20.
What is the MOST common method of market segmentation?
a.
product-related segmentation
b.
demographic segmentation
c.
economic segmentation
d.
psychographic segmentation
ANS: B
PTS:
1
DIF:
1
REF:
239
21.
What is another name for socioeconomic market segmentation?
a.
product-related segmentation
b.
demographic segmentation
c.
psychographic segmentation
d.
geographic segmentation
ANS: B
PTS:
1
DIF:
1
REF:
239
22.
Which of the following statements is NOT true regarding socioeconomic market segmentation?
a.
It is easy in foreign markets where income and life-cycle stage are not measured.
b.
It is the most common type of market segmentation.
c.
It is defined by variables that include age, gender, income, occupation, and education.
d.
It is most often compiled through data taken from Statistics Canada.
ANS: A
PTS:
1
DIF:
2
REF:
239
23.
What does the cohort effect describe?
a.
why members of the same psychographic group decide to vote the same way
b.
how Generation X uses its financial power to influence product trends
c.
the predictability of demographic characteristics in analyzing purchase habits, as well as product-usa
rates, and brand preference
d.
the tendency of members of a generation to be influenced and bound together by events occurring
during the key formative years
ANS: D
PTS:
1
DIF:
1
REF:
242
24.
Ford Motor Company surveyed 10 000 customers to analyze their needs and preferences in automobiles. At the
end of the survey, respondents were asked to provide demographic information, including age. Responses
concerning preferences were strikingly similar for each group within a specific five-year age range. What effect
is this a result of?
a.
the income effect
b.
the life-cycle effect
c.
the cohort effect
d.
the global-generation effect
ANS: C
PTS:
1
DIF:
2
REF:
242-243
25.
Which of the following age groups would marketers of life insurance MOST likely target?
a.
teenagers
b.
between 25 and 35 years old
c.
baby boomers
d.
over 60 years old
ANS: B
PTS:
1
DIF:
3
REF:
239
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26.
In terms of numbers, which age group is the largest?
a.
baby boomers
b.
Generation X
c.
9/11 Generation
d.
World War II Generation
ANS: A
PTS:
1
DIF:
2
REF:
241
27.
What greatly attributes to the Canadian population growth and change in Canada’s racial and ethnic make-up?
a.
North American Free Trade Agreement
b.
immigration among some minority groups
c.
shifts in population to urban areas
d.
increasing birth rate for the entire population
ANS: B
PTS:
1
DIF:
2
REF:
244
28.
Compared with other ethnic groups, Chinese Canadians represent the ________ ethnic group in Canada, and are
a more
________ segment.
a.
smallest; homogenous
b.
smallest; heterogeneous
c.
largest; homogenous
d.
largest; heterogeneous
ANS: D
PTS:
1
DIF:
3
REF:
244
29.
How can Chinese Canadian consumers be described?
a.
as trusting in family, hardworking, and thrifty
b.
as having a preference for North American food products and groceries
c.
as being part of a homogenous segment
d.
as more likely to obtain information about products and services from national media sources
ANS: A
PTS:
1
DIF:
2
REF:
245
30.
What does the family life cycle refer to?
a.
a way to apply psychographic segmentation
b.
the process of family formation and dissolution
c.
insights into relationships among age, occupation, income, and housing
d.
the 11 stages of personal growth from infancy to retirement
ANS: B
PTS:
1
DIF:
1
REF:
245
31.
Which of the following is NOT a life-cycle stage?
a.
unmarried
b.
first-child families
c.
remarried
d.
empty nesters
ANS: C
PTS:
1
DIF:
1
REF:
246
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32.
What has been an observed change in family life cycle behaviour noted by researchers in the past decade?
a.
the tendency of unmarried people becoming customers for new homes and expensive furnishings
b.
the tendency of newly married people cooking at home almost every meal instead of dining out
c.
the tendency of “boomerang” children returning home, sometimes with their own families
d.
the tendency of parents with a second or subsequent child buying new sets of cribs, changing tables,
and so forth for each child
ANS: C
PTS:
1
DIF:
2
REF:
247
33.
According to Engel’s laws, what happens as family income increases?
a.
the percentage spent on recreation and education increases
b.
the percentage spent for clothing and household operations increases
c.
the percentage spent for food and household operations decreases
d.
the percentage spent on housing and food decreases
ANS: A
PTS:
1
DIF:
2
REF:
248
34.
Five years ago, Joshua spent 28 percent of his $45 000 yearly income on his bachelor apartment. Today, Joshua
is earning $60 000 annually. According to Engel’s laws, what percentage of income will he spend on his new
apartment?
a.
less than 19 percent
b.
about 28 percent
c.
about 52 percent
d.
more than 71 percent
ANS: B
PTS:
1
DIF:
2
REF:
248
35.
What is a characteristic of using demographic segmentation abroad?
a.
challenging, because many countries do not take regular censuses
b.
standardized, with most countries using the same global guidelines
c.
simplified, due to the wealth of income data available in certain countries, such as Italy and Japan
d.
sometimes worthless, because the integrity of the data is called into question
ANS: A
PTS:
1
DIF:
3
REF:
249
36.
What is psychographic segmentation based on?
a.
the quantitative side of the consumer demographic analysis
b.
the quantitative side of the consumer geographic analysis
c.
the individual’s residential patterns and life cycle preferences
d.
the group’s psychological characteristics, values, and lifestyles
ANS: D
PTS:
1
DIF:
1
REF:
249
37.
What type of segmentation divides a population into groups with similar psychological characteristics, values,
and lifestyles?
a.
demographic
b.
polymorphic
c.
psychographic
d.
parallelgraphic
ANS: C
PTS:
1
DIF:
1
REF:
249
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38.
VALS™ defines eight personality types that impact purchasing decisions. Which of the following set of traits is
NOT part of the VALS matrix?
a.
Achievers and Strivers
b.
Experiencers and Survivors
c.
Thinkers and Believers
d.
Makers and Definers
ANS: D
PTS:
1
DIF:
2
REF:
250
39.
What is the largest segment that values professional and material goals more than other groups?
a.
strivers
b.
devouts
c.
altruists
d.
fun seekers
ANS: A
PTS:
1
DIF:
1
REF:
251
40.
A marketer of a new brand of outdoor furniture wants to know more about the personalities and lifestyles of the
intended consumer market in order to help match its product offerings with this segment’s needs.
What would
be wise to use as a means of achieving this goal?
a.
demographic segmentation
b.
geographic segmentation
c.
psychographic segmentation
d.
geographic information systems
ANS: C
PTS:
1
DIF:
1
REF:
249-50
41.
Why is segmentation by benefits used?
a.
to determine the marketer’s effectiveness in satisfying the consumer
b.
to measure brand loyalty
c.
to evaluate post-consumption
d.
to focus on the attributes that people seek in a product
ANS: D
PTS:
1
DIF:
2
REF:
252
42.
What is the product-related segment of the consumer market that is based on the attributes people seek when they
buy a product?
a.
the price-shopper segment
b.
the lifestyle segment
c.
the expenditure pattern segment
d.
the benefits-sought segment
ANS: D
PTS:
1
DIF:
2
REF:
252
43.
When can product-usage segmentation be an important tool for marketers?
a.
as they attempt to eliminate competition
b.
as they attempt to identify heavy users
c.
as they attempt to reduce costs from 80 percent to 20 percent
d.
as they attempt to increase profitability
ANS: B
PTS:
1
DIF:
2
REF:
252
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44.
Which of the following describes the 80/20 principle?
a.
Market segmentation succeeds about 80 percent of the time and fails 20 percent.
b.
Roughly 80 percent of total product sales come from 20 percent of customers.
c.
Roughly 80 percent of the market segment is tapped and 20 percent has not yet been reached.
d.
Roughly 80 percent of the market can be segmented and 20 percent cannot.
ANS: B
PTS:
1
DIF:
1
REF:
252
45.
What is the product-related segmentation of consumers that is based on the strength of their attachment and
allegiance to their preferred products?
a.
values and lifestyles segmentation
b.
business-to-business segmentation
c.
psychographic segmentation
d.
brand loyalty segmentation
ANS: D
PTS:
1
DIF:
2
REF:
252
46.
What should a firm do before beginning the market segmentation process?
a.
identify bases for segmenting markets
b.
forecast total market potential
c.
forecast market share
d.
select target market segments
ANS: A
PTS:
1
DIF:
2
REF:
253
47.
While researching the idea of opening his own health club, Tomas learned that 90 percent of health club
members are between the ages of 18 and 49. They prefer to exercise with people of their own gender, are more
likely to buy foreign-brand cars, and are urban dwellers. How can Tomas use this assembled information?
a.
in observational analysis
b.
in identifying dimensions for segmenting markets
c.
in forecasting total market potential
d.
in developing a market segment profile
ANS: D
PTS:
1
DIF:
3
REF:
253
48.
What is the purpose of conducting market segmentation and market opportunity analysis in the second stage of
the market segmentation process?
a.
to identify the specific members of each segment and contact each of them directly
b.
to determine the level of resources that must be committed to each segment
c.
to produce a forecast of market potential within each segment
d.
to design a marketing strategy and tactics to reinforce the firm’s image
ANS: C
PTS:
1
DIF:
2
REF:
253
49.
What factor sets the upper limit on demand generated by a particular market segment?
a.
market potential for the segment under analysis
b.
market share held by the firm
c.
geographic dispersion of potential customers
d.
lifestyle characteristics of area population
ANS: A
PTS:
1
DIF:
2
REF:
253
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50.
In the process of market segmentation, what is the next step once market potential has been estimated?
a.
forecast probable market share
b.
determine potential sales
c.
develop a marketing mix
d.
seek strategies to meet the outcomes
ANS: A
PTS:
1
DIF:
2
REF:
253
51.
In the market segmentation process, what can be expected from demand forecasts and cost projections used to
determine the profit and return on investment?
a.
certain demographics
b.
each market segment being considered
c.
the overall population
d.
the general marketing mix
ANS: B
PTS:
1
DIF:
3
REF:
253
52.
Regina is an independent strategy consultant. She has guided her client’s company through the market
segmentation process and has posed the question: “Does the potential for achieving company goals justify
committing resources to develop each or any of these segments?” What stage of the market segmentation process
is the company at?
a.
estimating cost-benefit for each segment
b.
developing a relevant profile for each segment
c.
forecasting market potential
d.
selecting specific market segments
ANS: D
PTS:
1
DIF:
3
REF:
253
53.
What would be the best choice of product to market using an undifferentiated marketing strategy?
a.
luxury automobiles
b.
snack foods
c.
table salt
d.
imported wine
ANS: C
PTS:
1
DIF:
1
REF:
254
54.
From which point of view is an undifferentiated marketing strategy efficient?
a.
It serves the consumer better because the products offered are designed to meet the needs of a specif
group of people.
b.
It maintains control of short production runs.
c.
It captures high profits in small segments of the market.
d.
It supports mass production and promotion.
ANS: D
PTS:
1
DIF:
2
REF:
254
55.What is the strategy that is sometimes referred to as mass marketing?
a.
concentrated marketing
b.
macromarketing
c.
undifferentiated marketing
d.
differentiated marketing
ANS: C
PTS:
1
DIF:
1
REF:
254
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56.
The Gap markets apparel to children, teens, and adults through different storefronts, including The Gap, Gap
Kids, and Baby Gap. What is this practice called?
a.
undifferentiated marketing
b.
differentiated marketing
c.
mass marketing
d.
micromarketing
ANS: B
PTS:
1
DIF:
2
REF:
254
57.
As compared with undifferentiated marketing, what might the firm that practises differentiated marketing
generally expect?
a.
fewer sales by segment
b.
lower total production costs
c.
greater total promotional costs
d.
lower inventory costs
ANS: C
PTS:
1
DIF:
2
REF:
254
58.
What can sometimes drive a company from undifferentiated to differentiated marketing?
a.
competitive pressures
b.
efficient production
c.
homogeneous products
d.
lower promotional costs
ANS: A
PTS:
1
DIF:
3
REF:
254
59.
What is a firm practising when it chooses to target potential customers by postal code, specific occupation, or
even lifestyle?
a.
megamarketing
b.
hypermarketing
c.
micromarketing
d.
concentrated marketing
ANS: C
PTS:
1
DIF:
1
REF:
255
60.
What marketing strategy does Burt’s Bees skin-care products, manufactured with all natural ingredients, use?
a.
undifferentiated marketing
b.
differentiated marketing
c.
micromarketing
d.
concentrated marketing
ANS: D
PTS:
1
DIF:
2
REF:
254
61.
Which of the following LEAST describes concentrated marketing?
a.
It is very effective for large corporate competitors that have marketplace clout.
b.
Firms that wish to focus on multiple segments utilize it.
c.
It is an effective strategy for specialty or unique products.
d.
It is more impacted by shifts in consumer buying habits and other external factors.
ANS: A
PTS:
1
DIF:
2
REF:
254-255
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62.
What strategy is a company using when they choose to focus its efforts on satisfying only one market segment
for profit?
a.
niche marketing
b.
elimination marketing
c.
undifferentiated marketing
d.
designer marketing
ANS: A
PTS:
1
DIF:
2
REF:
254
63.
Why are micromarketing techniques used?
a.
primarily to sell services or other intangibles
b.
to maximize revenue potential of large firms that have abundant financial resources only by mass
marketers
c.
for the sale of industrial goods by vendors only
d.
to target very specific groups or individuals
ANS: D
PTS:
1
DIF:
1
REF:
255
64.
What interactive medium might help micromarketers boost the effectiveness of their strategy by tracking specific
demographics and communicating directly to individuals who are MOST likely to buy that product?
a.
customized direct-mail packages
b.
the Internet
c.
personalized telemarketing messages
d.
fax marketing
ANS: B
PTS:
1
DIF:
2
REF:
255
65.
Which of the following is one of the basic determinants of a market-specific segmentation strategy?
a.
product demand
b.
competitors’ strategies
c.
environmental constraints
d.
organizational efficiencies
ANS: B
PTS:
1
DIF:
1
REF:
255
66.
What is the basis for a positioning strategy that uses the slogan “Crest is a cavity fighter”?
a.
product price/quality
b.
product class
c.
product attributes
d.
product users
ANS: C
PTS:
1
DIF:
2
REF:
256
67.
What positioning strategy would use the slogan “You don’t pay more, you get more”?
a.
price/quality
b.
attributes
c.
users
d.
competitors
ANS: A
PTS:
1
DIF:
2
REF:
256
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68.
What are marketers who apply a positioning strategy wanting to do?
a.
make their product look as much like the market leader as possible
b.
emphasize a product’s unique advantages
c.
make sure they clearly outline the product’s possible applications
d.
talk to specific, known users of the product
ANS: B
PTS:
1
DIF:
3
REF:
255-256
69.
What does a positioning map demonstrate?
a.
which companies utilize undifferentiated marketing strategies
b.
what will remain constant through the entire product life cycle
c.
how consumers view a product relative to competitive products
d.
how to introduce a new product to the marketplace
ANS: C
PTS:
1
DIF:
1
REF:
256
70.
Home Depot introduced a new line of riding lawn mowers. However, the company believed the residence
location of the population in certain areas did not merit carrying the mowers in that population. Which of the
following BEST describes why the company MOST likely made this decision?
a.
it decided to use concentrated marketing
b.
it determined the market was saturated.
c.
it decided to re-position the product
d.
it determined re-segmentation was necessary.
ANS: B
PTS:
1
DIF:
3
REF:
236-237
71.
A company is advertising a new cordless shaver during the Grey Cup and NHL telecasts, enabling the cordless
shaver to become a big success. What was the MOST likely market segmentation strategy used?
a.
Lifestyle
b.
Usage rates
c.
Gender
d.
Household type
ANS: C
PTS:
1
DIF:
3
REF:
238-252
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FUNDAMENTALS OF ACCOUNTANCY BUSINESS AND MANAGEMENT 2
Self-Learning Activity 9
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You have recently been hired as the assistant controller for Stanton Industries, a large, publicly held manufacturing company. Your immediate superior is the controller who, in turn, is responsible to the vice president of finance. The controller has assigned you the task of preparing the year-end adjusting entries. In the receivables area, you have prepared an aging of accounts receivable and have…
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Chapter 5-Assignment
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References
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2. Prepare On Company's statement of cost of goods manufactured for December.
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December 31
Inventories
$ 95,550
Materials
SPREADSHEET
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96,200
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1
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o quise nois
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A Blackboard Learn
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ACCT-1170-017-Fall 2024-Principles of Managerial Accounting
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>
QUESTION 1
Take Test: Unit 4 Homework
Relaunch to update:
Freeman Furnishings has summarized its data as shown. Direct labor hours will be used as the activity
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Raw materials purchased
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Raw materials, beginning inventory
Raw materials, ending inventory
15,000
14,000
Work in process, beginning inventory
35,000
0
Work in process, ending inventory
37,000
Estimated overhead
300,000
Depreciation of factory building
50,000
Factory real estate taxes
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7,382
45,000
20,000
Indirect labor
Direct labor cost
Direct labor hours incurred
11,000
100,000
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ہے
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