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SIXTH QUIZ FNCE 238/738 April 11, 2012 WRITE ALL ANSWERS ON THE TEST. IF YOUR ANSWER CONTINUES ON THE BACK, MAKE A NOTE OF IT ON THE FRONT. 30 PTS / 25 MINUTES NAME:_____________________________________________ SECTION (10:30, 12, 1:30):__________________________________
1. From Agence France Presse , March 6, 2012: Peugeot Citroen reveals new share price at 42% discount Auto group PSA Peugeot Citroen revealed on Tuesday that its new shares under a venture with General Motors will be issued at a 42.0 percent discount… The French group, which reported a current operating loss on auto activities last year of 92 million euros, also said that it would recommend waiving the dividend. The firm, which has announced a share issue to raise about 1.0 billion euros ($1.32 billion) to enable US group GM to acquire 7.0 percent of its capital, said that the new shares would be issued at 8.27 euros each. That was 42.0 percent below the price of PSA shares of 14.205 euros at the close of trading on Monday. Under the new issue terms, existing shareholders will be able to subscribe to buy the new shares on a basis of 16 new shares for 31 shares held. a. (4 pts) From this information, what is the theoretical price at which shares of Peugeot will trade after they go ex-rights? [(31)(14.205)+(16)(8.27)]/(31+16) = $12.18 b. (4 pts) Suppose the rights are non-transferable, and that you own 31 shares, and you don’t have any more cash to invest in the firm. What should you do? Need to raise 16*8.27 = 132.32. Ex-rights share price is 12.18, so sell 132.32/12.18=10.86 shares (or more realistically, 11 shares) to raise this much cash, and spend it exercising the rights. If you don’t raise cash to exercise the rights, you’ll simply lose value.
2. From Business First of Louisville , March 29, 2012: CafePress Inc. launched its IPO Thursday, selling 4.5 million shares of common stock at an initial price of $19 per share. The total to be raised by the offering was $85.5 million. The company also has given its underwriters a 30-day option to buy an additional 675,000, valued at about $12.8 million. The company earlier had targeted a price between $16 and $18. With a total of about 17 million shares outstanding, the market value of the company is about $323 million. a. (4 pts) Given this information, do you think the first-day return will be high or low? Explain. At $19, the offering price is above the initial range of $16-18. Empirically, offerings priced above the initial range have had relatively high first-day returns. This is consistent with the upward pricing of offerings being under-reactions to the enthusiasm shown by investors, so as not to spoil their incentive to show enthusiasm. b. (4 pts) The company has given the underwriters the option to buy 675K more shares. Why make it optional? Given the information provided, do you expect the underwriters to exercise this option? Explain. This “Green Shoe”, or “Overallotment”, option allows the underwriter to oversell the offering in the first place, and then either buy back the oversold shares off the open market if demand is weak, or exercise the option if it is strong. So the optionality allows the underwriter to prepare for after-market price support if necessary, without losing money on the oversold shares if it isn’t necessary. Because the offering was priced up from the initial range, and because this generally portends a market price well above the offering price, the expectation would be that the green shoe would be exercised.
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3. (8 pts) Your production company wants to raise money to produce one of two scripts: JFK II (J2) or Lord of the Rings IV: A New Beginning (L4). Each costs $80MM to produce. Everybody knows that one of these scripts is higher-risk and lower-value, and everybody also knows that only you know which one is the higher-risk, lower-value script. Specifically, everybody knows that there is a good state and a bad state, each with probability ½, and that the payoffs are Bad State Good State Lower-risk, higher-value script $60MM $120MM Higher-risk, lower-value script $40MM $130MM and everybody also knows that only you know which is the payoffs of J2 and which is the payoffs of L4. You want to raise money toward the production cost by selling a bond with face value $40MM, to be paid out of the movie’s payoffs, and whatever you don’t raise from selling the bond you need to pay in yourself. Would this be wise, financing this way? Explain. With $40MM in debt outstanding, the payoffs to equity would be Bad State Good State Lower-risk, higher-value script $20MM $80MM Higher-risk, lower-value script $0MM $90MM So the payoff from the higher-value script is ½(20+80) = 50, and from the lower-value script is ½(0+90)=45. So your incentive would be to choose the higher value script. Since the bond definitely pays off 40, it sells for 40, so you pay in 80-40=40 for a payoff of 50, so your NPV is 10. You get the entire NPV of the higher-value script; you can’t do better than that. So in that sense, this would be wise.
4. (6 pts) Recent News: On April 4, UMH Properties, Inc. announced it completed the pricing of an underwritten public offering of 1,000,000 shares of its 8.25 percent Series A Cumulative Redeemable Preferred Stock (the "Series A Preferred Stock") at an offering price of $25.292 per share. The Series A Preferred Stock has a $25 liquidation value per share. To a prospective investor in this security, what are the sources of confidence that he would receive its scheduled payments? Key Points Senior w/r/t Common for dividends Cumulative, so have to make up all dividends before paying anything to common In liquidation, get $25/share before common gets anything OK if you didn’t mention it, but also relevant that preferred holders elect board members if divs fall far enough behind.