Cntrl_F_Midterm
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ENG Environment Sample Midterm Q
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s In a rural area, 10 farmers each have 10 cows that consume the grass on a shared land and produce waste on this land. In this situation, what would the “commons” be? a)
Farmers b) Cows c) Grass d) Waste ANSWER: C If one farmer adds two cows to their stock, by what % are the remaining cows disadvantaged by this greedy farmer? Assume the weight of all cows is equal to 100/# of cows. a) 5 b) 98 c) 9.8 d) 2.0 ANSWER: D In a rural area, 10 farmers each have 10 cows that consume the grass on a shared land and produce waste on this land. If one farmer adds 2 cows to their stock, by what % does she benefit from increased yield? Assume the weight of all cows is equal to 100/(total number of cows). a) 17.6 b) 1.76 c) 20 d) 12.24 ANSWER: A Energy for respiration and energy for growth make up the total _________ energy. a) Consumed b) Available c) Gross d) Assimilated ANSWER: D
Primary producers are referred to as: a) Heterotrophs b) Gross producers c) Biological producers d) Autotrophs ANSWER: D Primary producers of chemical energy are referred to as: a) Heterotrophs b) Gross producers c) Biological producers d) Autotrophs ANSWER: D
When referring to the elements requ
ired for human growth, the “big six” refers to : a) The number of elements required for biological processes b) The most abundantly found elements c) The elements found in all living things d) The number of energy transfer molecules ANSWER: C
A liquid sample has a concentration of iron (Fe) of 5.6 mg/L. The density of the liquid is 2000 g/L. What is the Fe concentration in ppm? a) 5.8 b) 2.8 c) 11,200 d) 11.2 ANSWER: B
What is the concentration (in ppm) of air containing 103ug/m3 CO? Assume 1atm and 25C. a) 0.0899 b) 1.0 x 10^-4 c) 2.52 d) 0.103 ANSWER: A
Which growth models account for carrying capacity? a) Exponential b) Exponential and logistic c) Monod d) Logistic and monod ANSWER: D A population of 100 bacteria in a jar with lots of food grows to one million after 3 days. Assuming exponential growth, what was the specific growth rate? a) 3.0/day b) 2,710/day c) 9.0/day d) 333,300/day ANSWER: A Since the 1960’s, the world birth rate has: a) Increased b) Stayed the same c) Decreased d) Fallen below the replacement value fertility rate ANSWER: C
Mercury in tuna has a concentration = 5 mg/kg. Assume an adult eats 250 mg/day and weighs 50 kg. What is the adult’s dose of the chemical in mg/kg·day? a) 0.05 b) 0.25 c) 0.025 d) 0.5
ANSWER: C Photosynthesis and respiration are examples that belong to which natural cycle? a) Atmospheric b) Biologic c) Geologic d) Hydrologic ANSWER: B
Which of the following is an autotroph? a) a rabbit b) a dinosaur c) a mushroom d) a phytoplankton ANSWER: D Which of the following is NOT a statement of the 2nd Law of Thermodynamics? A. If an irreversible process occurs in a closed system, the entropy increases. B. Energy is neither created nor destroyed.
C. It is not possible to construct a machine which will operate continuously while receiving heat and producing an equivalent amount of work. D. With each energy transfer, energy becomes less able to do useful work. ANSWER: D ? All energy used by living things ultimately becomes ____ . A. food for decomposers B. sunlight C. heat D. carbon ANSWER: C When referring to the eleme
nts required for human growth, the ‘big six’ refers to:
A. the number of elements required for biological processes B. the most abundantly found elements C. the elements found in all living things D. the number of energy transfer molecules ANSWER: C The atmosphere contains 750 Pg of carbon, and human activities add an additional 3300 Tg per year. At what rate is the carbon in the atmosphere currently increasing? A. 0.44 % per year B. 23 % per year C. 0.0044 % per year D. 3.3 % per year ANSWER: A How does the industrial fixation of nitrogen compare to the global biological fixation? A. The two are nearly equal. B. Industrial fixation is greater. C. Biological fixation is greater. D. You cannot compare the two forms. ANSWER: C Bacteria ‘fix’ nitrogen using energy from plants. What compo
und results from this fixation? A. NO2 B. NO C. NH3 D. HNO3 ANSWER: C The biogeochemical cycle of phosphorous is different from those of carbon, nitrogen and sulfur because: A. nitrogen fixation by humans is comparable to natural fixation B. phosphorous does not exist in the gas phase
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C. phosphorous is measured in Tg D. a form of phosphorous dissolves in water ANSWER: B What is the ultimate energy source of hydroelectric power? A. the heat of condensation as water forms clouds B. the sun C. the reaction between hydrogen and oxygen D. fossil fuels ANSWER: B A liquid sample has a concentration of iron (Fe) of 5.6 mg/L. The density of the liquid is 3,000 g/L. What is the Fe concentration in ppm? A. 5.6 B. 1.9 C. 16,800 D. 16.8 ANSWER: B
Combustion of N2O in 2004 emitted 42.8 Tg of CO2e. How many Gg of N2O was this? A. 12.75 B. 0.14 C. 12,754 D. 144 ANSWER: D
The concentration of toluene (C7H8) in soil samples was 5 mg/kg. What is the toluene concentration in ppm? A. 5 B. 5,000 C. 0.005 D. 5,000,000 ANSWER:
A
What is the concentration (in ppm) of air containing 103 μg/m3 CO ? Assume 1 atm and 25°C. A. 0.0899 B. 1.0 x 10-4 C. 2.52 D. 0.103 ANSWER: A An infectious disease has created a pandemic which threatens to cause death to susceptible people in the population. This is an example of: A. a density dependent factor B. a density independent factor C. carrying capacity D. exponential growth ANSWER: A
Which growth model(s) account for carrying capacity? A. Exponential B. Exponential and Logistic C. Monod D. Logistic and Monod ANSWER: D
What is the defining difference between exponential growth and logistic growth? A. the consideration of substrate concentration B. the consideration of carrying capacity C. the consideration of density independent factors D. the consideration of immigration rates ANSWER: B
In the Monod equation, if the substrate concentration [S] was equal to one half of KS, which of the statements would be true? A. Zero growth rate B. Growth rate = ½ μmax C. Growth rate = μmax/3 D. Population has reached carrying capacity ANSWER: C
A population of 123 bacteria in a jar with lots of food grows to one million after 3 days. Assuming exponential growth has occurred, what was the specific growth rate? A. 3.0 /d B. 2,710 /d C. 9.0 /d D. 333,300 /d ANSWER: A
The birth rate and death rate in country X were equal to 3%/year in 1980. Currently, the birth rate is 3% per year and the death rate is 2%/year. What demographic stage is this country likely in now? A. Transition B. Pre-industrial C. Post-industrial D. Industrial ANSWER: D
Considering population demographic transition stages, which trend is first to experience a decline? A. population size B. death rate C. birth rate D. fertility rate ANSWER: B
For a country that is experiencing a decline in population growth, their current population would tend to be concentrated towards which age group? A. Middle age (~25-55) B. Even distribution C. Young (~0-20) D. Elderly (~60-80+) ANSWER: D
Since the 1960’s, the world birth rate has:
A. increased B. stayed the same C. decreased D. fallen below the replacement value fertility rate ANSWER: C 1. Smokers near the entrance of a university classroom building throw their cigarette butts on the ground instead of in proper receptacles. As a result, maintenance staff must be employed to gather the butts and there is insufficient money to equip the classroom in the building with whiteboard markers and erasers. In this tragedy of the commons situation, what is the commons? a. The ground outside the building b. The markers and erasers c. The university's bank account d. The smokers ANSWER: C 2. Four families share a woodlot and harvest mushrooms that are sold to your,eat cooks. The woodlot can sustainably produce 300 mature mushrooms per month, each with $2. If more mushrooms are harvested, only immature mushrooms are available, and their value is $2[300/(total number of mushrooms harvested)]. One family secretly takes more than their share of mushrooms for several months. If they take 80 mushrooms per month, what is the value of their harvest? a. $160 b. $78.69 c. $147.54 d. $157.37 ANSWER: D
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3. Which of the following does NOT include all of the aspects of sustainability? a. People, Planet, Partnerships b. The Triple Bottom Line c. A venn diagram with economic, social and environmental circle sets d. The Millennium Development Goals ANSWER: A (had B as alternate option on answer sheet)
4. A developing country is one which: a. Has most of its population living in cities b. Lacks the income for basic infrastructure and human services c. Is situated in a tropical climate d. Has less than 500 vehicles per 1,000 population ANSWER: B
5. What is the source of CO indoors? a. Cracks in the basement floor b. Incomplete combustion c. New carpets, upholstery and building materials d. Respiration of the occupants ANSWER: B
6. What diameter of particulate matter causes the most lung damage? a. Less than 0.1 micrometers b. Between 0.1 and 10 micrometers c. Greater than 10 micrometers d. Greater than 2.5 micrometers ANSWER: B
7. What are the precursors for formation of photochemical smog? a. SOx and PM b. Sox and NOx c. VOCs and PM d. VOCs and NOx
ANSWER: D
8. What specific class of chemicals are able to attack stratospheric ozone? a. Greenhouse gases b. Chlorofluorocarbons c. VOCs and NOx d. Particulate matter ANSWER: B
9. Which of the following statements is TRUE? a. Indoor air is generally of better quality than outdoor air b. Approximately 5900 deaths occur in Canada each year as a result of air c. Radon gas is the most prevalent air pollution problem in Canada d. Acid rain consists of mainly of sulphuric and hydrochloric acids ANSWER: B
10. Which of the following is an example of climate change adaptation as opposed to climate change mitigation? a. Installing solar panels to reduce burning natural gas in order to make electricity b. Developing mass transit systems to reduce the number of kilometers travelled by single- occupant vehicles c. Designing sewers to accommodate more frequent and intense storms d. Capturing and burning landfill gases ANSWER: C
11. Which of the following does not affect radiative forcing? a. Clouds b. Albedo c. Volcanic ash d. Atmospheric nitrogen ANSWER: D
12. Increasing earth temperatures melt polar ice, which causes more ocean surface to be exposed. As a result more solar radiation is absorbed and the earth temperature increases. This is an example of: a. An intangible benefit
b. The link between CO2 concentration and temperature c. A positive feedback loop d. Climate change mitigation ANSWER: C
13. A rice paddy produces 64 kg methane and 800g of N2O. what is the total emission in CO2? a. 238 kg b. 5.24 kg c. 2.56 kg d. 1.84 tonnes ANSWER: D
14. Which of the following is NOT a generally agreed upon as an effect of climate change? a. Increased precipitation b. Acidifications of the oceans c. A rise in mean sea levels d. Increased global average temperature ANSWER: A
15. Millennium Development Goals(MDGs) are an ambitious agenda embraced by the world community for reducing poverty and improving lives of the global community. The MDGs adopted include 8 key activities. Which of the following is the correct list of the MDGs? a. eradicate extreme poverty and hunger; Achieve universal primary education; Promote gender equality and empower women; Reduce child mortality; Improve ch
ildren’s health; Combat HIV/AIDS, malaria, and other diseases; Ensure global sustainability; Develop global partnerships for development b. Achieve universal primary education; Eradicate extreme poverty and hunger; Promote gender equality and empower women
; Reduce child mortality; Improve children’s health; Combat HIV/AIDS, malaria, and other diseases; Ensure environmental sustainability; Develop local partnerships for development c. Eradicate extreme poverty and hunger; Achieve universal primary education; Promote gender equality and empower women; Reduce child mortality; Improve maternal health; Combat HIV/AIDS, malaria, and other diseases; Ensure environmental sustainability; Develop local partnerships for development
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d. Promote gender equality and empower women; Eradicate extreme poverty and hunger; Achieve universal primary education; Reduce child mortality; Improve maternal health; Combat HIV/AIDS, malaria, and other diseases; Ensure environmental sustainability; Develop local partnerships for development ANSWER: C
16. What 3 measures are used for biomass production ? a. Biomass produced, Energy stored, Carbon stored b. Biomass produced, Energy used, Carbon stored c. Biomass created, Energy stored, Carbon stored d. Biomass created, Energy used, Carbon used ANSWER: C
17. Farmer Alice sprays insecticide on her tomato field, but this reduces the yield of corn obtained by farmer Bob in the adjacent field. The tomato farmer could use a more expensive pesticide that would not have such effects, or she could choose to not spray the tomatoes at the edge of her field, both actions which would result in a lower yield of tomatoes. By doing neither of these alternatives, she is: a. Making use of some intangible benefits of nature b. Falling victim to diminishing returns c. Externalizing her costs d. Increasing the natural capital of the corn field ANSWER: C
18. In 1960 there were 3 billion people on the planet and the global population growth rate was around 2.0%, if this persisted unchanged when would you have expected the population to have doubled? a. 2005 b. 2000 c. 1995 d. 1990 e. 1980 ANSWER: C
19. Which of the following is not a canadian federal environment statue? a. The Fisheries Act b. The Canada Water Act c. The Montreal Protocol d. The Environment Assessment Act
ANSWER: C
20. Germany has a birth rate of 8 per thousand per year, a death rate of 1.0%/year and a net annual immigration rate of 2 per thousand. What is the growth rate of Germany’s population?
a. 0%/year b. Negative 2 per thousand per year c. -0.4%/year d. 2 per thousand per year ANSWER: A
21. A population of 1,019 bacteria in a jar with lots of food grows with a specific growth rate of 1.15d^-
1. How long does it take for the population to grow to 101,900? a. 4.0 days b. 87 days c. 240 days d. 5.3 days ANSWER: A
22. What is the specific growth rate for a population of bacteria that are growing according to the Monod model, where: the maximum specific growth rate is 1.2/h, the substrate concentration is 60 mg/L, the half saturation constant is 40 mg/L, and the respiration rate coefficient is 0.2/h? a. 1.6/h b. 0.40/h c. 0.72/h d. 0.52/h ANSWER: C
23. A ship wrecks on an island and 120 rats are introduced to an ecosystem where they did not exist before. Their maximum specific growth rate is 2.1 per year and the carrying capacity of the island is 35,000 rats. There is no further immigration, and you may assume that k_d is zero. Assuming the population of rats grows according to logistic growth, what is their population after 3.0 years? a. 35,000 b. 65,300 c. 34,900 d. 23,000 ANSWER: D
24. Lithuania has a population death rate of 13 per thousand per year and birth rate of 1.1%/year. In what demographic stage is this country? a. Industrial b. Post-industrial c. Pre-industrial d. Transitional ANSWER: B
25. A major benefit of hydropower is that each additional terawatt of hydropower produced per hour that displaces coal-generated electricity annually offsets 1 million tons of CO2 equivalents. Hydropower has benefits such as: a. Low operation and maintenance costs, few atmospheric emissions and no production of hazardous solid wastes b. High operation and maintenance costs, few atmospheric emissions and no production of hazardous solid wastes c. Low operation and maintenance costs, few atmospheric emissions and production of hazardous solid wastes
d. High operation and maintenance costs, few atmospheric emissions and production of hazardous solid wastes. Desalination can occur by the following ANSWER: A
26. Comparing countries, or regions of the world, the human fertility rate usually decreases as: a. Infant and child mortality rates decrease b. The average marriage age decreases c. Contraceptive use decreases d. The education level of women decreases ANSWER: A
27. Which of the following is true about age structures? a. A country with a pyramidal age structure is likely to undergo population growth momentum b. A country is likely to have no population growth if the portion of the population in middle age is less than the portion in the pre-reproductive age c. Developed countries usually have a pyramidal age structure d. Developing countries usually have a uniform age structure ANSWER: A
28. The Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) has set standards to achieve goal leading to retaining beneficial uses protect human and ecosystem health. Some standards are based on requiring a particular level of treatment regardless of the condition of the receiving water. Other standards are water quality based. In some cases, additional treatment might be required where conditions remain unchanged following implementation of standard technologies. fill in the blanks and select the correct answer. a. Protect human, ecosystem, treatment, water quality b. Treatment, water quality, ecosystem, skills c. Skills, standard, protect human, water d. Treatment, water, ecosystem, protect human ANSWER: A
29. The country of South Africa has a biological capacity of 1.2 ha per person and an ecological overshoot of 1.4 ha per person. Which statement is TRUE about South Africa (SA)? a. SA is living sustainably b. The ecological footprint of SA is 2.6 ha/p c. The required land and ocean to sustain one person in SA is 1.2 ha
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d. The available land and ocean in SA is 1.4 ha/p ANSWER: B
30. Which statement about the energy available to the next level as you move up a food chain is correct? a. At each level in a food chain, energy is not used up in the processes of living and growing b. At each level of a food chain much energy is not lost as heat c. Most of the Sun’s energy is not available to the next level in a food chain d. The stored energy of an organism is not available to the organism that consumes it ANSWER: C
31. Which of the following organism is most likely to be at the top of a food chain a. Rabbit b. Owl c. Wheat d. Grasshopper ANSWER: B
32. Which statement most accurately describes how matter and energy are used in ecosystems? a. Matter is cycled through ecosystems; energy is not b. Energy is cycled through ecosystems; matter is not c. Energy can be converted into matter; matter cannot be converted into energy d. Matter is used in ecosystems; energy is not ANSWER: A
33. To recycle nutrients efficiently, an ecosystem must have a. Decomposers b. Producers and decomposers c. Producers, consumers, and decomposers d. Producers, primary consumers, secondary consumers, and top carnivores ANSWER: C (had B as alternate option on answer sheet) 34. Which of the following is primarily responsible for limiting the number of trophic levels in most ecosystems? a. Many primary and higher-order consumers are opportunistic feeders b. Decomposers compete with higher-order consumers for nutrients and energy c. Nutrients cycling rates tend to be limited by decomposition
d. Energy transfer between trophic levels is in almost all cases less than 20% efficient ANSWER: D
35. Which of the following locations is the largest reservoir for nitrogen in the nitrogen cycle? a. Atmosphere b. Fossilized plant and animal remains (coal, oil, natural gas) c. Plant and animal biomass d. Soil ANSWER: A
36. A 10 kg sample of soil is analyzed for the chemical solvent trihydrochloride (TCE). the analysis indicates that the sample contains 50 mg of TCE. what is the TCE concentration in ppb_m? a. 50,000 b. 5,000 c. 50 d. 1,000 ANSWER: B
37. A potash seawater contains 3.90 x 10^-6 ppm of dissolved gold. What mass of this seawater would contain 1.00 grams of gold? a. 2.56 x 10^2 kg of seawater contains 1.00 g of gold b. 2.56 x 10^4 g of seawater contains 1.00 g of gold c. 2.56 x 10^9 mg of seawater contains 1.00 g of gold d. 2.56 x 10^11 g of seawater contains 1.00 g of gold ANSWER: A
38. A 2.0 litre sample of tap water contains 72 of microgram ammonium (NH4+). What is the nitrogen concentration in mg-N/L? a. 36 b. 28 c. 4.0 d. 56 ANSWER: B
39. The air in a walk-in refrigerator at 4(degrees)C contains 8.0 ppb ammonia (NH3). what is the concentration in units of ug/m^3? a. 6.0 b. 0.00014 c. 49 d. ANSWER: A
40. A sample of oil(density=0.89 g/mL) was found to have dioxin contamination of 2 ppm. How many milliliters of the oil would contain exactly 0.01 gram of dioxin? a. 5618 b. 5000 c. 4450 d. 5218
ANSWER: A
41. An aqueous solution contains 0.011 grams of sulfuric acid and 2,000 grams of water. What is the concentration? a. 5.5 ppm b. 55 ppm c. 55 mg/L d. 0.55 ppm ANSWER: A
42. Symptoms of lead poisoning become apparent after a person has accumulated more than 20 mg in the body. Express this amount as parts per million for an 80 kg person. a. 0.5ppm b. 25 ppm c. 0.25 ppm d. 5 ppm ANSWER: C
43. If you eat the contents of a 6 oz. (180g) can of tuna has 0.20 ppm Hg, how much mercury do you ingest? a. 0.20 x 10^-6 g of Hg b. 3.6 x 10^-5 g of Hg c. 200 x 10^-6 g of Hg d. 3.6 x 10^-3 mg of Hg ANSWER: B
44. It is estimated that 3 x 10^5 tons of sulfur dioxide enters the atmosphere daily owing to the burning of coal and petroleum products. Assuming an even distribution of the sulfur dioxide throughout the earth’s atmosphere (which is not the case), calculate in ppm_m or ppn_m the concentration of SO2 added daily to the atmosphere. The weight of the atmosphere is 4.5 x 10^15 tons. a. 0.067 ppm_m b. 0.000067 ppm_m c. 0.0067 ppb_m d. 0.0067 ppm_m ANSWER: B
45. In a geographical area at sea level measuring 56 km by 24 km by 1 km, the ozone concentration is 0.145 ppm. How many moles of ozone must be removed from the atmosphere to reach a concentration of 0.080 ppm, assuming a constant pressure of 1 atm and a constant temperature of 30 degrees Celsius. (MW ozone = 47.997 g/mol) a. 1.75 x 10^12 mol b. 3.51 x 10^18 mol c. 8.74 x 10^13 mol
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d. 1.75 x 10^9 mol ANSWER: D
46. Which of the following is a persistent (non-degradable) water pollutant? a. Pesticides b. Fertilizers c. Municipal wastewater d. None of the above ANSWER: D
47. Controlling the effects of the nature and culture eutrophication includes which one of the following? a. Using advanced waste treatment to remove nitrogen b. Continuing using phosphate based detergents and other cleaning agents c. Decreasing the use of nutrients chemicals to increase crop yields d. All of the above ANSWER: D
48. Secondary treatment during biological wastewater treatment includes: a. Grit removal b. Solids removal c. Carbon removal d. Carbon removal plus solids settling and removal ANSWER: B
49. Which of the following statement can be used to best describe biological wastewater treatment? a. Oxygen is required for carbon and ammonia removal b. Biological solids are settled and removed c. Carbon containing chemicals such as carbohydrates, proteins and fats and degraded d. All of the above ANSWER: D
50. A community with a population of 12,000 and having a water consumption of 400L/p/y, implements water-conserving bylaws so that its consumption rate in 10 years will be 350 L/p/y. If the population growth rate is 1.2% per year, what will be the change in total water consumption in 10 years? a. A decrease of 1.3% b. An increase of 12.8% c. A decrease of 12.5% d. An increase of 2.0% ANSWER: D
6. Which pollutant exists as a reddish-brown gas and is emitted mainly by burning fossil fuels? a. PM b. SOx c. VOCs d. NOx ANSWER: D 7. Which of the following would e considered point emissions? a. The emissions from an automotive manufacturing facility b. The particulate matter that is transported from a forest fire in a nearby town c. The emissions from the truck traffic on Huron Church d. The emissions that Windsor as an area contributes to the overall provincial emissions ANSWER: A 8. The emissions from an exhaust stack at a manufacturing facility would be: a. Not included in the companies emissions reporting b. Considered scope 1 emissions c. Scope 2 emissions d. Scope 3 emissions ANSWER: B
9. A rice paddy produces 58.0 kg methane and 1200g of N2O. What is the total emission in CO2e? a. 1.81 tonnes b. 5.24 kg c. 2.56 kg d. 59.2 kg ANSWER: A 10. Which of the following is an example of the mitigation measure “increasing carbon sinks”? a. Cap and Trade programs b. Acidification of the ocean c. Reducing the burning of fossil fuels d. CO2 capture ANSWER: B
12. If a country has a birth rate of 12 per thousand per year, a death rate of 1.5%/year and a net annual immigration rate of 5 per thousand. What is the growth rate of the country? a. 0%/year b. negative 2 per thousand per year c. -0.4%/year
d. 2 per thousand per year ANSWER: D
13. A population of 250 bacteria in a jar with lots of food grows with a specific growth rate of 1.50 d^-1. How long does it take for the population to grow to 25000? a. 4.0 days b. 87 days c. 150 years d. 3.1 days ANSWER: D 14. What is the specific growth rate for a population of bacteria that are growing according to the Monod model, where: the maximum specific growth rate is 0.8/h, the substrate concentration is 75mg/L, and the half saturation constant is 30mg/L. a. 1.6h b. 0.40/h c. 0.72/h d. 0.57/h ANSWER: D
15. Lithuania has a population death rate of 13 per thousand per year and a birth rate of 1.1%/year. In what demographic stage is this country? a. Industrial b. Pre-industrial c. Post-industrial d. Transitional ANSWER: C
16. A deadly hurricane was responsible for the death of 500 people in a population. This is an example of: a. Exponential growth b. A density dependant factor c. A density independent factor d. Carrying capacity ANSWER: C
17. Which two characteristics typically describe a developed country? a. Higher infant mortality rates, pyramidal age structure b. Lower fertility rates, uniform age structure c. Higher fertility rates, uniform age structure d. Longer life expectancies, pyramidal age structure ANSWER: B
18. India has a biological capacity 0.4ha/p and an ecological overshoot of 0.5ha/p. Which statement is TRUE about India? a. India is living sustainably
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b. The ecological footprint of India is 0.9 ha/p c. The required land and ocean to sustain one person in India is 0.4ha d. The available land and ocean in India is 0.5ha/p ANSWER: B
19. Which statement about the energy available to the next level as you move up a food chain is correct? a. At each level in a food chain, energy is not used up in the processes of living and growing b. At each level of a food chain much energy is not lost as heat c. Most of the sun’s energy is not available to the next level in a food chain d. The stored energy of an organism is not available to the organism that consumes it ANSWER: C
20. Which statement most accurately describes how matter and energy use are used in ecosystems? a. Matter is cycled through ecosystems; energy is not b. Energy is cycled through ecosystems; matter is not c. Energy can be converted into matter; matter cannot be converted in energy d. Matter is used in ecosystems; energy is not ANSWER: A
21. Which of the following is primarily responsible for limiting the number of trophic levels in most ecosystems? a. Many primary and higher-order consumers are opportunistic feeders. b. Decomposers compete with higher-order consumers for nutrients and energy c. Nutrient cycling rates tend to be limited by decomposition d. Energy transfer between trophic levels is in almost all cases less than 20% efficient ANSWER: D
22. A 10 Kg sample of soil is analyzed for the chemical solvent TCE. The analysis indicates that the sample contains 30mg of TCE. What is the TCE concentration. a. 3000 b. 30000 c. 30 d. 1000 ANSWER: A
23. The air in a walk-in refrigerator at 4*C contains 5.0 ppb ammonia (NH3). What is the concentration in units of ug/m^3
a. 3.7 b. 5.0 c. 3740 d. 20 ANSWER: A
24. An aqueous solution contains 0.02 grams of sulfuric acid and 3000 grams of water. What is the concentration? a. 6.7ppm b. 67ppm c. 67mg/L d. 0.02ppm ANSWER: A
25. It is estimated that 3x10^3 tons of sulfur dioxide enters the atmosphere daily owing to the burning of coal and petroleum products. Assuming an even distribution of the sulfur dioxide throughout the earth’s atmosphere (which is not the case), calculate in ppmm or ppbb the concentration of SO2 added daily to the atmosphere. The weight of the atmosphere is 4.5x10^15 tons. a. 0.067 ppmm b. 0.000067ppmm c. 0.0067 ppbm d. 0.0067 ppmm ANSWER: B
26. Which of the following is a persistent (non-degradable) water pollutant? a. Pesticides b. Municipal wastewater c. Fertilizers d. None of the above ANSWER: A
27. Which food has the highest water footprint? a. Beef b. Chicken C. Eggs d. Milk ANSWER: A
28. What is the maximum total Coliforms concentration specified in the Ontario Drinking Water Quality Standards? a. 0.1 ug/L (microgram/L) b. 1 ug/L c. Not detectable d. Total Coliforms is not included in the standards because there are millions of living organisms in our drinking water. ANSWER: C
29. A community with a population of 12,000 and having a water consumption of 400L/p/y, implements water-conserving by laws so that its consumption rate in 10 years will be 350 L/p/y. If the population growth rate is 1.2% per year, what will be the change in total water consumption in 10 years?
a. decrease of 1.3% b. increase of 12.8% c. decrease of 12.5% d. increase of 2% ANSWER: A
30. The _____________ water footprint refers to the amount of water required to assimilate pollutants to meet water quality standards. a. Brown b. Gray c. Green d. Blue ANSWER: B
31. Which energy source has the lowest water footprint? a. Hydropower b. Wind c. Coal d. Biomass ANSWER: B
32. Approximately what % of materials used in manufacturing end up as waste? a. 94 b. 86 c. 53 d. 37 ANSWER: A
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