Chapters 1-24 ECON

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Chapter 1 What Is Economics? 1.1 Definition of Economics 1) In a world characterized by scarcity A) all goods are free. B) opportunity cost is zero. C) we are not limited by time. D) individuals need not work to obtain goods. E) people must make choices among alternatives. Answer: E Diff: 1 Type: MC Topic: Definition of Economics 2) Which of the following is the best definition of economics? A) the study of how a provincial government allocates tax dollars B) the study of how consumers spend their income C) the study of how producers decide what inputs to hire and what outputs to produce D) the study of how individuals, businesses, governments, and entire societies make choices as they cope with scarcity and the incentives that influence and reconcile those choices E) the study of how consumers and producers meet each other at the market Answer: D Diff: 1 Type: MC Topic: Definition of Economics 3) Which of the following is a microeconomic topic? A) the reasons why a consumer buys less honey B) the reasons why the average price level in a country falls C) the cause of increasing unemployment D) the effect of the government budget deficit on inflation E) the reasons why the labour force in a country decreases Answer: A Diff: 1 Type: MC Topic: Definition of Economics 4) The study of how wages are set for New Brunswick teachers is classified as A) a macroeconomic topic. B) a microeconomic topic. C) economics of social interest. D) economics of private interest. E) normative economics. Answer: B Diff: 1 Type: MC Topic: Definition of Economics
5) Which of the following newspaper headlines concerns a macroeconomic issue? A) Why are people buying more SUVs and fewer minivans? B) How would a tax on e-commerce affect chapters.indigo.ca? C) How would an unexpected freeze in Oxford, Nova Scotia change the price of blueberries in the Maritimes? D) Why is Japan's economy stagnant? E) Why do grain producers purchase less pesticides? Answer: D Diff: 1 Type: MC Topic: Definition of Economics 6) The branch of economics that studies the choices of individuals and businesses is A) macroeconomics. B) microeconomics. C) positive economics. D) normative economics. E) social economics. Answer: B Diff: 1 Type: MC Topic: Definition of Economics Source: Study Guide 7) Each of the following would be considered a macroeconomic topic except A) the reasons for a decrease in the unemployment rate. B) the cause of recessions. C) the effect of the government budget deficit on inflation. D) the determination of aggregate income. E) the selection of production techniques. Answer: E Diff: 2 Type: MC Topic: Definition of Economics 8) Complete the following sentence. Macroeconomics A) is primarily concerned with the operation of individual markets in the economy. B) deals mainly with the economic behaviour of households. C) is the only part of economics to deal with government decisions. D) is primarily concerned with the behaviour of the stock market. E) is the study of the national economy and the global economy. Answer: E Diff: 2 Type: MC Topic: Definition of Economics
9) The determination of prices in individual markets is primarily a concern of A) positive economics. B) negative economics. C) macroeconomics. D) microeconomics. E) descriptive economics. Answer: D Diff: 2 Type: MC Topic: Definition of Economics 10) Which one of the following topics does macroeconomics study? A) decisions of individual firms B) effects of government safety regulations on the price of cars C) the performance of the global economy D) prices of individual goods and services E) effects of taxes on the price of gasoline Answer: C Diff: 2 Type: MC Topic: Definition of Economics 11) Which one of the following topics does microeconomics study? A) reasons for a fall in the price of orange juice B) the effect of a rise in the Canadian dollar on Canada's exports C) effect of interest rates on national economic growth D) effect of the government budget deficit on employment E) determination of total production in a country Answer: A Diff: 2 Type: MC Topic: Definition of Economics 12) Complete the following sentence. Microeconomics is A) not concerned with factors of production. B) concerned with normative issues only. C) concerned with the size of the total amount of income earned by all households in an economy. D) the branch of economics that studies the choices of individuals and businesses. E) concerned exclusively with the role of the government in the economy. Answer: D Diff: 2 Type: MC Topic: Definition of Economics
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13) Which of the following would be considered a microeconomic topic? A) the severity of a recession B) the cause of unemployment in the economy C) the effect of the government budget deficit on inflation D) the determination of aggregate income E) the study of how wages are set for mine workers Answer: E Diff: 2 Type: MC Topic: Definition of Economics 14) The branch of economics that studies the national economy and the global economy is A) macroeconomics. B) microeconomics. C) Keynesian economics. D) positive economics. E) normative economics. Answer: A Diff: 1 Type: MC Topic: Definition of Economics 15) The fact that human wants cannot be fully satisfied with available resources is called the problem of A) opportunity cost. B) scarcity. C) normative economics. D) marginal cost. E) the big tradeoff. Answer: B Diff: 1 Type: MC Topic: Definition of Economics 16) The problem of scarcity exists A) only in economies that lack incentives. B) only in economies that have incentives. C) in all economies. D) only when people are unemployed. E) now but will be eliminated with economic growth. Answer: C Diff: 2 Type: MC Topic: Definition of Economics
17) The inescapable economic fact is that A) there are unlimited wants and limited resources. B) there are unlimited resources, and we just have to figure out how to allocate them. C) capitalists are always exploiting the workers. D) unions are always exploiting firms. E) capitalists and unions cannot work together. Answer: A Diff: 2 Type: MC Topic: Definition of Economics 18) An incentive ________. A) could be a reward but could not be a penalty B) could be a penalty but could not be a reward C) could be either a reward or a penalty D) is the opposite of a tradeoff E) occurs in the macroeconomy but not in the microeconomy Answer: C Type: MC 19) Scarcity confronts ________. A) neither the poor nor the rich B) the rich but not the poor C) the poor but not the rich D) the rich and the poor E) families with incomes less than $25,000 a year Answer: D Type: MC
1.2 Two Big Economic Questions 1) The two big economic questions A) involve self-interest only. B) involve only social interest. C) involve neither self-interest nor social interest. D) do not arise from scarcity. E) involve both self-interest and social interest. Answer: E Diff: 1 Type: MC Topic: Two Big Economic Questions 2) The two big economic questions A) summarize the scope of economics. B) are "what goods and services are produced?" and "how are goods and services produced?" C) have nothing to do with goods and services. D) do not consider for whom goods and services are produced. E) have nothing to do with the way goods and services are produced. Answer: A Diff: 1 Type: MC Topic: Two Big Economic Questions 3) The two big economic questions include all of the following except A) what to produce. B) why to produce. C) how to produce. D) for whom to produce. E) can choices made in the pursuit of self-interest also promote the social interest. Answer: B Diff: 2 Type: MC Topic: Two Big Economic Questions 4) When a firm decides to produce more hybrid cars and fewer gas guzzlers, it is answering the ________ question. A) "how" B) "what" C) "who" D) "where" E) "when" Answer: B Diff: 2 Type: MC Topic: Two Big Economic Questions
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5) When a textile firm decides to produce more silk fabric and less cotton fabric, it is answering the ________ question. A) "who" B) "how" C) "what" D) "where" E) "when" Answer: C Diff: 2 Type: MC Topic: Two Big Economic Questions 6) When a farmer decides to harvest tomatoes using machines instead of migrant workers, the farmer is answering the ________ question. A) "what" B) "how" C) "who" D) "where" E) "when" Answer: B Diff: 2 Type: MC Topic: Two Big Economic Questions 7) Complete the following sentence. Capital is A) money in the bank. B) "gifts of nature." C) tools, instruments, machines, buildings, and other constructions that businesses use to produce goods and services. D) land. E) stocks and bonds. Answer: C Diff: 1 Type: MC Topic: Two Big Economic Questions 8) When a firm decides to produce computers using robots instead of people, it is answering the ________ question. A) "what" B) "where" C) "how" D) "who" E) "when" Answer: C Diff: 2 Type: MC Topic: Two Big Economic Questions
9) To meet increased demand for its good, a firm decides to hire a few high-skilled workers, rather than hire many low-skilled workers. The firm is answering the ________ question. A) "when" B) "what" C) "who" D) "where" E) "how" Answer: E Diff: 2 Type: MC Topic: Two Big Economic Questions 10) An art museum decides to offer tours by having visitors listen to CDs rather than have tour guides. The museum is answering the ________ question. A) "what" B) "who" C) "how" D) "where" E) "when" Answer: C Diff: 2 Type: MC Topic: Two Big Economic Questions 11) To earn income, people sell the services of the factors of production they own. Land earns ________; labour earns ________; capital earns ________ and entrepreneurship earns ________. A) profit; wages; rent; interest B) wages; interest; profit; rent C) rent; wages; interest; profit D) profit; interest; wages; rent E) interest; profit; rent; wages Answer: C Diff: 2 Type: MC Topic: Two Big Economic Questions 12) The fact that some people can afford to live in beautiful homes while others are homeless is an example of an economy facing the ________ question. A) "what" B) "how" C) "for whom" D) "where" E) "when" Answer: C Diff: 2 Type: MC Topic: Two Big Economic Questions
13) The fact that a hockey star earns $3 million a year while a teacher earns $50,000 annually is an example of an economy facing the ________ question. A) "what" B) "how" C) "where" D) "for whom" E) "when" Answer: D Diff: 2 Type: MC Topic: Two Big Economic Questions 14) Complete the following sentence. Entrepreneurship is A) defined as money. B) traded on the stock market. C) categorized as capital. D) the human resource that organizes labour, land and capital. E) categorized as the factor of production labour. Answer: D Diff: 2 Type: MC Topic: Two Big Economic Questions 15) Sue, who has a law degree, earns $200,000 a year, while Chris, a high-school dropout, earns $5.00 an hour. This is an example of an economy facing the ________ question. A) "what" B) "how" C) "for whom" D) "where" E) "when" Answer: C Diff: 2 Type: MC Topic: Two Big Economic Questions 16) A star athlete can afford a garage full of exotic cars while other people can only afford to take a city bus for transportation. This is an example of an economy facing the ________ question. A) "what" B) "how" C) "for whom" D) "where" E) "when" Answer: C Diff: 2 Type: MC Topic: Two Big Economic Questions
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17) Complete the following sentence. Financial capital is A) one of the "gifts of nature." B) the tools and machines that are used to produce goods and services. C) money, stocks, and bonds. D) used in the production of goods and services. E) land. Answer: C Diff: 1 Type: MC Topic: Two Big Economic Questions 18) Which factor of production earns the most income? A) capital B) land C) labour D) entrepreneurship E) the stock market Answer: C Diff: 2 Type: MC Topic: Two Big Economic Questions 19) What choices are best for the entire society? A) self-interest choices B) minority group choices C) social interest choices D) ethnic group choices E) regional interest choices Answer: C Diff: 1 Type: MC Topic: Two Big Economic Questions 20) Self-interest choices are A) those choices which are best for the person making them. B) never in the social interest. C) always in the social interest. D) those choices that are best for all residents of a region. E) choices that are agreed to by majority vote. Answer: A Diff: 3 Type: MC Topic: Two Big Economic Questions
21) The expansion of international trade, borrowing and lending, and investment is A) the big tradeoff. B) industrial revolution. C) corporate revolution. D) globalization. E) antiglobalization. Answer: D Diff: 3 Type: MC Topic: Two Big Economic Questions 22) Which of the following relates factors of production to the sources of income correctly? A) Land earns interest. B) Land earns rent. C) Labour earns rent. D) Capital earns profit. E) Entrepreneurship earns rent. Answer: B Diff: 1 Type: MC Topic: Two Big Economic Questions 23) Which statement about incomes earned by factors of production is false ? A) Land earns rent. B) Natural resources earn rent. C) Labour earns wages. D) Capital earns profit. E) Entrepreneurship earns profit. Answer: D Diff: 1 Type: MC Topic: Two Big Economic Questions 24) A tractor is an example of which of the following factors of production? A) capital B) labour C) land D) entrepreneurship E) energy Answer: A Diff: 1 Type: MC Topic: Two Big Economic Questions
25) Which one of the following is an example of capital as a factor of production? A) money held by Tim Hortons B) a Bell Canada bond C) an automobile factory owned by Ford D) a high school teacher E) natural gas Answer: C Diff: 1 Type: MC Topic: Two Big Economic Questions 26) Which of the following would an economist classify as capital? A) natural resources B) a deposit of silver C) entrepreneurship D) a computer E) land Answer: D Diff: 1 Type: MC Topic: Two Big Economic Questions 27) Which one of the following is labour? A) money B) a carpenter's hammer C) a shoe factory D) a bread-slicing machine E) a singer's voice Answer: E Diff: 1 Type: MC Topic: Two Big Economic Questions 28) Which one of the following would economists classify as land? A) an automotive plant in British Columbia B) rich agricultural soil in Saskatchewan C) an oil rig in the Atlantic Ocean D) an elementary school in Nova Scotia E) automobiles parked in a parking lot in Manitoba Answer: B Diff: 2 Type: MC Topic: Two Big Economic Questions
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29) Which one of the following is an example of land? A) Bono's singing voice B) a computer program C) Lake Erie D) a road E) a dam Answer: C Diff: 1 Type: MC Topic: Two Big Economic Questions 30) Which one of the following is an example of a factor of production? A) an insurance policy B) a donut C) the skills of a welder D) an IBM stock certificate E) a computer game Answer: C Diff: 1 Type: MC Topic: Two Big Economic Questions 31) Which one of the following is an example of capital? A) money B) a carpenter C) pasture D) a bread-slicing machine E) a university professor Answer: D Diff: 1 Type: MC Topic: Two Big Economic Questions 32) The creation of a successful movie illustrates choices made in self-interest that also achieve the social interest if ________. A) the movie has a higher attendance than any other movie produced that year B) the movie is produced at the lowest possible cost, and the movie gives the greatest possible benefit C) the movie addresses a social issue D) the movie is an Academy award winner because an Academy award winning movie is most popular with the movie-going public E) the movie is produced in a country where workers typically earn less than workers in North America Answer: B Diff: 1 Type: MC Topic: Two Big Economic Questions Source: MyEconLab
33) The creation of a successful movie can influence the main questions that economics seeks to answer. Choose the statement that is false . A) The movie influences the how question because the movie can create new production techniques, which can be used in subsequent films. B) The movie influences the for whom question because the people who earn higher incomes through the movie production buy more goods and services. C) The movie influences the when question because movie crews work on many different films and must be available for the entire production. D) The movie influences the what question because it can lead to spinoff goods or a new movie genre, which can result in the production of similar films. E) The movie influences the how question because it can use unknown actors or Academy Award winners. Answer: C Diff: 1 Type: MC Topic: Two Big Economic Questions Source: MyEconLab 34) Choose the correct statement. A) Canada produces more services than goods. B) Canada produces more goods than services. C) Canada produces an equal quantity of goods and services. D) China's production of services is a greater percentage of its total production than Canada's. E) Canada's production of manufacturing is a greater percentage of its total production than China's. Answer: A Type: MC 35) In Canada ________ percent of the adult population have completed high school and ________ percent have a university degree. A) 23; 93 B) 93; 53 C) 93; 23 D) 100; 53 E) 53; 23 Answer: C Type: MC 36) Which of the following is not a factor of production? A) the water used to cool a nuclear power plant B) the effort of farmers raising cattle C) the wages paid to workers D) the management skill of a small business owner E) the land used by a farmer to grow wheat Answer: C Type: MC
1.3 The Economic Way of Thinking 1) Opportunity cost is A) the value of your favourite activity. B) your value of leisure. C) the money you spend on food, shelter, and clothing. D) the marginal benefit from an activity. E) the highest-valued alternative that we give up to get something. Answer: E Diff: 2 Type: MC Topic: The Economic Way of Thinking 2) During the next hour John can choose one of the following three activities: playing basketball, watching television, or reading a book. The opportunity cost of reading a book A) depends on how much the book cost when it was purchased. B) is the value of playing basketball if John prefers that to watching television. C) is the value of playing basketball and the value of watching television. D) depends on how much John enjoys the book. E) is the value of watching television if John prefers playing basketball to watching television. Answer: B Diff: 3 Type: MC Topic: The Economic Way of Thinking 3) Sally has to decide whether to study for her economics test or her accounting test. If she chooses to study for accounting, her opportunity cost of studying accounting is A) studying economics. B) less than the value of studying economics. C) not comparable to the value of studying economics. D) equal to the value of studying economics. E) the future lost wages that will occur if she fails her accounting exam. Answer: A Diff: 2 Type: MC Topic: The Economic Way of Thinking 4) When the government of Alberta chooses to build more roads, the required resources are no longer available to provide better health care facilities. This situation illustrates the concept of A) marginal benefit. B) monetary cost. C) opportunity cost. D) human capital. E) entrepreneurship. Answer: C Type: MC Topic: The Economic Way of Thinking
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5) The concept of opportunity cost A) is relevant only for European countries. B) suggests that individuals can achieve all they want. C) suggests a major increase in public education spending means a reduced expansion in the public healthcare system. D) is relevant only for developed countries. E) is relevant only for developing countries. Answer: C Diff: 2 Type: MC Topic: The Economic Way of Thinking 6) Which one of the following is a necessary consequence of scarcity? A) no choices required B) high profits C) the requirement of making choices D) all wants are satisfied E) low profits Answer: C Diff: 1 Type: MC Topic: The Economic Way of Thinking 7) To make choices, people must A) be able to carry out complex mathematical calculations. B) have unlimited resources. C) be free from government constraint. D) have unlimited access to information at no cost. E) evaluate the values of alternative actions. Answer: E Diff: 2 Type: MC Topic: The Economic Way of Thinking 8) When the government chooses to use resources to build a dam, those resources are no longer available to build a highway. This illustrates the concept of A) a market. B) macroeconomics. C) opportunity cost. D) a "how" tradeoff. E) the big tradeoff. Answer: C Diff: 2 Type: MC Topic: The Economic Way of Thinking Source: Study Guide
9) What is the definition of marginal benefit? A) the cost of an increase in an activity B) the sum of benefit and cost that arises from an increase in an activity C) the cost of a decrease in an activity D) the benefit that arises from an increase in an activity E) the benefit that arises from a decrease in an activity Answer: D Diff: 2 Type: MC Topic: The Economic Way of Thinking 10) When asked in an interview what she missed the most because of the time she spent training for the Olympics, a rower, who lived on her own, answered "a normal social life." She also revealed that she had given up a job that paid $30,000 per year to train fulltime. She received a grant of $8,000 per year from Sport Canada, but this failed to cover all her training expenses. Her food and rent were $5,000 per year and training expenses were $12,000 per year. Aside from the value of a normal social life, what is the annual opportunity cost, expressed in dollars, to this rower of "Going for Gold"? A) $25,000 B) $4,000 C) $30,000 D) $39,000 E) $34,000 Answer: E Diff: 3 Type: MC Topic: The Economic Way of Thinking 11) Saskatchewan had more hospitals than Ontario, despite having one-tenth the population. The Saskatchewan government closed many of these hospitals in spite of widespread local protests. Which one of the following arguments is true? A) Since hospitals have positive benefits, they should never be closed. B) If Saskatchewan had more hospitals than Ontario, it must have had too many hospitals. C) The Saskatchewan government must have thought the marginal benefit from one of these hospitals exceeded its marginal cost. D) The Saskatchewan government must have thought the marginal benefit from one of these hospitals was less then its marginal cost. E) The communities where these hospitals existed bore no costs from these decisions, because they did not pay for any of the hospital operating costs. Answer: D Diff: 3 Type: MC Topic: The Economic Way of Thinking
12) "There can be too much of a good thing." This statement suggests that A) choices made in self-interest cannot be applied to many economic decisions. B) a good may be produced to the point where its marginal cost exceeds its marginal benefit. C) certain goods and services such as education and health care are inherently desirable and should be produced regardless of costs and benefits. D) a good may be produced to the point where its marginal benefit exceeds its marginal cost. E) a good may be produced to the point where its marginal benefit is equal to its marginal cost. Answer: B Diff: 2 Type: MC Topic: The Economic Way of Thinking 13) Which of the following sayings best describes opportunity cost? A) "Make hay while the sun shines." B) "Love of money is the root of all evil." C) "Boldly go where no one has gone before." D) "There's no such thing as a free lunch." E) "Baseball has been very good to me." Answer: D Diff: 2 Type: MC Topic: The Economic Way of Thinking Source: Study Guide 14) If you take an additional class this term, you can graduate earlier. This is an example of A) opportunity cost. B) total cost. C) the pursuit social interest. D) marginal benefit. E) social cost. Answer: D Diff: 2 Type: MC Topic: The Economic Way of Thinking 15) Marginal benefit is the A) total benefit from an activity. B) additional benefit from a decrease in an activity. C) additional benefit from an increase in an activity. D) opportunity cost of a decrease in an activity. E) opportunity cost of an increase in an activity. Answer: C Diff: 1 Type: MC Topic: The Economic Way of Thinking Source: Study Guide
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16) Complete the following sentence. Marginal cost is A) the total cost of an activity. B) the cost of a decrease in an activity. C) the cost of an increase in an activity. D) the opportunity cost of a decrease in an activity. E) equal to marginal benefit. Answer: C Diff: 1 Type: MC Topic: The Economic Way of Thinking 17) The big tradeoff is the tradeoff between A) taxes and transfers. B) equality and efficiency. C) current consumption and a higher future standard of living. D) guns and butter. E) personal security and private property. Answer: B Diff: 1 Type: MC Topic: The Economic Way of Thinking Source: Study Guide 18) Monika will choose to eat a seventh pizza slice if A) the marginal benefit from the seventh slice is greater than its marginal cost. B) the marginal benefit from the seventh slice is less than its marginal cost. C) the total benefit from all seven slices is greater than their total cost. D) the total benefit from all seven slices is less than their total cost. E) she has enough money to pay for it. Answer: A Diff: 2 Type: MC Topic: The Economic Way of Thinking Source: Study Guide 19) Before starring as Tony Stark in Iron Man , Robert Downey Jr. had played in 45 movies that had average first-weekend box office revenues of a bit less than $5 million. Iron Man grossed $102 million in its first weekend. The success of Iron Man ________ the opportunity cost of hiring Robert Downey Jr. Movie producers now have ________ incentive to hire Robert Downey Jr. A) increases; less B) decreases; less C) decreases; more D) increases; more E) decreases; zero Answer: D Diff: 1 Type: MC Topic: The Economic Way of Thinking Source: MyEconLab
20) The night before a history test, you decide to go to the movies instead of reviewing your notes. You get 60 percent on your test compared with the 75 percent that you normally score. You ________ a tradeoff ________, and the opportunity cost of your evening at the movies was ________. A) faced; between a higher test score and an evening at the movies; the 15 percent fall in your grade B) did not face; because your roommates agreed you should go to the movies and not study; zero C) did not face; because you made the best choice; zero D) faced; between a higher test score and an evening at the movies; the mark of 60 percent on your test E) did not face; most students get 60 percent on history tests; the mark of 60 percent on your test Answer: A Diff: 1 Type: MC Topic: The Economic Way of Thinking Source: MyEconLab 21) A university decides to change its late night bus service between the campus and student housing from a fare-based service to a free service. This statement means that the incentive to ride the bus ________ and the opportunity cost of a bus ride ________. The university's decision is a ________ decision. A) changes; decreases; microeconomic B) changes; decreases; macroeconomic C) remains the same; remains the same; macroeconomic D) remains the same; remains the same; microeconomic E) changes; increases; microeconomic Answer: A Diff: 1 Type: MC Topic: The Economic Way of Thinking Source: MyEconLab
Use the information below to answer the following question. Fact 1.1.1 Costs Soar for London Olympics The regeneration of East London, the site of the 2012 Olympic Games, is set to add extra £1.5 billion to taxpayers' bill. The Times , London, July 6, 2006 22) Refer to Fact 1.1.1. The cost of regenerating East London ________ an opportunity cost of hosting the 2012 Olympic Games ________. A) is not; because few people attending the 2012 Olympics will spend much time outside Olympic venues B) is; if the costs of the East London regeneration is equal to a significant percentage of the total amount spent by London taxpayers to host the 2012 Olympics C) is; if the regeneration of East London would not occur unless London hosted the 2012 Olympics D) is not; because regenerating East London is an unnecessary expense E) is; if the property taxes of people living in East London increase Answer: C Diff: 1 Type: MC Topic: The Economic Way of Thinking Source: MyEconLab 23) You have the choice of going on vacation to Florida for one week, staying at work for the week, or spending the week doing fix-up projects around your house. If you decide to go to Florida, the opportunity cost of the trip is ________. A) working and doing fix-up projects B) working or doing fix-up projects, depending on which you would have done otherwise C) working, because you would be giving up dollars D) nothing because you will enjoy the trip to Florida E) variable depending on the weather you leave behind in Canada Answer: B Type: MC 24) Laura is a manager for HP. When Laura must decide whether to produce a few additional printers, she is choosing at the margin when she compares ________. A) the total revenue from sales of printers to the total cost of producing all the printers B) the extra revenue from selling a few additional printers to the extra costs of producing the printers C) the extra revenue from selling a few additional printers to the average cost of producing the additional printers D) the revenue from selling HP's printers as compared to printers from competing companies, such as Lexmark E) the cost of producing HP's printers as compared to printers from competing companies, such as Lexmark Answer: B
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Type: MC 25) Which of the following creates an incentive to increase the amount of an activity? A) an increase in the marginal cost of the activity and a decrease in the marginal benefit from the activity B) a decrease in the marginal cost of the activity and an increase in the marginal benefit from the activity C) constant marginal cost and constant marginal benefit from the activity D) an increase in the marginal cost of the activity and an equal increase in the marginal benefit from the activity E) a decrease in the marginal cost of the activity and an equal decrease in the marginal benefit from the activity Answer: B Type: MC
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1.4 Economics as Social Science and Policy Tool 1) Statements about "what ought to be" are called A) positive statements. B) normative statements. C) economic statements. D) scientific statements. E) hypotheses. Answer: B Diff: 1 Type: MC Topic: Economics as Social Science and Policy Tool 2) Statements about "what is" are called A) positive statements. B) normative statements. C) economic statements. D) scientific statements. E) hypotheses. Answer: A Diff: 1 Type: MC Topic: Economics as Social Science and Policy Tool 3) Which of the following statements is normative? A) Scientists should not make normative statements. B) Warts are caused by handling toads. C) As e-book prices fall, people buy more of them. D) If income increases, sales of luxury goods fall. E) There is more caffeine in a cup of tea than in a cup of coffee. Answer: A Diff: 2 Type: MC Topic: Economics as Social Science and Policy Tool Source: Study Guide 4) A positive statement is A) about what ought to be. B) about what is. C) always true. D) capable of evaluation as true or false by observation and measurement. E) B and D. Answer: E Diff: 1 Type: MC Topic: Economics as Social Science and Policy Tool Source: Study Guide
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5) A positive statement is A) always true. B) always false. C) about what ought to be. D) what is currently believed about the way the world operates. E) an opinion that cannot be verified. Answer: D Diff: 1 Type: MC Topic: Economics as Social Science and Policy Tool 6) A normative statement is A) about what should be. B) about what is. C) always true. D) always false. E) capable of evaluation, as true or false, by observation and measurement. Answer: A Diff: 1 Type: MC Topic: Economics as Social Science and Policy Tool 7) "The rich should face higher income tax rates than the poor." This is an example of A) a normative statement. B) a positive statement. C) a negative statement. D) economic reasoning. E) neither a normative nor a positive statement. Answer: A Diff: 2 Type: MC Topic: Economics as Social Science and Policy Tool 8) Which of the following is an example of a positive statement? A) Canada should cut back on its use of carbon-based fuels such as coal and oil. B) Increasing the minimum wage results in more unemployment. C) Every Canadian should have equal access to health care. D) The Bank of Canada ought to cut the interest rate. E) Canada should have lower tax rates for wealthier Canadians. Answer: B Diff: 2 Type: MC Topic: Economics as Social Science and Policy Tool
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9) Complete the following sentence. Economic models A) do not answer questions about the economic world. B) include most of the details of the economic world. C) describe some aspect of the economic world, but include only those features needed for the purpose at hand. D) answer questions that arise from normative statements. E) were first developed in the 1970s. Answer: C Diff: 2 Type: MC Topic: Economics as Social Science and Policy Tool 10) The scientific purpose of simplifying assumptions in an economic model is to A) avoid confronting difficult issues. B) eliminate the need for further testing of the implications of the model. C) abstract from the complexities of the real world those issues that are not important for the issues under examination. D) eliminate the possibility of personal bias in the model. E) add necessary hypotheses to the problem. Answer: C Diff: 2 Type: MC Topic: Economics as Social Science and Policy Tool 11) Model A is superior to model B if A) it contains more real world detail than model B . B) it contains fewer unrealistic assumptions than model B . C) its predictions correspond more closely to the facts than the predictions of model B . D) it is preferred by a majority of researchers in a public opinion poll. E) it is scientifically "elegant." Answer: C Diff: 2 Type: MC Topic: Economics as Social Science and Policy Tool 12) In choosing among alternative models, economists generally have the strongest preference for models that A) have assumptions that are close to exact replicas of reality. B) are detailed and complex, with every available fact and figure included. C) have few assumptions and are as simple as possible, even if they cannot predict very well. D) predict better than any other that is available. E) have assumptions that are complicated. Answer: D Type: MC Topic: Economics as Social Science and Policy Tool
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13) A normative statement is a statement regarding A) what is usually the case. B) the assumptions of an economic model. C) what ought to be. D) the predictions of an economic model. E) what is. Answer: C Diff: 1 Type: MC Topic: Economics as Social Science and Policy Tool Source: Study Guide 14) "The rich face higher income tax rates than the poor" is an example of a A) a normative statement. B) a positive statement. C) a predictive statement. D) a theoretical statement. E) an analytical statement. Answer: B Diff: 1 Type: MC Topic: Economics as Social Science and Policy Tool 15) An economic model is tested by A) examining the realism of its assumptions. B) comparing its predictions with the facts. C) comparing its complexity to other models that deal with similar issues. D) the Testing Committee of the Canadian Economic Association. E) comparing its descriptions and examining the realism of its assumptions. Answer: B Diff: 2 Type: MC Topic: Economics as Social Science and Policy Tool 16) Which of the following is a positive statement? A) Low rents restrict the supply of housing. B) Low rents are better for a city than high rents. C) Housing costs too much. D) Owners of apartment buildings ought to be free to charge whatever rent they want. E) Government should control the rents that apartment owners charge. Answer: A Diff: 2 Type: MC Topic: Economics as Social Science and Policy Tool Source: Study Guide
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17) "The rich face higher income tax rates than the poor, which is not good since it is the rich who provide jobs for the poor." This is an example of A) a normative statement. B) a positive statement. C) a negative statement. D) a theoretical statement. E) a descriptive statement. Answer: A Diff: 2 Type: MC Topic: Economics as Social Science and Policy Tool 18) An economic model is A) tested by examining the realism of its assumptions. B) useful if it predicts well, even if its assumptions are not realistic. C) tested by the Testing Committee of the Canadian Economic Association. D) not useful unless it predicts with 100 percent accuracy. E) not useful because it simplifies real problems. Answer: B Diff: 1 Type: MC Topic: Economics as Social Science and Policy Tool 19) Select the best statement about economic models. A) An economic model must always be correct in its predictions or it must be discarded. B) An economic model is evaluated based on the realism of its assumptions. C) An economic model should not generate predictions about actual events in the real world, since it discusses only abstract events. D) An economic model will be discarded if its predictions are often in conflict with the facts. E) Economic models are all false. Answer: D Diff: 2 Type: MC Topic: Economics as Social Science and Policy Tool 20) To disentangle cause and effect, economists use economic models and use ________ to test the predictions of those models. A) the what , how , and for whom questions B) positive statements and normative statements C) personal economic policy, business economic policy, and government economic policy D) natural experiments, statistical investigations, and economic experiments E) marginal benefit and marginal cost Answer: D Diff: 2 Type: MC Topic: Economics as Social Science and Policy Tool Source: MyEconLab
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21) Which of the following statements are positive? 1. The federal government should increase production of biofuels. 2. Air travel has increased since September 11. 3. The greatest number of accidents are caused by drunk drivers. 4. We ought to have a cure for cancer. A) statements 1 and 4 are positive B) statements 2 and 3 are positive C) statements 1 and 2 are positive D) statements 3 and 4 are positive E) statements 2 and 4 are positive Answer: B Diff: 2 Type: MC Topic: Economics as Social Science and Policy Tool Source: MyEconLab 22) Which of the following statements are true regarding "positive" statements? I. They describe what "ought to be." II. They describe what is believed about how the world appears. III. They can be tested as to their truthfulness. A) I and II B) II and III C) I and III D) I, II and III E) None of the statements are true. Answer: B Type: MC 23) Which of the following is a normative statement? A) Next year's inflation rate will be under 4 percent. B) Consumers will buy more gasoline over the December holiday period than they bought during the summer holiday period even if the price of gas is 10 cents a litre higher than it was during the summer. C) Government cuts in welfare spending impose an unfair hardship on the poor. D) A wheat shortage or surplus is always the result of federal government policies. E) Hurricane Irene caused more damage in the United States than Hurricane Katrina. Answer: C Type: MC Chapter 3 Demand and Supply 3.1 Markets and Prices 1) The relative price of a good is all of the following except A) the ratio of one price to another. B) an opportunity cost. C) the money price of the good divided by a price index. D) the same as the money price of a good.
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E) determined in a market. Answer: D Diff: 2 Type: MC Topic: Markets and Prices 2) How many sides does a market have? A) one side - buyers B) one side - sellers C) two sides - buyers and sellers D) three sides - buyers, sellers, and the government E) two sides - domestic and foreign Answer: C Diff: 1 Type: MC Topic: Markets and Prices 3) Which market is an example of a market for goods? A) labour market B) haircut market C) manufactured input market D) apple market E) energy market Answer: D Diff: 1 Type: MC Topic: Markets and Prices 4) Which market is an example of a market for services? A) orange market B) tennis lessons market C) manufactured input market D) energy market E) labour market Answer: B Diff: 1 Type: MC Topic: Markets and Prices
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5) Which market is an example of a resource market? A) furniture market B) apple market C) automobile market D) haircut market E) labour market Answer: E Diff: 1 Type: MC Topic: Markets and Prices 6) The demand and supply model determines A) relative prices. B) money prices. C) supply prices. D) demand prices. E) absolute prices. Answer: A Diff: 1 Type: MC Topic: Markets and Prices Use the table below to answer the following questions. Table 3.1.1 7) Refer to Table 3.1.1. In 2010, the relative price of coffee in terms of tea is A) 1.25. B) 1.10. C) 1.00. D) 0.88. E) 1.14. Answer: E Diff: 2 Type: MC Topic: Markets and Prices
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8) Refer to Table 3.1.1. In 2012, the relative price of coffee in terms of cola is A) 1.25. B) 1.00. C) 0.67. D) 1.56. E) unknown without more information. Answer: A Diff: 2 Type: MC Topic: Markets and Prices 9) Refer to Table 3.1.1. In 2012, the relative price of cola in terms of tea is A) 1.00. B) 1.20. C) 0.83. D) 1.25. E) unknown without more information. Answer: C Diff: 2 Type: MC Topic: Markets and Prices 10) Refer to Table 3.1.1. Between 2010 and 2011, the price of coffee relative to the price of tea ________ while the price of coffee relative to the price of cola ________. A) rose; rose B) rose; fell C) fell; rose D) fell; fell E) fell; stayed constant Answer: B Diff: 2 Type: MC Topic: Markets and Prices 11) Refer to Table 3.1.1. Between 2011 and 2012, the price of coffee relative to the price of tea ________ while the price of coffee relative to the price of cola ________. A) rose; rose B) rose; fell C) fell; rose D) fell; fell E) fell; stayed constant Answer: D Diff: 2 Type: MC Topic: Markets and Prices
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12) A market where no single buyer or seller can influence the price is A) a buyer's market. B) a seller's market. C) a competitive market. D) an output market. E) an input market. Answer: C Diff: 1 Type: MC Topic: Markets and Prices 13) A relative price is A) the ratio of one price to another. B) an opportunity cost. C) a quantity of a "basket" of goods and services forgone. D) determined by demand and supply. E) all of the above. Answer: E Diff: 2 Type: MC Topic: Markets and Prices Source: Study Guide 14) William Gregg owned a mill in South Carolina. In December 1862, he placed a notice in the Edgehill Advertister announcing his willingness to exchange cloth for food and other items. Here is an extract: 1 yard of cloth for 1 pound of bacon 2 yards of cloth for 1 pound of butter 4 yards of cloth for 1 pound of wool 8 yards of cloth for 1 bushel of salt If the money price of bacon was 20¢ a pound and the money price of salt was $2.00 a bushel, people would ________. A) buy bacon and trade it for cloth because they could buy 8 yards of cloth for only $1.60, and use that cloth to obtain a bushel of salt B) not buy bacon and trade it for cloth because they would have to buy 8 yards of cloth for $1.60 and then give Mr. Gregg an extra $0.40 to buy a bushel of salt C) buy bacon and trade it for cloth and then trade the cloth for salt because salt is more important for life than either cloth or bacon D) not buy bacon and trade it for cloth because the relative price of 1 bushel of salt is only 1/8 yard of cloth E) buy bacon and trade it for cloth because cloth is more expensive than bacon Answer: A Diff: 2 Type: MC Topic: Markets and Prices Source: MyEconLab
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15) The opportunity cost of good A in terms of good B is equal to the A) money price of good A minus the money price of good B. B) money price of good B minus the money price of good A. C) ratio of the money price of good A to the money price of good B. D) ratio of the money price of good B to the money price of good A. E) money price of good A plus the money price of good B. Answer: C Type: MC 16) Suppose the price of a football is $20.00 and the price of a basketball is $10.00. The ________ of a football is ________. A) relative price; 2 basketballs per football B) relative price; 1/2 basketball per football C) opportunity cost; $15.00 D) opportunity cost; $10.00 E) relative price; $10 Answer: A Type: MC
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3.2 Demand 1) The law of demand states that, other things remaining the same, A) the higher the price of a good, the smaller is the quantity demanded. B) the higher the price of a good, the smaller is the quantity supplied. C) price and quantity supplied are positively related. D) as income increases, willingness to pay for the last unit increases. E) the higher the price of a good, the greater is the quantity demanded. Answer: A Diff: 1 Type: MC Topic: Demand 2) Which one of the following events shifts the demand curve for grape jelly to the right? A) an increase in income if grape jelly is a normal good B) a decrease in the price of strawberry preserves, a substitute for grape jelly C) a decrease in the price of grape jelly D) an increase in the price of peanut butter, a complement of grape jelly E) a decrease in the population Answer: A Diff: 2 Type: MC Topic: Demand 3) The demand curve slopes downward to the right because A) an increase in income leads to increased consumption. B) of the law of supply. C) of the law of demand. D) of comparative advantage. E) as income rises, the quantity demanded increases. Answer: C Diff: 1 Type: MC Topic: Demand 4) An increase in the price of ground beef A) increases the demand for chicken, a substitute for ground beef. B) increases the demand for hamburger buns, a complement of ground beef. C) increases the quantity demanded of ground beef. D) decreases the quantity demanded of ground beef. E) both A and D. Answer: E Diff: 2 Type: MC Topic: Demand
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5) An increase in income A) increases the demand for turnips if a turnip is an inferior good. B) increases the demand for turnips if a turnip is a normal good. C) increases the supply of turnips. D) decreases the demand for turnips if turnips have a very low price. E) decreases the supply of turnips. Answer: B Diff: 2 Type: MC Topic: Demand 6) A turnip is an inferior good if A) an increase in the price of a turnip decreases the quantity of turnips that consumers want to buy. B) an increase in income decreases the demand for turnips. C) an increase in income increases the demand for turnips. D) turnips violate the law of demand. E) turnips are a low quality good. Answer: B Diff: 2 Type: MC Topic: Demand 7) If a turnip is an inferior good, then, ceteris paribus , an increase in the price of a turnip will A) decrease the demand for turnips. B) increase the demand for turnips. C) decrease the supply of turnips. D) increase the supply of turnips. E) none of the above. Answer: E Diff: 3 Type: MC Topic: Demand 8) Suppose income increases. Choose the correct statement. A) The equilibrium price of turnips falls if a turnip is an inferior good. B) The equilibrium price of turnips rises if a turnip is an inferior good. C) The equilibrium quantity of turnips decreases if a turnip is an inferior good. D) The supply of turnips decreases whether or not a turnip is an inferior good. E) Both A and C. Answer: E Diff: 3 Type: MC Topic: Demand
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Use the figure below to answer the following questions. Figure 3.2.1 9) Point A in Figure 3.2.1 indicates that A) $1 is the least that consumers are willing to pay for the 4,000th apple. B) consumers will not be in equilibrium if the price of an apple is $1. C) consumers will only pay $1 for any apple. D) if the price is $1, consumers will plan to buy 4,000 apples. E) if the price is more than $1, consumers will buy 9,000 apples. Answer: D Diff: 2 Type: MC Topic: Demand 10) Which one of the following statements best characterizes point B in Figure 3.2.1? A) Producers would be unwilling to sell the 9,000th apple for less than $0.50. B) The most that consumers would be willing to pay for the 9,000th apple is $0.50. C) At a price of $0.50, consumers will be unwilling to buy any apples. D) At a price of $0.50, there will be an apple shortage. E) At point B , the market is in equilibrium. Answer: B Diff: 2 Type: MC Topic: Demand
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11) Given Figure 3.2.1, under what condition are consumers willing to buy more than 9,000 apples per week? A) if the price is above $1 B) if the price is between $1 and $0.50 C) if the price is below $0.50 D) if the price is between $1 and $1.50 E) if the price is $0.75 Answer: C Diff: 2 Type: MC Topic: Demand 12) Which one of the following would result in a movement from point A to point B in Figure 3.2.1? A) a fall in the price of apples B) a rise in the price of oranges C) an increase in population size D) public concern about chemicals sprayed on apples E) a rise in the price of bananas Answer: A Diff: 2 Type: MC Topic: Demand
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Use the figure below to answer the following questions. Figure 3.2.2 13) Which one of the following would result in the demand curve shifting from D 1 to D 2 in Figure 3.2.2? A) an increase in the supply of pizza B) a rise in the price of hamburgers, a substitute for pizza C) a rise in the price of pizza D) a fall in the price of pizza E) a rise in the price of Coke, a complement of pizza Answer: B Diff: 2 Type: MC Topic: Demand 14) Refer to Figure 3.2.2. Which one of the following represents a decrease in quantity demanded? A) a shift from D 1 to D 2 B) a shift from D 2 to D 1 C) a movement from A to B D) a movement from B to A E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 2 Type: MC Topic: Demand
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15) Refer to Figure 3.2.2. If consumers' income increases, A) the quantity of pizzas demanded increases. B) the demand curve for pizzas shifts from D 1 to D 2 if a pizza is a normal good. C) the supply of pizzas increases. D) the quantity of pizzas supplied decreases. E) a movement from point A to point B on D 1 occurs. Answer: B Diff: 2 Type: MC Topic: Demand 16) The price of good A rises, and the demand curve for good B shifts leftward. We can conclude that A) A and B are substitutes. B) A and B are complements. C) A and B are complements in production. D) B is an inferior good. E) B is a normal good. Answer: B Diff: 2 Type: MC Topic: Demand 17) The price of good X falls and the demand for good Y decreases. We can conclude that A) X and Y are complements. B) X and Y are independent of each other. C) X is an inferior good. D) X is a normal good. E) X and Y are substitutes. Answer: E Diff: 2 Type: MC Topic: Demand 18) Which one of the following would lead to an increase in the demand for hamburgers? A) a new fad hamburger diet B) a decrease in population size C) a rise in the price of French fries, a complement of hamburgers D) a decrease in consumer income if hamburgers are a normal good E) a news report that hamburgers can cause skin diseases Answer: A Diff: 2 Type: MC Topic: Demand
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19) Which of the following "other things" are not held constant along a demand curve? A) income B) prices of related goods C) the price of the good itself D) preferences E) expected future income and credit Answer: C Diff: 1 Type: MC Topic: Demand Source: Study Guide 20) Good A is a normal good if A) a rise in the price of a complement causes the demand for A to decrease. B) income and the demand for A are negatively related. C) a rise in the price of a substitute causes the demand for A to increase. D) the demand for A increases when income rises. E) good A satisfies the law of demand. Answer: D Diff: 1 Type: MC Topic: Demand 21) A decrease in quantity demanded is represented by a A) rightward shift of the supply curve. B) rightward shift of the demand curve. C) leftward shift of the demand curve. D) movement upward and to the left along the demand curve. E) movement downward and to the right along the demand curve. Answer: D Diff: 1 Type: MC Topic: Demand Source: Study Guide 22) Some sales managers are talking shop. Which of the following quotations refers to a movement along the demand curve? A) "Since our competitors raised their prices, our sales have doubled." B) "It has been an unusually mild winter; our sales of wool scarves are down from last year." C) "We decided to cut our prices, and the increase in our sales has been remarkable." D) "The Green movement has sparked an increase in our sales of biodegradable products." E) None of the above. Answer: C Diff: 2 Type: MC Topic: Demand Source: Study Guide
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23) Some sales managers are talking shop. Which one of the following quotations refers to a rightward shift of the demand curve? A) "Since our competitors raised their prices, our sales have doubled." B) "It has been an unusually harsh winter; our sales of wool scarves are up from last year." C) "We decided to cut our prices, and the increase in our sales has been remarkable." D) "The Green movement has sparked an increase in our sales of biodegradable products." E) All of the above except C. Answer: E Diff: 2 Type: MC Topic: Demand 24) Some sales managers are talking shop. Which one of the following quotations refers to a leftward shift of the demand curve? A) "Since our competitors raised their prices, our sales have doubled." B) "It has been an unusually mild winter; our sales of wool scarves are down from last year." C) "We decided to cut our prices, and the increase in our sales has been remarkable." D) "The Green movement has sparked an increase in our sales of biodegradable products." E) None of the above. Answer: B Diff: 2 Type: MC Topic: Demand 25) If Hamburger Helper is an inferior good, then, ceteris paribus , a decrease in income will lead to A) a leftward shift of the demand curve for Hamburger Helper. B) a rightward shift of the demand curve for Hamburger Helper. C) a movement up along the demand curve for Hamburger Helper. D) a movement down along the demand curve for Hamburger Helper. E) an initial movement up and then down along the demand curve for Hamburger Helper. Answer: B Diff: 2 Type: MC Topic: Demand Source: Study Guide
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26) Consider the market for cell phones. Suppose the price of a cell phone falls. Explain the effect of this event on the quantity of cell phones demanded and on the demand for cell phones. A) The quantity of cell phones demanded is unchanged and the demand for cell phones increases. B) The quantity of cell phones demanded decreases and the demand for cell phones is unchanged. C) The quantity of cell phones demanded increases and the demand for cell phones is unchanged. D) The quantity of cell phones demanded increases and the demand for cell phones also increases. E) The quantity of cell phones demanded is unchanged and the demand for cell phones decreases. Answer: C Diff: 2 Type: MC Topic: Demand Source: MyEconLab 27) People buy more of good 1 when the price of good 2 rises. Good 1 and good 2 are A) complements. B) substitutes. C) normal goods. D) inferior goods. E) substitutes in production Answer: B Type: MC 28) Oatmeal is a normal good and cold cereal is a substitute for oatmeal. Raisins are a complement of oatmeal. Which of the following increases the demand for oatmeal? A) an increase in the price of raisins B) a decrease in income C) a decrease in population D) an increase in the price of cold cereal E) an increase in the supply of oatmeal Answer: D Type: MC
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3.3 Supply 1) The law of supply tells us that other things remaining the same, as the A) price of gasoline falls, the quantity of gasoline supplied decreases. B) price of gasoline rises, the quantity of gasoline supplied decreases. C) supply of gasoline increases, the price of gasoline falls. D) cost of producing gasoline falls, the supply of gasoline will increase. E) cost of producing gasoline increases, the price of gasoline rises. Answer: A Diff: 2 Type: MC Topic: Supply 2) The supply curve of a good slopes upward to the right because of A) technological improvements over time. B) the law of supply. C) the law of demand. D) the existence of substitutes in production. E) the fact that prices tend to rise over time. Answer: B Diff: 1 Type: MC Topic: Supply 3) An increase in supply is shown by A) a movement down along the supply curve. B) a movement up along the supply curve. C) a rightward shift of the supply curve. D) a leftward shift of the supply curve. E) an initial movement up and then down along the same supply curve. Answer: C Diff: 1 Type: MC Topic: Supply 4) If goods X and Y are substitutes in production, then a rise in the price of good X A) increases the demand for good Y . B) decreases the demand for good Y . C) increases the supply of good Y . D) decreases the supply of good Y . E) might change the supply of Y ; it depends on whether X and Y are also substitutes. Answer: D Diff: 2 Type: MC Topic: Supply
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5) If a producer can use its factors of production to produce either good A or good B , then a rise in the price of A A) increases the supply of B . B) decreases the supply of A . C) increases the supply of A . D) decreases the supply of B . E) both C and D. Answer: D Diff: 3 Type: MC Topic: Supply 6) The fact that a fall in the price of a good results in a decrease in the quantity of the good supplied illustrates A) the law of supply. B) the law of demand. C) a change in supply. D) the nature of an inferior good. E) technological improvement. Answer: A Diff: 1 Type: MC Topic: Supply Source: Study Guide 7) Which one of the following would not shift the supply curve of good X to the right? A) a fall in the price of the factors of production used in producing X B) an improvement in technology used in the production of X C) a rise in the price of X D) an increase in the price of Y , a complement in production of X E) a fall in the price of Y , a substitute in production of X Answer: C Diff: 2 Type: MC Topic: Supply 8) A decrease in the quantity supplied is shown by a A) movement down along the supply curve. B) movement up along the supply curve. C) rightward shift of the supply curve. D) leftward shift of the supply curve. E) rightward shift of the demand curve. Answer: A Diff: 1 Type: MC Topic: Supply
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9) Which one of the following will shift the supply curve of good X leftward? A) a decrease in the wages of workers employed to produce X B) an increase in the cost of machinery used to produce X C) a technological improvement in the production of X D) a situation where quantity demanded exceeds quantity supplied E) a decrease in the cost of capital used to produce X Answer: B Diff: 2 Type: MC Topic: Supply Source: Study Guide 10) Which of the following will shift the supply curve of good X rightward? A) a decrease in the wages of workers employed to produce good X B) an increase in the cost of capital used to produce good X C) an increase in the price of energy D) a decrease in the number of suppliers of good X E) the price of Y , a substitute in production for good X , rises Answer: A Diff: 2 Type: MC Topic: Supply 11) If a factor of production can be used to produce either good A or good B , then A and B are A) substitutes in production. B) complements in production. C) substitutes. D) complements. E) normal goods. Answer: A Diff: 1 Type: MC Topic: Supply Source: Study Guide 12) A rise in the price of a good A) decreases demand for the good. B) creates a movement up along the supply curve. C) creates a movement down along the demand curve. D) increases the supply of the good. E) increases preferences for the good. Answer: B Diff: 1 Type: MC Topic: Supply
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13) If the number of suppliers of good Y increases, then A) a movement up along the supply curve of good Y will occur. B) a movement down along the supply curve of good Y will occur. C) the supply curve of good Y shifts rightward. D) the supply curve of good Y shifts leftward. E) the supply curve of good Y will remain unchanged. Answer: C Diff: 1 Type: MC Topic: Supply 14) A shift of the supply curve for rutabagas occurs if there is A) a change in preferences for rutabagas. B) a change in the price of a related good that is a substitute for rutabagas. C) a change in income. D) a change in the price of rutabagas. E) none of the above. Answer: E Diff: 2 Type: MC Topic: Supply Source: Study Guide 15) Some producers are chatting over a beer. Which one of the following quotations refers to a movement along the supply curve? A) "Wage increases have forced us to raise our prices." B) "Our new, sophisticated equipment will enable us to undercut our competitors." C) "Raw material prices have sky-rocketed; we will have to pass the cost on to our customers." D) "We anticipate a big increase in demand. Our product price should rise, so we are planning for an increase in output." E) "New competitors in the industry are causing prices to fall." Answer: D Diff: 2 Type: MC Topic: Supply Source: Study Guide 16) Some producers are chatting over a beer. Which one of the following quotations refers to a rightward shift of the supply curve? A) "Wage increases have forced us to raise our prices." B) "Our new, sophisticated equipment will enable us to undercut our competitors." C) "Raw material prices have sky-rocketed; we will have to pass the cost on to our customers." D) "We anticipate a big increase in demand. Our product price should rise, so we are planning for an increase in output." E) Both A and C. Answer: B Diff: 2 Type: MC Topic: Supply
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17) Some producers are chatting over a beer. Which one of the following quotations refers to a leftward shift of the supply curve? A) "Wage increases have forced us to raise our prices." B) "Our new, sophisticated equipment will enable us to undercut our competitors." C) "Raw material prices have sky-rocketed; we will have to pass the cost on to our customers." D) "We anticipate a big increase in demand. Our product price should rise, so we are planning for an increase in output." E) Both A and C. Answer: E Diff: 2 Type: MC Topic: Supply 18) A decrease in the quantity supplied of a good is shown by A) a movement down along the supply curve. B) a leftward shift of the supply curve. C) a movement up along the supply curve. D) a rightward shift of the supply curve. E) an initial rightward shift and then leftward shift of the supply curve. Answer: A Diff: 1 Type: MC Topic: Supply 19) Which of the following decreases the supply of popcorn? A) a decrease in the price of popcorn B) an increase in the price of popcorn C) a technological advance in the production of popcorn D) a decrease in the demand for popcorn E) a decrease in the number of popcorn producers Answer: E Type: MC 20) Which of the following shifts the supply curve for good X leftward? A) a situation in which the quantity demanded of X exceeds the quantity supplied of X B) an increase in the cost of the machinery used to produce X C) a technological advance in the production of X D) a decrease in the wages of workers employed to produce X E) a situation in which the quantity supplied of X exceeds the quantity demanded of X Answer: B Type: MC
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3.4 Market Equilibrium Use the table below to answer the following questions. Table 3.4.1 Price (dollars per unit) Quantity Demanded (units) Quantity Supplied (units) 1 1,100 50 2 800 200 3 600 420 4 500 500 5 420 580 6 350 640 7 320 680 8 300 700 1) Refer to Table 3.4.1. At a price of $3 a unit A) the market is in equilibrium. B) there is a 180-unit surplus. C) there is a 180-unit shortage. D) there is a tendency for the price to rise. E) C and D. Answer: E Diff: 2 Type: MC Topic: Market Equilibrium 2) In Table 3.4.1, the equilibrium price is A) $7 a unit. B) $5 a unit. C) $4 a unit. D) $3 a unit. E) $1 a unit. Answer: C Diff: 1 Type: MC Topic: Market Equilibrium 3) In Table 3.4.1, the equilibrium quantity is A) 200 units. B) 320 units. C) 420 units. D) 500 units. E) none of the above; there is no equilibrium. Answer: D Diff: 1 Type: MC
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Topic: Market Equilibrium 4) Refer to Table 3.4.1. The equilibrium quantity is 420 units if A) the price is fixed at $3 a unit. B) the price is fixed at $4 a unit. C) the price is fixed at $5 a unit. D) both A and C are correct. E) none of the above. Answer: E Diff: 2 Type: MC Topic: Market Equilibrium 5) Refer to Table 3.4.1. A shortage occurs if A) the price is $7 a unit. B) the price is $4 a unit. C) the price is $5 a unit. D) the price is below $4 a unit. E) the price is $6 a unit. Answer: D Diff: 1 Type: MC Topic: Market Equilibrium 6) Refer to Table 3.4.1. A surplus occurs if A) the price is $2 a unit. B) the price is $3 a unit. C) the price is above $4 a unit. D) the price is $1 a unit. E) the price is $4 a unit. Answer: C Diff: 1 Type: MC Topic: Market Equilibrium 7) Refer to Table 3.4.1. If the price is $7, then the surplus is A) 360 units. B) 400 units. C) 160 units. D) zero units. E) 290 units. Answer: A Diff: 1 Type: MC Topic: Market Equilibrium
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8) Refer to Table 3.4.1. If the price is $3, then the shortage is A) zero units. B) 1,050 units. C) 180 units. D) 600 units. E) 160 units. Answer: C Diff: 1 Type: MC Topic: Market Equilibrium Use the figure below to answer the following questions. Figure 3.4.1 9) At price P 3 in Figure 3.4.1, A) this market is in equilibrium. B) there is a shortage in the amount of Q 5 - Q 1 . C) there is a tendency for the price to rise. D) equilibrium quantity is Q 5 . E) there is a surplus in the amount of Q 5 - Q 1 . Answer: E Diff: 3 Type: MC Topic: Market Equilibrium
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10) At price P 2 in Figure 3.4.1, which one of the following is not true? A) This market is in equilibrium. B) The quantity demanded is equal to the quantity supplied. C) The quantity demanded is Q 1 . D) There is no surplus. E) The quantity supplied is Q 3 . Answer: C Diff: 1 Type: MC Topic: Market Equilibrium 11) At price P 1 in Figure 3.4.1 A) there is a surplus in the amount of Q 4 - Q 2 . B) there is a shortage in the amount of Q 4 - Q 2 . C) there is a tendency for the price to fall. D) the equilibrium quantity is Q 2 . E) the equilibrium quantity is Q 4 . Answer: B Diff: 2 Type: MC Topic: Market Equilibrium 12) At price P 1 in Figure 3.4.1, A) producers can sell all they plan to sell. B) consumers can buy all they want. C) producers are unwilling to sell any goods. D) a surplus exists. E) both sides of the market are able to carry out their desired transactions. Answer: A Diff: 2 Type: MC Topic: Market Equilibrium
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Use the figure below to answer the following questions. Figure 3.4.2 13) The equilibrium price in the market illustrated by Figure 3.4.2 is A) $2 a unit. B) $4 a unit. C) $6 a unit. D) $8 a unit. E) $10 a unit. Answer: C Diff: 1 Type: MC Topic: Market Equilibrium 14) Refer to Figure 3.4.2. When the price is $10 a unit A) consumers will buy only 100 units of output. B) consumers will buy 500 units of output. C) consumers will buy nothing. D) a shortage occurs. E) the surplus is zero. Answer: A Diff: 1 Type: MC Topic: Market Equilibrium
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15) At a price of $10 a unit in Figure 3.4.2 A) there is a surplus of 200 units. B) there is a shortage of 200 units. C) there is a surplus of 400 units. D) there is a shortage of 400 units. E) quantity will rise. Answer: C Diff: 1 Type: MC Topic: Market Equilibrium 16) At a price of $4 a unit in Figure 3.4.2 A) the equilibrium quantity is 400 units. B) there is a surplus of 200 units. C) the quantity supplied is 400 units. D) there is a shortage of 200 units. E) the quantity demanded is 200 units. Answer: D Diff: 1 Type: MC Topic: Market Equilibrium 17) Which one of the following correctly describes how price adjustment eliminates a surplus? A) As the price rises, the quantity demanded decreases and the quantity supplied increases. B) As the price rises, the quantity demanded increases and the quantity supplied decreases. C) As the price falls, the quantity demanded decreases and the quantity supplied increases. D) As the price falls, the quantity demanded increases and the quantity supplied decreases. E) As the price falls, the demand for substitutes decreases, which eliminates the surplus. Answer: D Diff: 2 Type: MC Topic: Market Equilibrium 18) Which one of the following correctly describes how price adjustment eliminates a shortage? A) As the price rises, the quantity demanded decreases and the quantity supplied increases. B) As the price rises, the quantity demanded increases and the quantity supplied decreases. C) As the price falls, the quantity demanded decreases and the quantity supplied increases. D) As the price falls, the quantity demanded increases and the quantity supplied decreases. E) As the price falls, the quantity demanded increases and the quantity supplied increases. Answer: A Diff: 2 Type: MC Topic: Market Equilibrium
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19) If the price is above the equilibrium price, then A) none of the good will be sold. B) the price must rise further to reach the new market equilibrium. C) a surplus exists. D) a shortage exists. E) price will not change; producers will cut back production until the market is in equilibrium. Answer: C Diff: 1 Type: MC Topic: Market Equilibrium 20) A shortage will exist if A) the price is above the equilibrium price. B) the price is below the equilibrium price. C) there are not enough producers. D) there are not enough consumers. E) demand decreases. Answer: B Diff: 1 Type: MC Topic: Market Equilibrium 21) The price of a good will tend to fall if A) there is a surplus at the current price. B) the current price is below the equilibrium price. C) the quantity supplied exceeds the quantity demanded at the current price. D) both A and C are true. E) none of the above are true. Answer: D Diff: 2 Type: MC Topic: Market Equilibrium 22) If the market for Twinkies is in equilibrium, then A) Twinkies must be a normal good. B) producers would like to sell more at the current price. C) consumers would like to buy more at the current price. D) there is a surplus. E) the equilibrium quantity equals the quantity demanded. Answer: E Diff: 1 Type: MC Topic: Market Equilibrium Source: Study Guide
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23) A shortage is the amount by which quantity A) demanded exceeds quantity supplied. B) supplied exceeds quantity demanded. C) demanded increases when the price rises. D) demanded exceeds the equilibrium quantity. E) supplied exceeds the equilibrium quantity. Answer: A Diff: 1 Type: MC Topic: Market Equilibrium Source: Study Guide 24) Complete the following sentence. A surplus A) exists if the price is above the equilibrium price. B) is the amount by which the quantity demanded exceeds the quantity supplied. C) is the amount by which the quantity demanded exceeds the equilibrium quantity. D) is the amount by which the quantity supplied exceeds the equilibrium quantity. E) will lead to rising prices. Answer: A Diff: 2 Type: MC Topic: Market Equilibrium 25) When a shortage occurs, there is a tendency for the A) price to fall. B) price to remain unchanged. C) price to rise. D) quantity demanded to increase. E) quantity supplied to decrease. Answer: C Diff: 1 Type: MC Topic: Market Equilibrium
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Refer to the table below for the following question. Table 3.4.2 Price (dollars per bottle) Quantity demanded (bottles per week) Quantity supplied (bottles per week) 2 6 10 14 18 180 140 100 60 20 60 100 140 180 220 26) Refer to Table 3.4.2. The table shows the demand and supply schedules for shampoo. If the price is $6 a bottle, there is a ________ of shampoo. So the price of a bottle of shampoo ________, the quantity demanded ________ and the quantity supplied ________. The market moves to equilibrium. A) shortage; rises; decreases; increases B) shortage; falls; decreases; increases C) surplus; rises; increases; decreases D) surplus; falls; increases; decreases E) shortage; rises; increases; decreases Answer: A Diff: 1 Type: MC Topic: Market Equilibrium Source: MyEconLab 27) If the quantity of textbooks supplied is 10,000 per year and the quantity of textbooks demanded is 8,000 per year, there is a ________ in the market and the price will ________. A) shortage; rise B) shortage; fall C) surplus; rise D) surplus; fall E) surplus; either rise or fall depending on whether supply increases to meet the surplus Answer: D Type: MC 28) If the market for Twinkies is in equilibrium, then A) Twinkies must be a normal good. B) producers would like to sell more at the current price. C) consumers would like to buy more at the current price. D) the quantity supplied equals the quantity demanded. E) the supply of Twinkies will never increase and the demand for Twinkies will never decrease. Answer: D Type: MC
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3.5 Predicting Changes in Price and Quantity 1) Since 1980, there has been a dramatic increase in the number of working mothers. Based on this information alone, we can predict that the market for child care services has experienced A) an increase in demand. B) a decrease in demand. C) an increase in quantity demanded. D) a decrease in quantity supplied. E) an increase in supply. Answer: A Diff: 2 Type: MC Topic: Predicting Changes in Price and Quantity Source: Study Guide Use the figure below to answer the following questions. Figure 3.5.1 2) If the demand curve is D 2 in Figure 3.5.1, A) the equilibrium price is P 2 and the equilibrium quantity is Q 2 . B) the equilibrium price is P 2 and the equilibrium quantity is Q 0 . C) there is a shortage in the amount of Q 2 Q 0 . D) a rise in price will shift the demand curve to D 3 . E) price will rise. Answer: A Diff: 1 Type: MC Topic: Predicting Changes in Price and Quantity
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3) Initially, the demand curve for good A is D 2 in Figure 3.5.1. Suppose good B is a substitute for good A . If the price of B falls A) the price of A will rise. B) there will be a surplus of good A at P 2 . C) the demand curve for good A will shift from D 2 to D 3 . D) the equilibrium quantity of good A will increase. E) all of the above are true except B. Answer: B Diff: 2 Type: MC Topic: Predicting Changes in Price and Quantity 4) Initially, the demand curve for good A is D 2 in Figure 3.5.1. If income increases and A is a normal good, we would expect to see a movement from point A to point A) B . B) C . C) D . D) E . E) C and back to point A . Answer: B Diff: 1 Type: MC Topic: Predicting Changes in Price and Quantity 5) The price of a good will rise if A) demand for the good decreases. B) supply of the good decreases. C) there is a surplus of the good. D) the price of a substitute for the good decreases. E) the good is an inferior good and income increases. Answer: B Diff: 2 Type: MC Topic: Predicting Changes in Price and Quantity 6) The price of a good will fall if A) there is a shortage of the good. B) if demand for the good increases. C) there is a surplus of the good. D) if the supply of the good decreases. E) if demand for the good does not change. Answer: C Diff: 2 Type: MC Topic: Predicting Changes in Price and Quantity
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7) The price of a good will fall if A) demand for the good increases. B) supply of the good decreases. C) supply of the good increases. D) demand for the good remains constant. E) supply of the good remains constant. Answer: C Diff: 2 Type: MC Topic: Predicting Changes in Price and Quantity 8) Suppose we observe a rise in the price of good A and an increase in the quantity of good A bought and sold. Which one of the following is a likely explanation? A) The law of demand is violated. B) The demand for A decreased. C) The demand for A increased. D) The supply of A increased. E) The supply of A decreased. Answer: C Diff: 2 Type: MC Topic: Predicting Changes in Price and Quantity 9) Suppose we observe a rise in the price of good A and a decrease in the quantity of good A bought and sold. Which one of the following is a likely explanation? A) The law of supply is violated. B) The demand for A decreased. C) The demand for A increased. D) The supply of A increased. E) The supply of A decreased. Answer: E Diff: 2 Type: MC Topic: Predicting Changes in Price and Quantity 10) Suppose we observe a fall in the price of good A and an increase in the quantity of good A bought and sold. Which one of the following is a likely explanation? A) The law of supply is violated. B) The demand for A decreased. C) The demand for A increased. D) The supply of A increased. E) The supply of A decreased. Answer: D Diff: 2 Type: MC Topic: Predicting Changes in Price and Quantity
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11) Suppose we observe a fall in the price of good A and a decrease in the quantity of good A bought and sold. Which one of the following is a likely explanation? A) The law of demand is violated. B) The demand for A decreased. C) The demand for A increased. D) The supply of A increased. E) The supply of A decreased. Answer: B Diff: 2 Type: MC Topic: Predicting Changes in Price and Quantity 12) When the demand for good A increases, A) the equilibrium price and equilibrium quantity will increase. B) the equilibrium price will rise but the equilibrium quantity will decrease. C) the equilibrium price and equilibrium quantity will decrease. D) the equilibrium price will decrease but the equilibrium quantity will increase. E) a surplus will result. Answer: A Diff: 1 Type: MC Topic: Predicting Changes in Price and Quantity 13) When the supply of good A decreases, A) the equilibrium price and the equilibrium quantity will increase. B) the equilibrium price will increase but the equilibrium quantity will decrease. C) the equilibrium price and the equilibrium quantity will decrease. D) the equilibrium price will decrease but the equilibrium quantity will increase. E) a surplus will result. Answer: B Diff: 1 Type: MC Topic: Predicting Changes in Price and Quantity 14) If A is an inferior good and consumer income rises, the demand for A A) increases and the equilibrium price and the equilibrium quantity increase. B) increases and the equilibrium price rises but the equilibrium quantity decreases. C) decreases and the equilibrium price and the equilibrium quantity decrease. D) decreases and the equilibrium price falls but the equilibrium quantity increases. E) decreases and the equilibrium price rises; as a result, the equilibrium quantity decreases. Answer: C Diff: 2 Type: MC Topic: Predicting Changes in Price and Quantity
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15) If A and B are substitutes and the price of A rises, we will observe A) an increase in the equilibrium price and the equilibrium quantity of B . B) a decrease in the equilibrium price and the equilibrium quantity of B . C) an increase in the equilibrium price but a decrease in the equilibrium quantity of B . D) a decrease in equilibrium price but an increase in the equilibrium quantity of B . E) none of the above. Answer: A Diff: 2 Type: MC Topic: Predicting Changes in Price and Quantity 16) If A and B are substitutes and the cost of a factor of production used in the production of A increases, then the price of A) B falls but the price of A rises. B) B rises but the price of A falls. C) A falls, and the price of B will stay unchanged. D) A and B fall. E) A and B rise. Answer: E Diff: 3 Type: MC Topic: Predicting Changes in Price and Quantity 17) If A and B are substitutes in production and the price of A falls, the supply of B A) increases and the price of B rises. B) increases and the price of B falls. C) decreases and the price of B falls. D) decreases and the price of B rises. E) does not change. Answer: B Diff: 3 Type: MC Topic: Predicting Changes in Price and Quantity 18) If A and B are complements in production and the price of A falls, the supply of B A) increases and the price of B rises. B) increases and the price of B falls. C) decreases and the price of B falls. D) decreases and the price of B rises. E) does not change. Answer: D Diff: 3 Type: MC Topic: Predicting Changes in Price and Quantity
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19) Crude oil is a very important factor of production used in the production of gasoline. If the price of crude oil rises, we would expect the A) price of gasoline to rise due to an increase in demand. B) price of gasoline to fall due to an increase in demand. C) price of gasoline to rise due to a decrease in supply. D) equilibrium quantity of gasoline to fall due to an increase in supply. E) equilibrium quantity of gasoline to rise due to an increase in demand. Answer: C Diff: 2 Type: MC Topic: Predicting Changes in Price and Quantity 20) If demand increases and supply decreases, then the A) equilibrium quantity increases but the effect on the equilibrium price is unknown. B) equilibrium quantity decreases but the effect on the equilibrium price is unknown. C) equilibrium price falls but the effect on the equilibrium quantity is unknown. D) equilibrium price rises but the effect on the equilibrium quantity is unknown. E) effect on both equilibrium price and quantity is unknown. Answer: D Diff: 2 Type: MC Topic: Predicting Changes in Price and Quantity 21) If demand decreases and supply increases, then the A) equilibrium quantity increases but the effect on the equilibrium price is unknown. B) equilibrium quantity decreases but the effect on the equilibrium price is unknown. C) equilibrium price falls but the effect on equilibrium quantity is unknown. D) equilibrium price rises but the effect on equilibrium quantity is unknown. E) effect on both equilibrium price and quantity is unknown. Answer: C Diff: 2 Type: MC Topic: Predicting Changes in Price and Quantity 22) If we observe a rise in the equilibrium price of good A , we know that either the demand for A has A) increased or the supply of A has decreased or both. B) increased or the supply of A has increased or both. C) decreased or the supply of A has increased or both. D) decreased or the supply of A has decreased or both. E) none of the above. Answer: A Diff: 2 Type: MC Topic: Predicting Changes in Price and Quantity
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23) If we observe a fall in the equilibrium price of good A , we know that either the demand for A has A) increased or the supply of A has decreased or both. B) increased or the supply of A has increased or both. C) decreased or the supply of A has increased or both. D) decreased or the supply of A has decreased or both. E) none of the above. Answer: C Diff: 2 Type: MC Topic: Predicting Changes in Price and Quantity 24) If we observe an increase in the equilibrium quantity of good A , we know that A) either the demand for A has increased or the supply of A has decreased or both. B) either the demand for A has increased or the supply of A has increased or both. C) either the demand for A has decreased or the supply of A has increased or both. D) either the demand for A has decreased or the supply of A has decreased or both. E) none of the above. Answer: B Diff: 2 Type: MC Topic: Predicting Changes in Price and Quantity 25) If we observe a decrease in the equilibrium quantity of good A , we know that A) either the demand for A has increased or the supply of A has decreased or both. B) either the demand for A has increased or the supply of A has increased or both. C) either the demand for A has decreased or the supply of A has increased or both. D) either the demand for A has decreased or the supply of A has decreased or both. E) none of the above. Answer: D Diff: 2 Type: MC Topic: Predicting Changes in Price and Quantity 26) Which of the following will definitely result in an increase in the equilibrium price? A) an increase in both demand and supply B) a decrease in both demand and supply C) an increase in demand combined with a decrease in supply D) a decrease in demand combined with an increase in supply E) an increase in supply combined with a decrease in demand Answer: C Diff: 2 Type: MC Topic: Predicting Changes in Price and Quantity Source: Study Guide
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27) Which one of the following will definitely lower the equilibrium price? A) an increase in both demand and supply B) a decrease in both demand and supply C) an increase in demand combined with a decrease in supply D) a decrease in demand combined with an increase in supply E) a decrease in supply combined with an increase in demand Answer: D Diff: 2 Type: MC Topic: Predicting Changes in Price and Quantity 28) Which one of the following will definitely decrease the equilibrium quantity? A) an increase in both demand and supply B) a decrease in both demand and supply C) an increase in demand combined with a decrease in supply D) a decrease in demand combined with an increase in supply E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 2 Type: MC Topic: Predicting Changes in Price and Quantity 29) A technological improvement in the production of good A A) decreases the supply of A . B) increases the demand for A . C) decreases the equilibrium price of A and decreases the equilibrium quantity. D) decreases the quantity demanded of A . E) increases the supply of A . Answer: E Diff: 2 Type: MC Topic: Predicting Changes in Price and Quantity 30) Which of the following events leads to a rise in the price of oranges? A) a rise in the price of apples if apples and oranges are substitutes B) a scientific discovery that oranges cause hair loss C) a decrease in income if oranges are a normal good D) good growing weather in Florida E) a technological improvement in the production of oranges Answer: A Diff: 2 Type: MC Topic: Predicting Changes in Price and Quantity
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31) If A and B are complements and the cost of a factor of production used in the production of A decreases, then the price of A) both A and B will rise. B) both A and B will fall. C) A will fall and the price of B will rise. D) A will rise and the price of B will fall. E) A will fall and the price of B will remain unchanged. Answer: C Diff: 3 Type: MC Topic: Predicting Changes in Price and Quantity Source: Study Guide 32) If both demand and supply increase, then the equilibrium price A) and equilibrium quantity increases. B) falls but the equilibrium quantity increases. C) could either rise or fall, but the equilibrium quantity increases. D) rises and the equilibrium quantity could either increase or decrease. E) falls and the equilibrium quantity could either increase or decrease. Answer: C Diff: 2 Type: MC Topic: Predicting Changes in Price and Quantity 33) There have been severe problems in the Atlantic fishing industry, with large falls in the fish stocks. As a result, A) the price of fish will fall. B) the quantity of fish sold will increase as fishermen will catch more to make up for the shortage. C) the equilibrium price and the equilibrium quantity will fall or rise depending on how large the fall in fish stocks. D) both the equilibrium price and the equilibrium quantity will rise, as consumers will desire even more fish, because they are scarce. E) the fall in the fish stocks will lead to a shortage, and a rise in the equilibrium price and a decrease in the equilibrium quantity. Answer: E Diff: 2 Type: MC Topic: Predicting Changes in Price and Quantity
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34) There have been severe falls in the fish stocks in the Atlantic fishing industry. As a result, we would expect A) an increase in the demand for meat (e.g., beef), because meat is a complement of fish. B) a fall in the price of fish, leading to a decrease in the demand for meat, because meat and fish are substitutes. C) a fall in the price of fish, leading to an increase in the demand for meat, because meat and fish are substitutes. D) an increase in the demand for meat, because meat is a substitute for fish. E) a rise in the price of fish, leading to a decrease in the demand for meat, because meat and fish are complements. Answer: D Diff: 3 Type: MC Topic: Predicting Changes in Price and Quantity 35) If Canadians suddenly develop a strong urge to escape the cold winter by taking vacations in Hawaii, the A) price of a vacation in Hawaii rises and the quantity demanded of Hawaiian vacations decreases. B) price of a skiing vacation in the mountains rises. C) initial result of the change is a surplus of vacations in Hawaii, leading to a price rise. D) price of airline tickets falls as ticket agents make deals in response to this change. E) price of luggage will rise, because luggage and vacations are complements. Answer: E Diff: 2 Type: MC Topic: Predicting Changes in Price and Quantity 36) The Genius Software Company has developed an amazing new software package to be used only with Einstein Computers. As a result, the equilibrium price of A) all computers rises. B) rival software packages falls leading to an overall increase in the equilibrium quantity of these packages. C) all software packages rises. D) Einstein computers rises, accompanied by an increase in the equilibrium quantity. E) Einstein computers rises, leading to a decrease in the equilibrium quantity. Answer: D Diff: 2 Type: MC Topic: Predicting Changes in Price and Quantity
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Use the information below to answer the following questions. Fact 3.5.1 The market for coffee is initially in equilibrium. Pepsi is a substitute for coffee; cream is a complement of coffee. Consider the market for coffee. Assume that all ceteris paribus assumptions continue to hold except for the event listed. 37) Refer to Fact 3.5.1. If coffee is a normal good, then a decrease in income will A) increase the price and the quantity demanded of coffee. B) increase the price and the quantity supplied of coffee. C) decrease the price and the quantity demanded of coffee. D) decrease the price and the quantity supplied of coffee. E) cause none of the above. Answer: D Diff: 3 Type: MC Topic: Predicting Changes in Price and Quantity Source: Study Guide 38) Refer to Fact 3.5.1. An increase in the price of Pepsi, a substitute for coffee will A) increase the price and the quantity demanded of coffee. B) increase the price and the quantity supplied of coffee. C) decrease the price and the quantity demanded of coffee. D) decrease the price and the quantity supplied of coffee. E) cause none of the above. Answer: B Diff: 3 Type: MC Topic: Predicting Changes in Price and Quantity Source: Study Guide 39) Refer to Fact 3.5.1. A technological improvement lowers the cost of producing coffee. At the same time, preferences for coffee decrease. The equilibrium quantity of coffee A) increases. B) decreases. C) remains the same. D) increases or decreases depending on whether the price of coffee falls or rises. E) increases, decreases, or remains the same depending on the relative shifts of the demand and supply curves. Answer: E Diff: 2 Type: MC Topic: Predicting Changes in Price and Quantity Source: Study Guide
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40) Refer to Fact 3.5.1. If there is an increase in the wages of farm workers who harvest coffee beans, the equilibrium quantity of coffee A) increases. B) decreases. C) remains the same. D) increases or decreases depending on the slope of the supply and demand curves. E) increases or decreases depending on the relative shifts of the supply and demand curves. Answer: B Diff: 2 Type: MC Topic: Predicting Changes in Price and Quantity 41) Refer to Fact 3.5.1. The price of cream falls. Simultaneously, there is an increase in the wages of farm workers who harvest coffee beans. The equilibrium quantity of coffee A) increases. B) decreases. C) remains the same. D) increases or decreases depending on the slope of the supply and demand curves. E) increases, decreases, or remains the same depending on the relative shifts of the supply and demand curves. Answer: E Diff: 2 Type: MC Topic: Predicting Changes in Price and Quantity 42) Refer to Fact 3.5.1. A new study comes out, revealing that drinking Pepsi increases your ability to study. The equilibrium quantity of coffee A) increases. B) decreases. C) remains the same. D) increases or decreases depending on the slope of the supply and demand curves. E) increases or decreases depending on the relative shifts of the supply and demand curves. Answer: B Diff: 3 Type: MC Topic: Predicting Changes in Price and Quantity 43) Farm land can be used to produce either cattle or corn. If the demand for cattle increases, then the A) demand for corn increases. B) supply of corn increases. C) demand for corn decreases. D) supply of corn decreases. E) both B and C. Answer: D Diff: 3 Type: MC Topic: Predicting Changes in Price and Quantity
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44) When the price of good A rises, the supply curve of good B shifts rightward. Which of the following statements are true? A) A and B are substitutes. B) A and B are complements. C) A and B are substitutes in production. D) A and B are complements in production. E) A is a factor used in the production of B . Answer: D Diff: 3 Type: MC Topic: Predicting Changes in Price and Quantity 45) "As domestic car prices have increased, consumers have found foreign cars to be a better bargain. Consequently, domestic car sales have fallen and foreign car sales have risen." Based on this information alone, there has been a A) shift in the demand curves for both domestic and foreign cars. B) shift in the supply curves for both domestic and foreign cars. C) movement along the demand curves for both domestic and foreign cars. D) movement along the demand curve for domestic cars and a shift of the demand curve for foreign cars. E) shift of the demand curve for domestic cars and a movement along the demand curve for foreign cars. Answer: D Diff: 2 Type: MC Topic: Predicting Changes in Price and Quantity
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Use the figure below to answer the following questions. Figure 3.5.2 Original equilibrium at 1. 46) Refer to Figure 3.5.2, which represents the market for beans. If the price of peas, a substitute for beans rises, what is the new beans equilibrium, ceteris paribus ? A) 8 B) 3 C) 9 D) 5 E) 6 Answer: A Diff: 3 Type: MC Topic: Predicting Changes in Price and Quantity 47) Refer to Figure 3.5.2, which represents the market for beer. If the price of pizza, a complement of beer rises, what is the new beer equilibrium, ceteris paribus ? A) 8 B) 3 C) 9 D) 5 E) 6 Answer: B Diff: 3 Type: MC Topic: Predicting Changes in Price and Quantity
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48) Refer to Figure 3.5.2, which represents the market for beans. If the price of peas, a substitute for beans in production, rises, what is the new beans equilibrium, ceteris paribus ? A) 8 B) 3 C) 9 D) 5 E) 6 Answer: D Diff: 3 Type: MC Topic: Predicting Changes in Price and Quantity 49) Refer to Figure 3.5.2, which represents the market for cow manure. If the price of milk, a complement in production of manure, rises, what is the new manure equilibrium, ceteris paribus ? A) 8 B) 3 C) 9 D) 5 E) 6 Answer: E Diff: 3 Type: MC Topic: Predicting Changes in Price and Quantity 50) Refer to Figure 3.5.2, which represents the market for beans. If the price of peas, a substitute for beans and a substitute in production, rises, what is the new beans equilibrium, ceteris paribus ? A) 2 B) 3 C) 9 D) 4 E) 7 Answer: E Diff: 3 Type: MC Topic: Predicting Changes in Price and Quantity 51) Refer to Figure 3.5.2, which represents the market for beans. If the price of peas, a substitute for beans, rises, and the cost of producing beans decreases, what is the new beans equilibrium, ceteris paribus ? A) 2 B) 3 C) 9 D) 4 E) 7 Answer: C Diff: 3 Type: MC Topic: Predicting Changes in Price and Quantity
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52) Refer to Figure 3.5.2, which represents the market for tacos. A new scientific study reveals that tacos cause bad breath. Simultaneously, the cost of producing tacos decreases. What is the new equilibrium, ceteris paribus ? A) 2 B) 3 C) 9 D) 4 E) 7 Answer: D Diff: 3 Type: MC Topic: Predicting Changes in Price and Quantity 53) Refer to Figure 3.5.2, which represents the market for tacos. A new scientific study reveals that tacos cause bad breath. Simultaneously, the cost of producing tacos increases. What is the new equilibrium, ceteris paribus ? A) 2 B) 3 C) 9 D) 4 E) 7 Answer: A Diff: 3 Type: MC Topic: Predicting Changes in Price and Quantity
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Use the table below to answer the following questions. Table 3.5.1 The Market for Car-Seat Heaters Price (dollars per heater) Quantity Demanded (heaters per month) Quantity Supplied (heaters per month) 40 50 60 70 80 90 100 500 450 400 350 300 250 200 300 350 400 450 500 550 600 54) Refer to Table 3.5.1. The equilibrium price is $________ and the equilibrium quantity is ________ heaters per month. A) 80; 500 B) 80; 300 C) 50; 450 D) 50; 350 E) 60; 400 Answer: E Diff: 1 Type: MC Topic: Predicting Changes in Price and Quantity 55) Refer to Table 3.5.1. If the price is set at $80, there will be a A) shortage of 200 units and price will rise. B) shortage of 200 units and demand will fall. C) surplus of 200 units and demand will rise. D) surplus of 200 units and supply will fall. E) surplus of 200 units and price will fall. Answer: E Diff: 2 Type: MC Topic: Predicting Changes in Price and Quantity 56) Refer to Table 3.5.1. Suppose the cost of production rises, causing supply to decrease by 100 units at each price. The new equilibrium price is $________ and equilibrium quantity is ________ units. A) 70; 450 B) 70; 350 C) 50; 450 D) 50; 350 E) 60; 400 Answer: B Diff: 2 Type: MC
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Topic: Predicting Changes in Price and Quantity 57) Refer to Table 3.5.1. Suppose a problem develops with car-seat heaters - they malfunction and occasionally cause serious burns. As a result, demand decreases by 100 heaters at each price. The new equilibrium price is $________ and the new equilibrium quantity is ________ heaters per month. A) 70; 450 B) 70; 350 C) 50; 450 D) 50; 350 E) 60; 400 Answer: D Diff: 2 Type: MC Topic: Predicting Changes in Price and Quantity 58) Refer to Table 3.5.1. Suppose a problem develops with car-seat heaters - they malfunction and occasionally cause serious burns. As a result, demand decreases by 100 heaters at each price. Simultaneously, the cost of production rises, and supply decreases by 100 heaters at each price. The new equilibrium price is $________ and the new equilibrium quantity is ________ heaters per month. A) 70; 450 B) 70; 350 C) 50; 450 D) 50; 350 E) 60; 300 Answer: E Diff: 2 Type: MC Topic: Predicting Changes in Price and Quantity
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Use the figure below to answer the following questions. Table 3.5.2 Demand and Supply Schedules for Cups of Coffee each day at CoolU Price (dollars per cup) Quantity Demanded (cups of coffee per day) Quantity Supplied (cups of coffee per day) 0.70 0.80 0.90 1.00 1.10 1.20 1.30 1.40 1.50 1,200 1,100 1,000 900 800 700 600 500 400 0 200 400 600 800 1,000 1,200 1,400 1,600 59) Refer to Table 3.5.2. The equilibrium price is $________ and the equilibrium quantity is ________ cups a day. A) 1.30; 1200 B) 0.90; 1000 C) 1.10; 900 D) 1.10; 800 E) 1.00; 800 Answer: D Diff: 1 Type: MC Topic: Predicting Changes in Price and Quantity 60) Refer to Table 3.5.2. If the price is set at $0.80 per cup, there is a ________ leading to a price ________. A) shortage; rise B) shortage; fall C) surplus; rise D) surplus; fall E) equilibrium; rise Answer: A Diff: 1 Type: MC Topic: Predicting Changes in Price and Quantity
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61) Refer to Table 3.5.2. If the price is set at $1.30 per cup, there is a ________ leading to a price ________. A) shortage; rise B) shortage; fall C) surplus; rise D) surplus; fall E) equilibrium; rise Answer: D Diff: 1 Type: MC Topic: Predicting Changes in Price and Quantity 62) Refer to Table 3.5.2. A premature frost destroys half the coffee trees. This change would be represented as a A) leftward shift of the demand curve. B) rightward shift of the demand curve. C) leftward shift of the supply curve. D) rightward shift of the supply curve. E) movement down along the supply curve. Answer: C Diff: 2 Type: MC Topic: Predicting Changes in Price and Quantity 63) Refer to Table 3.5.2. A premature frost destroys half the coffee trees and the supply of coffee is cut in half. The new equilibrium price is $________ and the new equilibrium quantity is ________ cups a day. A) 1.30; 600 B) 1.50; 400 C) 0.90; 400 D) 1.20; 700 E) 1.30; 500 Answer: A Diff: 2 Type: MC Topic: Predicting Changes in Price and Quantity 64) Refer to Table 3.5.2. Professor Hyper publishes a new study, showing that coffee raises the test performance of students. Students double their demand for coffee. This change would be represented as a A) leftward shift of the demand curve. B) rightward shift of the demand curve. C) leftward shift of the supply curve. D) rightward shift of the supply curve. E) movement up along the demand curve. Answer: B Diff: 2 Type: MC Topic: Predicting Changes in Price and Quantity
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65) Refer to Table 3.5.2. Professor Hyper publishes a new study, showing that coffee raises the test performance of students. Students double their demand for coffee and the quantity of coffee demanded at each price doubles. The new equilibrium price is $________, and the new equilibrium quantity is ________ cups a day. A) 1.20; 1,000 B) 1.30; 1,200 C) 1.50; 1,600 D) 1.40; 1,400 E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 2 Type: MC Topic: Predicting Changes in Price and Quantity 66) Refer to Table 3.5.2. Professor Hyper publishes a new study, showing that coffee raises the test performance of students. Students double their demand for coffee and the quantity of coffee demanded at each price doubles. In addition, a premature frost destroys half the coffee trees and the supply of coffee is cut in half. The new equilibrium price is $________ and the new equilibrium quantity is ________ cups a day. A) 1.10; 400 B) 1.10; 1,600 C) 1.10; 800 D) 1.50; 800 E) 1.50; 400. Answer: D Diff: 3 Type: MC Topic: Predicting Changes in Price and Quantity
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Use the table below to answer the following questions. Table 3.5.3 Demand and supply schedules for designer sport t-shirts at CoolU Price (dollars per t-shirt) Quantity Supplied (t-shirts per month) Quantity Demanded (t-shirts per month) 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 150 160 170 180 190 200 210 220 230 240 300 280 260 240 220 200 180 160 140 120 67) Refer to Table 3.5.3. The equilibrium price is $________ and the equilibrium quantity is ________ t-shirts per month. A) 6; 200 B) 7; 220 C) 8; 180 D) 8; 220 E) 8; 200 Answer: E Diff: 1 Type: MC Topic: Predicting Changes in Price and Quantity 68) Refer to Table 3.5.3. Suppose that the price of a designer sport t-shirt is $6. The market has ________ leading to ________. A) an equilibrium; no change in the price B) a shortage; a fall in the price C) a shortage; a rise in the price D) a surplus; a fall in the price E) a surplus; a rise in the price Answer: C Diff: 2 Type: MC Topic: Predicting Changes in Price and Quantity
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69) Refer to Table 3.5.3. Suppose that the price of a designer sport t-shirt is $10. The market has ________ leading to ________. A) an equilibrium; no change in the price B) a shortage; a fall in the price C) a shortage; a rise in the price D) a surplus; a fall in the price E) a surplus; a rise in the price Answer: D Diff: 1 Type: MC Topic: Predicting Changes in Price and Quantity 70) Refer to Table 3.5.3. In a television interview, Joe Cool shows off his designer sport t-shirt, setting off a new craze that doubles business at the sportswear establishments. This would be represented as a A) movement up along the demand curve. B) rightward shift of the demand curve. C) leftward shift of the demand curve. D) rightward shift of the supply curve. E) leftward shift of the supply curve. Answer: B Diff: 1 Type: MC Topic: Predicting Changes in Price and Quantity 71) Refer to Table 3.5.3. In a television interview, Joe Cool shows off his designer sport t-shirt, setting off a new craze that doubles business at the sportswear establishments. The quantity of t- shirts demanded doubles at each price. The new equilibrium price is $________ and the new equilibrium quantity is ________ t-shirts per month. A) 12; 240 B) 8; 400 C) 16; 400 D) 12; 120 E) 16; 200 Answer: A Diff: 2 Type: MC Topic: Predicting Changes in Price and Quantity 72) Refer to Table 3.5.3. A new store opens up on the edge of campus, Great Wild North Sportswear, which has the capacity to do as much business as all the existing businesses. The quantity of t-shirts supplied doubles at each price. This would be represented as a A) movement up along the demand curve. B) rightward shift of the demand curve. C) leftward shift of the demand curve. D) rightward shift of the supply curve. E) leftward shift of the supply curve. Answer: D Diff: 2 Type: MC Topic: Predicting Changes in Price and Quantity
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73) Refer to Table 3.5.3. A new store opens up on the edge of campus, Great Wild North Sportswear, which has the capacity to do as much business as all the existing businesses. The quantity of t-shirts supplied doubles at each price. The new equilibrium price is $________ and the new equilibrium quantity is ________ t-shirts per month. A) 8; 400 B) 3; 300 C) 0; 400 D) 16; 200 E) 4; 400 Answer: B Diff: 3 Type: MC Topic: Predicting Changes in Price and Quantity 74) Refer to Table 3.5.3. A new store opens up on the edge of campus, Great Wild North Sportswear, which has the capacity to do as much business as all the existing businesses. The quantity of t-shirts supplied doubles at each price. In addition, in a television interview, Joe Cool shows off his designer sport t-shirt, setting off a new craze that doubles business at the local sportswear establishments. The quantity of t-shirts demanded doubles at each price. The new equilibrium price is $________ and the new equilibrium quantity is ________ t-shirts per month. A) 8; 400 B) 8; 200 C) 3; 400 D) 12; 240 E) 16; 400 Answer: A Diff: 3 Type: MC Topic: Predicting Changes in Price and Quantity
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Use the table below to answer the following questions. Table 3.5.4 Quantities demanded and supplied in equilibrium before and after a drought strikes potato farms Potatoes Hamburgers Rice before after before after before after Region 1 100 30 50 20 3 50 Region 2 10 5 4 50 50 60 75) Refer to Table 3.5.4. In Region 1, potatoes and hamburgers are A) substitutes. B) complements. C) normal goods. D) unrelated goods. E) inferior goods. Answer: B Diff: 3 Type: MC Topic: Predicting Changes in Price and Quantity 76) In Table 3.5.4 potatoes and rice are A) substitutes in Region 1 and complements in Region 2. B) substitutes in Region 2 and complements in Region 1. C) complements in both regions. D) substitutes in both regions. E) unrelated goods in both regions. Answer: D Diff: 3 Type: MC Topic: Predicting Changes in Price and Quantity
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77) "As fewer people buy computers, the demand for Internet service will decrease and the price of Internet service will increase. The rise in the price of Internet service will increase the supply of Internet service." This statement is ________ because ________. A) false; the decrease in the demand for Internet service creates a surplus and to eliminate the surplus, supply increases B) true; when the demand for Internet service increases, the supply of Internet service increases so that the price of Internet service does not increase C) true, when the demand for Internet service increases, the supply of Internet service increases too so that no surplus occurs D) true; the increase in the price of Internet service increases the supply of Internet service to eliminate the shortage E) false; a decrease in demand for Internet service does not increase the price of Internet service and an increase in the price of Internet service does not increase the supply of Internet service Answer: E Diff: 3 Type: MC Topic: Predicting Changes in Price and Quantity Source: MyEconLab 78) The following events occur one at a time: I. The price of crude oil rises. II. The price of a car rises. III. All speed limits on highways are abolished. IV. Robots cut car production costs. The quantity of gasoline supplied ________. A) increases when all speed limits on highways are abolished B) increases when the price of crude oil rises C) decreases when robots cut car production costs D) increases when the price of a car rises E) decreases when the price of crude oil rises Answer: A Diff: 3 Type: MC Topic: Predicting Changes in Price and Quantity Source: MyEconLab 79) What will happen to the equilibrium price and quantity of coffee if it is discovered to help prevent colds and, at the same time, Brazil and Vietnam emerge in the global market as massive producers of coffee? A) The equilibrium price will fall and the effect on the equilibrium quantity is uncertain. B) The equilibrium price will rise and the effect on the equilibrium quantity is uncertain. C) The equilibrium quantity will decrease and the equilibrium price will rise. D) The equilibrium quantity will increase and the equilibrium price will remain unchanged. E) The equilibrium quantity will increase and the effect on the equilibrium price is uncertain. Answer: E Type: MC
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80) All shredded wheat producers have decided to add a new ingredient, the "crunch enhancer" to shredded wheat. Crunch enhancer keeps cereals crisper longer in milk and, as a result, consumers decide they like shredded wheat more than before. What happens to the supply and demand curves for shredded wheat now that it costs more to produce and consumers like it better? A) The supply and demand curves both shift rightward. B) The supply curve shifts rightward and the demand curve remains unchanged. C) The supply curve shifts leftward and the demand curve shifts rightward. D) The supply curve shifts leftward and the demand curve remains unchanged. E) Neither curve changes but a movement occurs up along the demand curve and a movement occurs up along the supply curve. Answer: C Type: MC
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3.6 Mathematical Note 1) The demand curve for knobs is P = 75 - 6 Q D and the supply curve for knobs is P = 35 + 2 Q S . What is the equilibrium price of a knob? A) $5 B) $10 C) $40 D) $45 E) None of the above. Answer: D Diff: 2 Type: MC Topic: Mathematical Note: Demand, Supply, and Equilibrium Source: Study Guide 2) The y - axis intercept of the supply curve is 40 and the slope is 6. The equation of the supply curve is ________. A) P = 3 + 40 Q S B) P = 40 + 6 Q S C) P = 40 - 6 Q S D) Q S = 40 + 6 P E) Q S = 40 - 6 P Answer: B Diff: 2 Type: MC Topic: Mathematical Note: Demand, Supply, and Equilibrium Source: MyEconLab 3) The y - axis intercept of the demand curve is 60 and the slope is - 8. The equation of the demand curve is ________. A) P = 8 - 60 Q D B) P = 60 - 8 Q D C) Q D = 60 - 8 P D) P = 60 + 8 Q D E) Q D = 60 + 8 P Answer: B Diff: 2 Type: MC Topic: Mathematical Note: Demand, Supply, and Equilibrium Source: MyEconLab
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4) The demand curve is P = 700 - 10 Q D . The supply curve is P = 400 + 5 Q S . At market equilibrium, the equilibrium quantity is ________ and the equilibrium price is ________. A) 20; 500 B) 5; 0.05 C) 0.05; 5 D) 500; 20 E) 300; 15 Answer: A Diff: 2 Type: MC Topic: Mathematical Note: Demand, Supply, and Equilibrium Source: MyEconLab 5) The demand curve is P = 700 - 20 Q D . The supply curve is P = 300 + 20 Q S . At market equilibrium, the equilibrium quantity is ________ and the equilibrium price is ________. A) 10; 500 B) 500; 10 C) 0.10; 20 D) 20; 0.10 E) 400; 40 Answer: A Diff: 2 Type: MC Topic: Mathematical Note: Demand, Supply, and Equilibrium Source: MyEconLab 6) The demand curve is P = 800 - 25 Q D . The supply curve is P = 500 + 25 Q S . At market equilibrium, the equilibrium quantity is ________ and the equilibrium price is ________. A) 25; 0.17 B) 650; 6.0 C) 0.17; 25 D) 6.0; 650 E) 1,300; zero Answer: D Diff: 2 Type: MC Topic: Mathematical Note: Demand, Supply, and Equilibrium Source: MyEconLab Chapter 20 Measuring GDP and Economic Growth 20.1 Gross Domestic Product 1) Gross domestic product is A) the final value of all goods produced in a country in a given time period. B) the market value of all goods and services produced in a country during a given time period. C) the market value of all the final goods and services produced in a country during a given time period. D) the average value of output produced in a country in a given time period.
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E) the market value of all the intermediate goods and services produced in a country during a given time period. Answer: C Diff: 3 Type: MC Topic: Gross Domestic Product 2) In calculating GDP, economists use the value of final goods and services because A) by using final goods and services, they avoid double counting. B) final goods can be exported to other countries. C) intermediate goods are imported from other countries. D) GDP is underestimated if intermediate goods are used instead. E) none of the above. Answer: A Diff: 3 Type: MC Topic: Gross Domestic Product 3) Which of the following statements is true? A) Final goods and services produced abroad by Canadians are part of Canadian GDP. B) Final goods and services produced in Canada by foreigners are part of the foreign country's GDP. C) Final goods and services produced in Canada by foreigners are part of Canada's GDP. D) Final goods and services produced in Canada by foreigners are imports. E) Final goods and services produced in Canada by foreigners are exports. Answer: C Diff: 3 Type: MC Topic: Gross Domestic Product 4) The circular flow diagram illustrates the expenditures made by A) households only. B) households and firms only. C) households and investors only. D) firms, households, and governments only. E) households, firms, governments, and the rest of the world. Answer: E Diff: 1 Type: MC Topic: Gross Domestic Product
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5) In the circular flow model, A) households are sellers of factor services in goods markets. B) households are buyers of goods and services in the factor markets. C) firms are sellers of the factors in factor markets. D) firms are sellers of goods and services in goods markets. E) firms are buyers of goods and services in final markets. Answer: D Diff: 1 Type: MC Topic: Gross Domestic Product 6) The purchasers in the goods markets are A) households and government only. B) households and firms only. C) households and net exporters only. D) households, firms, and government only. E) households, firms, government, and those who import our goods. Answer: E Diff: 1 Type: MC Topic: Gross Domestic Product 7) Of the following items, which one would be considered as investment in the National Income and Expenditure Accounts ? A) The purchase of a new van by a potter who packs it with his wares and travels to art shows on weekends. B) The purchase of 100 shares of Bell Canada stock on the Toronto Stock Exchange. C) The purchase of a 100-year-old house that was put on the protected historic sites list. D) The purchase of a Canadian government bond. E) All of the above. Answer: A Diff: 1 Type: MC Topic: Gross Domestic Product 8) Complete the following sentence. Net exports equals A) exports divided by imports. B) exports plus imports. C) exports minus imports. D) imports minus exports. E) foreign borrowing by residents of Canada minus domestic borrowing by nonresidents of Canada. Answer: C Diff: 1 Type: MC Topic: Gross Domestic Product
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9) Which one of the following is an expenditure flow from households to firms? A) goods and services B) factor services C) payments for goods and services D) payments for factor services E) loans Answer: C Diff: 1 Type: MC Topic: Gross Domestic Product 10) Which one of the following is an income flow from firms to households? A) goods and services B) factor services C) payments for goods and services D) payments for factor services E) loans Answer: D Diff: 1 Type: MC Topic: Gross Domestic Product 11) Which one of the following flows from firms to households? A) goods and services B) factor services C) payments for goods and services D) payments for loans E) loans Answer: A Diff: 1 Type: MC Topic: Gross Domestic Product 12) For the aggregate economy, income equals A) expenditure, but these are not generally equal to GDP. B) GDP, but expenditure is generally less than these. C) expenditure equals GDP. D) expenditure equals GDP only if there is no government or foreign sectors. E) expenditure equals GDP only if there is no depreciation. Answer: C Diff: 2 Type: MC Topic: Gross Domestic Product Source: Study Guide
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13) Which one of the following is false ? A) Y = C + I + G + M - X B) Y - C - I - G - X + M = 0 C) X - M = Y - C - I - G D) Y + M = C + I + G + X E) Y = C + I + G + X - M Answer: A Diff: 3 Type: MC Topic: Gross Domestic Product 14) Which one of the following is true ? A) Y = C + I + G + M - X B) I + G + X = Y + I + M C) Y = C + S + I D) Y + M = C + I + G E) Y = C + I + G + X - M Answer: E Diff: 3 Type: MC Topic: Gross Domestic Product 15) Which of the following is not correct? A) Investment is the purchase of new plant, equipment, and buildings and the additions to inventories. B) Net investment equals gross investment minus depreciation. C) Depreciation decreases the value of a firm's capital. D) Gross investment is the amount by which the value of capital increases. E) Gross investment is the total amount spent buying new capital and replacing depreciated capital. Answer: D Diff: 2 Type: MC Topic: Gross Domestic Product 16) Suppose the economy's capital increases over the year. It must be true that A) net investment was greater than gross investment. B) net investment was positive. C) depreciation was greater than net investment. D) depreciation was greater than gross investment. E) depreciation is less than zero. Answer: B Diff: 2 Type: MC Topic: Gross Domestic Product
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17) SaskWidget produces plastic parts. At the beginning of the year, they held $24 million worth of capital. At the end of the year, they held $20 million worth of capital. One can conclude that A) net investment increased by $4 million. B) gross investment decreased by $4 million. C) gross investment increased by $4 million. D) depreciation exceeded gross investment by $4 million. E) depreciation equals $4 million. Answer: D Diff: 2 Type: MC Topic: Gross Domestic Product 18) One of the reasons why real GDP grows is that A) prices increase. B) governments collect more taxes. C) capital grows as a result of investment. D) imports increase. E) people have more income. Answer: C Diff: 2 Type: MC Topic: Gross Domestic Product 19) Which of the following would be an example of a consumption expenditure? A) More spending by the government on children's programs. B) An increase in welfare payments to single mothers. C) The purchase of a new car by the IPSCO steel company. D) The purchase of a new car by the Singh household. E) All of the above. Answer: D Diff: 2 Type: MC Topic: Gross Domestic Product Source: Study Guide 20) The change in capital from year to year is equal to A) gross investment. B) gross investment minus net investment. C) savings. D) net investment minus depreciation E) gross investment minus depreciation. Answer: E Diff: 2 Type: MC Topic: Gross Domestic Product
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21) Capital in year 2012 equals capital in year 2011 A) minus depreciation. B) plus net investment plus depreciation. C) plus gross investment. D) plus net investment. E) plus net investment minus depreciation. Answer: D Diff: 2 Type: MC Topic: Gross Domestic Product Source: Study Guide Use the figure below to answer the following questions. Figure 20.1.1 22) Refer to Figure 20.1.1, which shows the circular flow of expenditure and income for Venus. During 2012, A was $100, B was $50, C was $30 and D was $10. How much is GDP? A) $75 B) $50 C) $90 D) $100 E) None of the above Answer: D Diff: 2 Type: MC Topic: Gross Domestic Product
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23) Refer to Figure 20.1.1, which shows the circular flow of expenditure and income for Venus. During 2012, A was $100, B was $50, C was $30 and D was $10. How much is net exports? A) $10 B) $25 C) $30 D) $50 E) None of the above Answer: A Diff: 2 Type: MC Topic: Gross Domestic Product 24) Refer to Figure 20.1.1, which shows the circular flow of expenditure and income for Venus. During 2012, A was $100, B was $50, C was $30 and D was $10. How much is aggregate expenditure? A) $50 B) $75 C) $90 D) $100 E) None of the above Answer: D Diff: 3 Type: MC Topic: Gross Domestic Product 25) Refer to Figure 20.1.1, which shows the circular flow of expenditure and income for Venus. During 2012, A was $100, B was $50, C was $30 and D was $10. What is aggregate income? A) $25 B) $50 C) $75 D) $90 E) $100 Answer: E Diff: 2 Type: MC Topic: Gross Domestic Product
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Use the information below to answer the following questions. Fact 20.1.1 At the beginning of 2012, Peter's Perfectly Prickly Piercing Parlour had $5,000 worth of bellybutton and eyebrow rings on hand, 2 computers (each worth $1,000), 1 cash register worth $100, electrical equipment worth $500, and one piercing needle worth $500. At the end of 2012, they had $5,000 worth of bellybutton and eyebrow rings, a new high speed computer worth $3,000 (they had to throw out the old ones), the same cash register, which was now worthless, electrical equipment worth $600, and they had upgraded the needle at a cost of $700 which was valued at $1,000. 26) Refer to Fact 20.1.1. Peter's capital at the beginning of 2012 is A) $8,100. B) $7,000. C) $3,100. D) $7,600. E) $5,000. Answer: A Diff: 2 Type: MC Topic: Gross Domestic Product 27) Refer to Fact 20.1.1. Peter's capital at the end of 2012 is A) $7,000. B) $9,600. C) $4,400. D) $7,600. E) $4,000. Answer: B Diff: 2 Type: MC Topic: Gross Domestic Product 28) Refer to Fact 20.1.1. Peter's gross investment in 2012 is A) $2,800. B) $3,800. C) $1,800. D) $7,800. E) $5,800. Answer: B Diff: 3 Type: MC Topic: Gross Domestic Product
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29) Refer to Fact 20.1.1. Peter's depreciation in 2012 is A) $2,300. B) $800. C) zero. D) $1,000. E) $3,000. Answer: A Diff: 2 Type: MC Topic: Gross Domestic Product 30) Refer to Fact 20.1.1. Peter's net investment in 2012 is A) $2,000. B) $3,800. C) $1,800. D) $7,800. E) $1,500. Answer: E Diff: 2 Type: MC Topic: Gross Domestic Product 31) The value of intermediate goods is not counted in GDP A) to keep from including goods that reduce society's welfare. B) because of the tremendous difficulty in keeping track of all the intermediate goods produced in an economy as large as that of Canada. C) because they are only sold in factor markets. D) to avoid counting their value twice and overstating the value of GDP. E) because they are not consumed in the current year. Answer: D Diff: 2 Type: MC Topic: Gross Domestic Product 32) Intermediate goods are A) sold to their ultimate user. B) produced by one firm, bought by another firm, and used as a component of a final good or service. C) included directly in the measure of GDP. D) capital. E) purchased this year but consumed in future years. Answer: B Diff: 1 Type: MC Topic: Gross Domestic Product
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33) An art collector recently sold a piece of pottery for $300. He had purchased it for $200 two years earlier. How will the most recent sale affect GDP? A) GDP will increase by $100. B) GDP will not change. C) GDP will increase by $300. D) GDP will increase by $200. E) GDP 2 years ago must be adjusted downwards by $200, and current GDP will rise by $300. Answer: B Diff: 2 Type: MC Topic: Gross Domestic Product 34) Which of the following would not be included in GDP for 2011? A) A car produced in 2011 and held in inventory until 2012. B) A car produced in 2011 and sold in 2012. C) The value of all cars produced in 2011. D) A car produced in January of 2011 and sold in November of 2011. E) A car produced in 2010 and sold in 2011. Answer: E Diff: 2 Type: MC Topic: Gross Domestic Product 35) Stock and bond sales are not included in GDP because they A) do not occur in the year in which the production represented by them takes place. B) represent corporate production. C) represent indebtedness. D) are not goods and services. E) are not sold in the country in which they are produced. Answer: D Diff: 2 Type: MC Topic: Gross Domestic Product 36) In calculating GDP, all of the following are excluded except A) the value of intermediate goods. B) the value of all homes built in the year in question. C) the value of used goods. D) purchases of stocks and bonds. E) subsidies from the government. Answer: B Diff: 2 Type: MC Topic: Gross Domestic Product
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37) From the following list, choose the item that would be included in a current measure of GDP. A) the purchase of a previously owned house that was built last year B) a social security cheque for $500 C) the purchase of 10 litres of gasoline for your car D) a $2,000 cheque from your Aunt Grace E) income from the sale of your Canadian Snowfun stocks Answer: C Diff: 1 Type: MC Topic: Gross Domestic Product 38) Which one of the following would not be counted as part of this year's GDP? A) The lumber you purchase when building bookshelves for your room. B) The government bond you buy for your newborn niece. C) The purchase of a new personal computer that was produced in the current year. D) The purchase of wheat that was produced in the current year by a Saskatchewan farmer. E) The purchase of a house that was produced in the current year. Answer: B Diff: 1 Type: MC Topic: Gross Domestic Product 39) How much would the production of a kayak add to GDP if the shell costs $250, the paint costs $20, the finisher costs $35, the manufacturer sold it to the dealer for $500, and the dealer sold it to his customer for $800? A) $1,605 B) $1,300 C) $500 D) $305 E) $800 Answer: E Diff: 2 Type: MC Topic: Gross Domestic Product 40) Which of the following adds to Canadian GDP? A) I shovel my own driveway. B) I sell my used Honda. C) The production and sale of flour to a bakery. D) The purchase of a CD made in China. E) The ice cream I buy from my grocery store. Answer: E Type: MC Topic: Gross Domestic Product Source: Study Guide
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41) A bakery uses flour to produce bread. When calculating GDP, we include ________, because when we add the value of the flour to the value of the loaf of bread to calculate GDP, the result is ________. A) only the value of the bread sold in a store; double counting B) only the value of the flour used to produce the bread; double counting C) both the value of the bread sold in a store and the value of the flour used to produce the bread; double counting D) both the value of the bread sold in a store and the value of the flour used to produce the bread; the true value of the economy's output E) none of the above Answer: A Type: MC Topic: Gross Domestic Product Source: MyEconLab 42) The firm that printed your textbook bought the paper from XYZ Paper Mills. This purchase of paper ________ part of GDP because the paper is ________ good. A) is not; a final B) is not; an intermediate C) is; an intermediate D) is; a final E) is; a nonrenewable Answer: B Type: MC Topic: Gross Domestic Product Source: MyEconLab 43) In the circular flow diagram, aggregate expenditure includes ________. A) consumption expenditure, saving, investment and government expenditure B) saving, investment, and taxes C) consumption expenditure, investment, government expenditure, and exports D) consumption expenditure, investment, government expenditure and net exports E) government expenditure, transfer payments, and taxes Answer: D Type: MC 44) Which of the following are equal to one another? I. aggregate production II. aggregate expenditure III. aggregate income A) I equals II, but I does not equal III. B) I equals III, but I does not equal II. C) II equals III, but II does not equal I. D) III equals II, but III does not equal I E) I equals II equals III. Answer: E
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Type: MC 45) Suppose Mail Boxes Etc. buys a new copier for its store for $1,000. A year later, when the firm wants to upgrade to a new copier, it finds that the old copier is only worth $750. Over the year the copier was used, ________ has occurred. A) depreciation B) demarcation C) devaluation D) denouement E) disparity Answer: A Type: MC 46) Which of the following relationships is correct? A) Gross Investment = Net Investment + Depreciation B) Consumption expenditure = Net Investment - Depreciation C) Net Investment = Gross Investment + Depreciation D) Depreciation = Gross Investment - Consumption expenditure E) Saving = Gross Investment - Taxes Answer: A Type: MC
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20.2 Measuring Canada's GDP 1) To measure GDP, Statistics Canada uses A) the expenditure approach. B) the income approach. C) the value-added approach. D) only A and B. E) A, B and C. Answer: D Diff: 2 Type: MC Topic: Measuring Canada's GDP 2) A hypothetical economy produced four final goods during the year: plates, TVs, bicycles, and computers. Forty plates were produced and sold for $10 each. Five TVs were produced and sold for $300 each. Fifty bicycles were produced and sold for $100 each. Three computers were produced and sold for $750 each. With this information, one could determine A) gross investment for this economy. B) net investment for this economy. C) indirect taxes less subsidies for this economy. D) whether factors had been fully employed in this economy. E) total income for this economy. Answer: E Diff: 2 Type: MC Topic: Measuring Canada's GDP 3) Suppose the economy of Econoworld produces only two goods, kayaks and birdseed. In one year 20 kayaks are produced and sold for $1,000 each and 10 bags of birdseed are produced and sold for $30 each. The value of nominal GDP for this year is A) $20,000. B) $300. C) $20,300. D) $23,000. E) 20 kayaks plus 10 bags of birdseed. Answer: C Diff: 1 Type: MC Topic: Measuring Canada's GDP
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4) The expenditure approach measures GDP by adding together A) wages, salaries and supplementary labour income, and other factor incomes. B) wages, salaries and supplementary labour income, other factor income, subsidies paid by the government, indirect taxes paid, and income of nonfarm unincorporated businesses. C) compensation of employees, rental income, corporate profits, net interest, proprietors' income, indirect taxes paid, and capital consumption expenditures, and by subtracting subsidies paid by the government. D) the total expenditures of consumers, firms, net exporters, and by governments at all levels. E) the total expenditures of consumers and firms. Answer: D Diff: 2 Type: MC Topic: Measuring Canada's GDP Use the table below to answer the following questions. Table 20.2.1 Data From Eastland Wages, salaries, and supplementary labour income 800 Other factor incomes 260 Government expenditures on goods and services 240 Depreciation 240 Investment 400 Personal income taxes net of transfer payments 140 Indirect taxes 120 Net exports 80 Consumption expenditure 640 5) Refer to Table 20.2.1. From the information given in the table, the value of gross domestic product is A) $1,280. B) $1,290. C) $1,360. D) $1,120. E) $1,100. Answer: C Diff: 2 Type: MC Topic: Measuring Canada's GDP
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6) Refer to Table 20.2.1. From the information given in the table, the value of net domestic income at factor cost is A) $1,280. B) $1,290. C) $1,360. D) $1,060. E) $1,100. Answer: D Diff: 3 Type: MC Topic: Measuring Canada's GDP 7) Refer to Table 20.2.1. From the data in the table, what additional data are needed to compute net domestic income at market prices? A) statistical discrepancy B) transfer payments C) subsidies D) depreciation E) net taxes Answer: C Diff: 2 Type: MC Topic: Measuring Canada's GDP 8) Refer to Table 20.2.1. From the data in the table, what is total income in Eastland? A) $1,120 B) $1,180 C) $1,360 D) $1,420 E) $1,280 Answer: C Diff: 2 Type: MC Topic: Measuring Canada's GDP 9) The largest component of GDP using the expenditure approach is A) investment B) consumption expenditure C) exports D) government expenditure E) imports Answer: B Diff: 1 Type: MC Topic: Measuring Canada's GDP
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10) Which one of the following would be included in the calculation of GDP by the expenditure approach? A) the purchase of 20 shares of a new issue of IBM stock B) the purchase of an original eighteenth century work of art C) the value of your brother's services when he mows the lawn for the family D) the cost of adding a new kitchen to your house E) the income you pay to your gardener Answer: D Diff: 2 Type: MC Topic: Measuring Canada's GDP Use the table below to answer the following questions. Table 20.2.2 Government expenditures on goods and services $ 500 Wages, salaries, and supplementary labour income 2,000 Depreciation 400 Investment 400 Consumption expenditure 2,200 Net exports -50 Indirect taxes 150 Statistical discrepancy 0 11) Refer to Table 20.2.2. Gross domestic product equals A) $3,050. B) $3,150. C) $3,400. D) $5,600. E) $5,050. Answer: A Diff: 1 Type: MC Topic: Measuring Canada's GDP 12) Refer to Table 20.2.2. Net domestic income at market prices equals A) $3,050. B) $3,150. C) $3,400. D) $4,650. E) $2,650. Answer: E Diff: 2 Type: MC Topic: Measuring Canada's GDP
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13) Which one of the following is not an example of investment in the expenditure approach to measuring GDP? General Motors A) buys a new auto stamping machine. B) adds 500 new cars to inventories. C) buys shares in another company. D) builds another assembly plant. E) replaces some worn-out stamping machines. Answer: C Diff: 1 Type: MC Topic: Measuring Canada's GDP Use the table below to answer the following questions. Table 20.2.3 14) Refer to Table 20.2.3. Consider the economy represented in the table. GDP in this economy, in millions of dollars, is A) $1,150,000 B) $850,000. C) $1,350,000. D) $1,050,000. E) none of the above. Answer: D Diff: 2 Type: MC Topic: Measuring Canada's GDP 15) Refer to Table 20.2.3. Consider the economy represented in the table. Total income, in millions of dollars, is A) $800,000. B) $850,000. C) $1,350,000. D) $1,050,000. E) none of the above. Answer: D
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Diff: 2 Type: MC Topic: Measuring Canada's GDP 16) Net domestic income at market prices can be derived by which one of the following? GDP (income approach) minus A) taxes. B) corporate profits. C) subsidies. D) consumption expenditure. E) depreciation. Answer: E Diff: 1 Type: MC Topic: Measuring Canada's GDP 17) The sum of wages, salaries and supplementary labour income, and other factor incomes is A) gross domestic product. B) gross domestic income. C) net domestic income at factor cost. D) net domestic product. E) total output of the economy. Answer: C Diff: 2 Type: MC Topic: Measuring Canada's GDP 18) In the Canadian economy, market prices and factor costs would be the same except for A) depreciation. B) exports. C) personal taxes. D) indirect taxes and subsidies. E) capital consumption. Answer: D Diff: 2 Type: MC Topic: Measuring Canada's GDP 19) Net domestic income at market prices equals A) consumption expenditure plus government expenditure plus net exports plus investment. B) consumption expenditure plus government expenditure plus exports plus personal taxes. C) indirect business taxes plus personal income plus net exports. D) all incomes plus indirect taxes minus subsidies. E) all incomes minus depreciation. Answer: D Diff: 1 Type: MC Topic: Measuring Canada's GDP
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Use the table below to answer the following questions. Table 20.2.4 Other factor incomes $570 Indirect taxes 230 Depreciation 250 Wages, salaries and supplementary labour income 1,350 Consumption expenditure 1,400 Government expenditure on goods and services 500 Government transfer payments 50 Net exports 40 Subsidies 0 20) Refer to Table 20.2.4. Gross domestic product is equal to A) $2,400. B) $1,920. C) $2,150. D) $1,940. E) $2,350. Answer: A Diff: 2 Type: MC Topic: Measuring Canada's GDP 21) Refer to Table 20.2.4. Net domestic income at market prices is equal to A) $2,150. B) $1,920. C) $2,400. D) $1,940. E) $2,350. Answer: A Diff: 2 Type: MC Topic: Measuring Canada's GDP 22) Refer to Table 20.2.4. Gross investment is equal to A) $460. B) $260. C) $400. D) $560. E) $250. Answer: A Diff: 3 Type: MC Topic: Measuring Canada's GDP
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23) Refer to Table 20.2.4. Net investment is equal to A) $250. B) $210. C) $510. D) $560. E) $150. Answer: B Diff: 3 Type: MC Topic: Measuring Canada's GDP 24) Which approach to measuring GDP is being used when Statistics Canada sums wages, salaries and supplementary labour income, and other factor incomes? A) opportunity cost approach B) expenditure approach C) value-added approach D) factor cost approach E) income approach Answer: E Diff: 1 Type: MC Topic: Measuring Canada's GDP 25) Which approach to measuring GDP is being used when Statistics Canada sums spending on goods and services for consumer goods, government, business investments and exports, net of imports? A) value added B) income C) factor cost D) expenditure E) opportunity cost Answer: D Diff: 1 Type: MC Topic: Measuring Canada's GDP 26) To derive net domestic income at market prices from gross domestic product, we A) subtract gross investment from GDP. B) subtract the statistical discrepancy from GDP. C) add the statistical discrepancy to GDP. D) subtract depreciation from GDP. E) add depreciation to GDP. Answer: D Diff: 1 Type: MC Topic: Measuring Canada's GDP
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27) To obtain the factor cost of a good from its market price A) add indirect taxes and subtract subsidies. B) subtract indirect taxes and add subsidies. C) subtract both indirect taxes and subsidies. D) add both indirect taxes and subsidies. E) subtract depreciation. Answer: B Diff: 1 Type: MC Topic: Measuring Canada's GDP Source: Study Guide 28) Wages, salaries, and supplementary labour income are components of which approach to measuring GDP? A) income approach B) expenditure approach C) injections approach D) output approach E) value-added approach Answer: A Diff: 1 Type: MC Topic: Measuring Canada's GDP 29) Real GDP equals A) nominal GDP minus the value of intermediate goods. B) nominal GDP adjusted for the depreciation of capital. C) the value of final goods and services produced in a given year when valued at the prices of a reference base year. D) nominal GDP minus the value of goods exported to foreign countries. E) nominal GDP minus the rate of inflation. Answer: C Diff: 1 Type: MC Topic: Measuring Canada's GDP 30) Suppose in current dollar terms, GDP increased by approximately 7 percent between one period and the next, but real GDP fell by 2 percent. Which one of the following explanations is most likely? A) Prices fell by 9 percent. B) Prices fell by 2 percent. C) Output rose by 2 percent. D) Prices increased by 7 percent. E) Prices increased by 9 percent. Answer: E Diff: 2 Type: MC Topic: Measuring Canada's GDP
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31) Real GDP will increase only if the A) average level of prices rises. B) quantity of goods and services produced increases. C) unemployment rate rises. D) employment rate rises. E) employment rate falls. Answer: B Diff: 1 Type: MC Topic: Measuring Canada's GDP 32) In recent history, real GDP has risen less rapidly than nominal GDP. This is because A) the general price level fell. B) capital increased. C) the goal of zero population growth has been reached. D) the general price level rose. E) the level of population rose. Answer: D Diff: 2 Type: MC Topic: Measuring Canada's GDP 33) If nominal GDP increased by 11 percent during a year while real GDP increased by only 5 percent, then the A) price level decreased by 6 percent. B) price level increased by 16 percent. C) price level remained steady but real output fell by 6 percent. D) unemployment rate fell during the year. E) price level increased by 6 percent. Answer: E Diff: 2 Type: MC Topic: Measuring Canada's GDP 34) If you want to investigate the claim that more goods and services were produced in the economy during 2011 than 2012, what should you look at? A) real GDP B) nominal GDP C) intermediate GDP D) GDP calculated using the expenditure approach E) either B or D Answer: A Diff: 1 Type: MC Topic: Measuring Canada's GDP
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35) Nominal GDP will increase A) only if the average level of prices rises. B) only if the quantity of goods and services produced increases. C) only if the unemployment rate rises. D) only if both the average level of prices rises and the quantity of goods and services produced increases. E) if either the average level of prices rises or the quantity of goods and services produced increases. Answer: E Diff: 2 Type: MC Topic: Measuring Canada's GDP Use the table below to answer the following questions. Table 20.2.5 Data From Southton 36) Refer to Table 20.2.5. From the data in the table, compute Southton's nominal GDP in the current year. A) $197 B) $208 C) $209 D) $226 E) It cannot be calculated given the data. Answer: C Diff: 2 Type: MC Topic: Measuring Canada's GDP Source: Study Guide 37) Refer to Table 20.2.5. From the data in the table, compute Southton's nominal GDP in the base year. A) $208 B) $197 C) $209 D) $226 E) It cannot be calculated given the data. Answer: A Diff: 2 Type: MC Topic: Measuring Canada's GDP Source: Study Guide
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38) Refer to Table 20.2.5. From the data in the table, compute Southton's real GDP in the base year. A) $208 B) $197 C) $209 D) $226 E) It cannot be calculated given the data. Answer: A Diff: 2 Type: MC Topic: Measuring Canada's GDP Source: Study Guide Use the table below to answer the following questions. Table 20.2.6 There are only two goods in this economy. 39) Refer to Table 20.2.6. Consider the data in this table. What is current nominal GDP? A) $189,900 B) $192,000 C) $95,000 D) $93,000 E) None of the above Answer: A Diff: 2 Type: MC Topic: Measuring Canada's GDP 40) Refer to Table 20.2.6. Consider the data in this table. What is current real GDP in terms of base-year prices? A) $189,900 B) $192,000 C) $95,000 D) $93,000 E) None of the above Answer: D Diff: 3 Type: MC Topic: Measuring Canada's GDP
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41) Choose the correct statement. A) When nominal GDP increases, real GDP decreases. B) Nominal GDP is just a more precise name for real GDP. C) We measure the change in production by comparing nominal GDP in one year with real GDP in the previous year. D) Nominal GDP is just a more precise name for GDP. E) Nominal GDP and real GDP both increase when the average level of prices increase. Answer: D Type: MC Topic: Measuring Canada's GDP Source: MyEconLab 42) A south sea island produces only coconuts. In 2005, the price of a coconut is $2.00 and the quantity produced is 400. In 2012, the price of a coconut is $1.50 and the quantity produced is 350. 2005 is the reference base year. Real GDP in 2012 in terms of base-year prices is A) $600. B) $525. C) $800. D) $700. E) $750. Answer: D Type: MC Topic: Measuring Canada's GDP Source: MyEconLab 43) In the National Income and Expenditure Accounts , government expenditure refers to spending on goods and services by A) federal and provincial governments only. B) the federal government only. Provincial and local government expenditures are included in provincial GDP calculations. C) provincial and local governments only. D) federal, provincial, and local governments. E) the federal government and local governments only. Provincial government expenditures are included in provincial GDP calculations. Answer: D Diff: 1 Type: MC Topic: Gross Domestic Product
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44) Consumption expenditure includes only ________. A) expenditure by Canadian households on goods and services produced in Canada B) expenditure by Canadian households and firms on goods and services produced in Canada C) expenditure by Canadian households, firms, and governments on goods and services produced in Canada D) expenditure by Canadian households on goods and services produced in Canada and in the rest of the world E) expenditure by Canadian households and foreigners on goods and services produced in Canada Answer: D Type: MC 45) The purchase of a new home is categorized as ________. A) consumption expenditure B) consumption expenditure and investment C) investment only if the home owners take out a mortgage D) investment E) consumption expenditure only if the home owners do not take out a mortgage Answer: D Type: MC 46) Government expenditure on goods and services ________. A) includes transfer payments B) includes expenditure by all levels of government on goods and services C) is always greater than consumption expenditure D) plus consumption expenditure equals aggregate expenditure E) plus consumption expenditure plus investment equals aggregate expenditure Answer: B Type: MC
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20.3 The Uses and Limitations of Real GDP 1) Which of the following items would be included in a current measure of GDP? A) Your labour in fixing a leaky pipe under your sink. B) The value of safety on the streets of your community. C) A professional gardener who regularly cuts your lawn. D) The illegal sale of a bag of marijuana. E) All of the above. Answer: C Diff: 1 Type: MC Topic: The Uses and Limitations of Real GDP 2) Suppose Angela falls in love with and subsequently marries her regularly employed housekeeper, Tony. What effect would this action have on GDP? A) It would stay the same. B) It would fall. C) It would rise. D) It would fall but then increase after the honeymoon was over. E) It depends on whether he starts to work in the house free of charge or whether she still pays him. Answer: E Diff: 2 Type: MC Topic: The Uses and Limitations of Real GDP 3) Since non-market exchanges are excluded from measures of GDP, the GDP measure tends to A) underestimate the total production of an economy. B) overestimate the total production of an economy. C) be of little significance in determining the total production of an economy. D) be of little use to anyone but market economists. E) place too much value on market transactions. Answer: A Diff: 2 Type: MC Topic: The Uses and Limitations of Real GDP 4) Which of the following is not a reason for GDP incorrectly measuring the value of total output? A) leisure time B) household production C) underground economic activity D) depreciation E) environmental quality Answer: D Diff: 2 Type: MC Topic: The Uses and Limitations of Real GDP Source: Study Guide
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5) The existence of which one of the following is not a reason for the fact that GDP gives an incorrect estimate of the value of total output in the economy? A) social justice B) political freedom C) health and life expectancy D) taxes E) leisure time Answer: D Diff: 2 Type: MC Topic: The Uses and Limitations of Real GDP 6) The existence of which one of the following is a reason for the fact that GDP gives an underestimated value of total output in the economy? A) pollution B) market activities C) underground economy D) depreciation E) environmental problems Answer: C Diff: 2 Type: MC Topic: The Uses and Limitations of Real GDP 7) The maximum level of real GDP that can be produced while avoiding shortages of labour, capital, land, and entrepreneurial ability that would bring rising inflation is A) real GDP. B) nominal GDP. C) actual GDP. D) potential GDP. E) productive GDP. Answer: D Type: MC Topic: The Uses and Limitations of Real GDP Skill: Recognition AACSB: Reflective Thinking 8) In any year, real GDP A) must always be less than potential GDP. B) might be greater than, less than, or equal to potential GDP. C) will always be greater than potential GDP because of the tendency of nations to incur inflation. D) always equals potential GDP. E) increases if potential GDP increases, and decreases if potential GDP decreases. Answer: B Type: MC Topic: The Uses and Limitations of Real GDP Skill: Conceptual AACSB: Reflective Thinking
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9) The business cycle is defined as the A) regular growth rate of the real GDP. B) regular fluctuations of real GDP below potential GDP. C) irregular fluctuations of prices around real GDP. D) periodic but irregular up-and-down movement of total production and other measures of economic activity. E) periodic and regular up-and-down movement of total production. Answer: D Type: MC Topic: The Uses and Limitations of Real GDP Skill: Recognition AACSB: Reflective Thinking 10) Business cycles are A) irregular, with some having two recessions and no expansion. B) predictable, with a recession following a trough. C) unpredictable, but always have two phases and two turning points. D) unpredictable, and don't always have two phases and two turning points. E) predictable with an expansion following a trough. Answer: C Type: MC Topic: The Uses and Limitations of Real GDP Skill: Recognition AACSB: Reflective Thinking 11) The four parts of the business cycle occur in the following order: A) recession, trough, peak, expansion. B) expansion, trough, peak, recession. C) recession, trough, expansion, peak. D) expansion, trough, recession, peak. E) trough, peak, expansion, recession. Answer: C Type: MC Topic: The Uses and Limitations of Real GDP Skill: Recognition AACSB: Reflective Thinking
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12) A recession is a period with A) negative growth rate in real GDP that lasts at least one quarter. B) positive growth rate in real GDP that lasts at least one quarter. C) positive growth rate in real GDP that lasts at least two quarters. D) negative growth rate in real GDP that lasts at least two quarters. E) a slowdown in real GDP growth but not necessarily negative real GDP growth. Answer: D Type: MC Topic: The Uses and Limitations of Real GDP Skill: Recognition AACSB: Reflective Thinking Use the figure below to answer the following questions. Figure 20.3.1 13) Refer to Figure 20.3.1. In the figure, the distance between points S and T represents A) an expansion. B) a trough. C) a peak. D) a recession. E) a business cycle. Answer: D Type: MC Topic: The Uses and Limitations of Real GDP Skill: Analytical AACSB: Analytical Skills
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14) Refer to Figure 20.3.1. In the figure, the distance between points T and U represents A) an expansion. B) a trough. C) a peak. D) a recession. E) a business cycle. Answer: A Type: MC Topic: The Uses and Limitations of Real GDP Skill: Analytical AACSB: Analytical Skills Use the figure below to answer the following questions. Figure 20.3.2 15) Refer to Figure 20.3.2. In the figure, a recession begins at point ________ and an expansion begins at point ________. A) A ; B B) B ; C C) B ; A D) D ; C E) C; D Answer: A Type: MC Topic: The Uses and Limitations of Real GDP Skill: Analytical AACSB: Analytical Skills
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16) Refer to Figure 20.3.2. In the figure, a trough is at point ________ and a peak is at point ________. A) A ; B B) B ; C C) B ; A D) D ; C E) C; D Answer: C Type: MC Topic: The Uses and Limitations of Real GDP Skill: Analytical AACSB: Analytical Skills 17) In comparing Canada and China we find that A) real GDP per person is about the same in the two countries. B) Canada's real GDP per person is less than China's real GDP per person once we adjust for currency differences. C) China's real GDP per person is less than real GDP per person in Canada. D) Canada's real GDP per person is much larger than China's real GDP per person when purchasing power parity prices are used but is less than China's real GDP per person when exchange rate prices are used. E) none of the above. Answer: C Type: MC Topic: The Uses and Limitations of Real GDP Skill: Recognition AACSB: Reflective Thinking 18) The underground economy is any economic activity that A) produces intermediate goods or services. B) is not taxed. C) is unreported or illegal. D) has negative social value. E) is conducted underground. Answer: C Diff: 1 Type: MC Topic: The Uses and Limitations of Real GDP Source: Study Guide
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19) Given that pollution is a by-product of some production processes, A) GDP accountants adjust GDP downward. B) GDP accountants adjust GDP upward. C) GDP accountants do not adjust GDP unless pollution is a serious problem. D) GDP tends to overstate economic well-being. E) GDP tends to understate economic well-being. Answer: D Diff: 2 Type: MC Topic: The Uses and Limitations of Real GDP Source: Study Guide 20) Which of the following statements by politicians is talking about the business cycle? A) "Canadian unemployment is falling due to the upturn in the economy." B) "Crime rates increase every spring as the school year ends." C) "An average of 220,000 new jobs are created each year in Canada." D) "More capital investment will create more jobs." E) "Business always rises just before Christmas." Answer: A Type: MC Topic: The Uses and Limitations of Real GDP Source: Study Guide 21) Why is the Human Development Index thought to be a better measure of economic well- being than real GDP per person? A) It includes a measure of resource depletion. B) It ignores health, which is hard to measure. C) It includes leisure time and household production. D) It includes health and education measures, as well as real GDP per person. E) It includes only health and education measures, ignoring real GDP per person. Answer: D Type: MC Topic: The Uses and Limitations of Real GDP Source: Study Guide 22) When we use PPP we can make valid international comparisons of real GDP because we A) calculate the value of goods and services produced in two countries using the same quantities. B) use data provided by the IMF. C) use the price data provided by the two countries but not the quantities. D) calculate the value of goods and services produced in two countries using the same prices. E) use official government data. Answer: D Type: MC Topic: The Uses and Limitations of Real GDP Source: MyEconLab
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23) All of the following statements are true except A) the Lucas wedge is the dollar value of the accumulated gap between what real GDP per person would have been if the 1960s growth rate had persisted and what real GDP per person turned out to be. B) the Lucas wedge accumulated to $400,000 per person by 2010. C) the Lucas wedge equals real GDP minus potential GDP. D) the Lucas wedge arises from the slowdown of productivity growth that began during the 1970s. E) real GDP per person was $30,700 per year lower in 2010 than it would have been with no growth slowdown. Answer: C Type: MC Topic: The Uses and Limitations of Real GDP Source: MyEconLab 24) Potential GDP is ________. A) the maximum amount of GDP that can be produced while avoiding shortages of labour, capital, land, and entrepreneurship that would bring rising inflation B) the same as real GDP C) the same as nominal GDP D) equal to real GDP multiplied by the price level E) equal to nominal GDP multiplied by the price level Answer: A Type: MC 25) Real GDP ________. A) fluctuates from year to year but is always below potential GDP B) grows at a constant 3 percent per year C) fluctuates around potential GDP D) equals potential GDP when the price level is constant E) equals potential GDP in the base year Answer: C Type: MC 26) What we produce during our working time is ________ as part of GDP and the enjoyment we gain from our leisure time is ________ as part of GDP. A) included; included B) not included; not included C) included; not included D) not included; included E) included; sometimes but not always included Answer: C Type: MC
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20.4 Mathematical Note: Chained-Dollar Real GDP Use the table below to answer the following questions. Table 20.4.1 Item 2011 Quantity 2011 Price 2012 Quantity 2012 Price CD players 10 $100 15 $110 bananas 50 bunches $2 100 bunches $3 1) Refer to Table 20.4.1. In this table, at 2011 prices, the value of production from 2011 to 2012 has increased by A) 77.3 percent. B) 54.5 percent. C) 10.8 percent. D) 91.7 percent. E) 56 percent. Answer: B Diff: 3 Type: MC Topic: Mathematical Note: Chained-Dollar Real GDP 2) Refer to Table 20.4.1. In this table, at 2012 prices, the value of production from 2011 to 2012 has increased by A) 56 percent. B) 91.7 percent. C) 10.8 percent. D) 54.5 percent. E) 77.3 percent. Answer: A Diff: 3 Type: MC Topic: Mathematical Note: Chained-Dollar Real GDP 3) Refer to Table 20.4.1. Calculating chained-dollar real GDP, real GDP in 2012 increased by A) 56 percent. B) 55.25 percent. C) 54.5 percent. D) 30 percent. E) 75 percent. Answer: B Diff: 3 Type: MC Topic: Mathematical Note: Chained-Dollar Real GDP
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4) Refer to Table 20.4.1. Chained-dollar real GDP in 2012 is A) $1665. B) $1950.5. C) $1707.75. D) $1250. E) $1100. Answer: C Diff: 3 Type: MC Topic: Mathematical Note: Chained-Dollar Real GDP 5) The reference base year is 2011. To calculate the chained-dollar real GDP in 2012 we calculate A) the value of the final goods and services produced in 2012 valued at the prices that prevailed in 2012. B) the value of the final goods and services produced in 2012 valued at the prices that prevailed in the base year. C) nominal GDP in 2012 multiplied by price level. D) the value of final goods and services produced in the base year valued at the 2012 prices. E) the base-year GDP and add the average of the increases in real GDP calculated using 2011 prices and 2012 prices. Answer: E Diff: 2 Type: MC Topic: Mathematical Note: Chained-Dollar Real GDP Source: Study Guide 6) At 2010 prices, the value of production in 2011 was 2 percentage points higher than in 2010. At 2011 prices, the value of production in 2011 was 4 percentage points higher than in 2010. The chained-dollar real GDP is ________ in 2011 than in 2010. A) 4 percent greater B) 3 percent greater C) 3 percent smaller D) 2 percent smaller E) 2 percent greater Answer: B Type: MC Topic: Mathematical Note: Chained-Dollar Real GDP Source: MyEconLab
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Use the table below to answer the following question. Table 20.4.2 In 2010 Item Quantity Price Digital cameras 7 $2 each Chocolate bars 2 $1 each Watches 3 $3 each In 2011 Item Quantity Price Digital cameras 1 $9 each Chocolate bars 6 $8 each Watches 9 $10 each 7) Refer to Table 20.4.2. An economy produces only digital cameras, chocolate bars, and watches. The table gives the quantities produced and prices in 2010 and 2011. The base year is 2010. The chained-dollar real GDP in 2011 is A) $34. B) $25. C) $147. D) $109. E) $36. Answer: A Type: MC Topic: Mathematical Note: Chained-Dollar Real GDP Source: MyEconLab
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Use the table below to answer the following question. Table 20.4.3 In 2010 Item Quantity Price Cell phones 2 $1 each Pens 9 $1 each Pizza 4 $1 each In 2011 Item Quantity Price Cell phones 8 $7 each Pens 4 $6 each Pizza 9 $5 each 8) Refer to Table 20.4.3. An economy produces only cell phones, pens, and pizza. The table gives the quantities produced and prices in 2010 and 2011. The base year is 2010. The chained-dollar real GDP in 2011 is A) $13. B) $21. C) $125. D) $88. E) $19. Answer: B Type: MC Topic: Mathematical Note: Chained-Dollar Real GDP Source: MyEconLab
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Use the table below to answer the following question. Table 20.4.4 Quantities 2011 2012 Bananas 1,000 bunches 1,100 bunches Coconuts 500 bunches 525 bunches Prices 2011 2012 Bananas $2 a bunch $3 a bunch Coconuts $10 a bunch $8 a bunch 9) Refer to Table 20.4.4. The table provides data on the economy of Tropical Republic that produces only bananas and coconuts. Nominal GDP in 2011 is ________. Nominal GDP in 2012 is ________. The chained-dollar real GDP in 2012 expressed in 2011 dollars is ________. A) $7,500; $7,000; $7,472.50 B) $7,472.50; $7,000; $7,500 C) $7,000; $7,500; $7,472.50 D) $7,472.50; $7,500; $7,000 E) $1,500; $1,625; $1,575 Answer: C Type: MC Topic: Mathematical Note: Chained-Dollar Real GDP Source: MyEconLab Chapter 21 Monitoring Jobs and Inflation 21.1 Employment and Unemployment 1) The working-age population is the total number of people A) in the labour force. B) in the labour force who are employed. C) aged 15 years and over. D) in the labour force, aged 15 years and over. E) in the labour force, aged 15 years and over, and employed. Answer: C Diff: 1 Type: MC Topic: Employment and Unemployment 2) Which one of the following people would be counted as unemployed in Canada? A) Veena is not working, but she is looking for a full-time job. B) Kathy has stopped looking for work since she was unable to find a suitable job during a one- month search. C) Sharon is a college student with a job. D) Christos has been laid off from his job a month ago, and has not been looking for a new job as he is waiting for a severance package from his former employer.
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E) Benoit who was laid off when his firm closed down 2 months ago and has not been looking for work as he is going back to school. Answer: A Diff: 2 Type: MC Topic: Employment and Unemployment 3) Which one of the following people would be counted as unemployed in Canada? A) Doris works only 5 hours a week but is looking for a full-time job. B) Kanhaya has stopped looking for work since he was unable to find a suitable job during a two-month search. C) Sharon recently began looking for work after staying at home for 10 years to look after her children. D) Maurice is on a 2 month vacation out of the country but is still looking for a job using the internet. E) Taylor is a homemaker. Answer: C Diff: 2 Type: MC Topic: Employment and Unemployment
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4) Which one of the following people would be counted as unemployed in Canada? A) Simone is currently working but expects to be laid off by the end of the month, before next month's survey can be completed. B) Ruth is a 14-year-old student and has been looking for an after-school job every day for the past month. C) Sarah has been looking for a job but is taking a month-long break from the job-seeking effort due to her lack of skills. D) Rebekah is a recent graduate looking for work. E) Ron has quit looking because he believes that there is no work available for him. Answer: D Diff: 2 Type: MC Topic: Employment and Unemployment 5) Which one of the following people would be counted as unemployed in Canada? A) a part-time worker who repeatedly expresses a desire to become a full-time worker B) a person who has been seeking a job for the last six months, but recently gave up looking because he was discouraged by his job prospects C) a person who will be starting a new job in 6 months D) a person who expects to be laid off by the end of the month before next month's survey can be completed E) a person who has been laid off for 10 weeks and is not looking for a job because he is waiting to be called back to his old job Answer: E Diff: 2 Type: MC Topic: Employment and Unemployment 6) The labour force is A) the total number of people employed. B) the total number of people aged 15 years and over. C) the total number of people in the working-age population who are employed. D) the total number of people in the working-age population who are either employed or unemployed. E) none of the above. Answer: D Diff: 1 Type: MC Topic: Employment and Unemployment 7) The unemployment rate is defined as the number of A) unemployed people divided by the number of employed people. B) employed people divided by the number of people in the country. C) unemployed people divided by the number of people in the country. D) unemployed people divided by the sum of the people employed and the people unemployed. E) unemployed people divided by the number of people in the country who are employed. Answer: D Diff: 1 Type: MC Topic: Employment and Unemployment
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8) Counting involuntary part-time workers as unemployed would A) not change the actual unemployment rate. B) lower the measured unemployment rate. C) raise the natural unemployment rate. D) raise the full employment rate. E) raise the measured unemployment rate. Answer: E Diff: 2 Type: MC Topic: Employment and Unemployment 9) Who of the following would be counted as unemployed in Canada? A) Doris only works five hours a week but is looking for a full-time job. B) Kanhaya has stopped looking for work since he was unable to find a suitable job during a two-month search. C) Sharon is a college student with no job. D) Maurice has been laid off from his job for 20 weeks but expects to be called back soon. E) Bogdan has been laid off from his job but does not expect to be called back, and is not looking. Answer: D Diff: 2 Type: MC Topic: Employment and Unemployment Source: Study Guide 10) Who of the following would be counted as unemployed in Canada? A) Caitlin, who is 14 years old, and looking for a babysitting job. B) James, who is a full-time student looking for a part-time job. C) Youngmin, who is a part-time hamburger flipper looking for a full-time job. D) Emmanuel, who lost his job at the steel plant when an automated assembly line was introduced six months ago, and has been job searching every day. E) Vik, who has been staying at home watching "The Old and the Boring" soap opera, and not searching since he was laid off at the flour mill. Answer: D Diff: 2 Type: MC Topic: Employment and Unemployment 11) If the working-age population increases, then A) the size of the labour force will increase. B) the number of people employed will increase. C) the unemployment rate will increase. D) the labour force participation rate will increase. E) the total number of people aged 15 years and above will increase. Answer: E Diff: 2 Type: MC Topic: Employment and Unemployment
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12) In a country with a working-age population of 20 million, 13 million are employed, 1.5 million are unemployed, and 1 million of the employed are working part-time, half of whom wish to work full-time. The size of the labour force is A) 20 million. B) 15.5 million. C) 14.5 million. D) 13 million. E) 11.5 million. Answer: C Diff: 2 Type: MC Topic: Employment and Unemployment Source: Study Guide 13) In a country with a working-age population of 20 million, 13 million are employed, 1.5 million are unemployed, and 1 million of the employed are working part-time, half of whom wish to work full-time. The labour force participation rate is A) 75.5 percent. B) 72.5 percent. C) 65 percent. D) 57.5 percent. E) none of the above. Answer: B Diff: 2 Type: MC Topic: Employment and Unemployment Source: Study Guide 14) In a country with a working-age population of 22 million, 16 million are employed, 2 million are unemployed, and 1 million of the employed are working part-time, half of whom wish to work full-time. The unemployment rate is A) 10 percent. B) 10.3 percent. C) 11.1 percent. D) 15.4 percent. E) none of the above. Answer: C Diff: 2 Type: MC Topic: Employment and Unemployment
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15) In a country with a working-age population of 22 million, 16 million are employed, 2 million are unemployed, and 1 million of the employed are working part-time, half of whom wish to work full-time. The employment-to-population ratio is A) 72.7 percent. B) 65 percent. C) 75.5 percent. D) 57.5 percent. E) none of the above. Answer: A Diff: 2 Type: MC Topic: Employment and Unemployment 16) In a country with a working-age population of 22 million, 16 million are employed, 2 million are unemployed, and 1 million of the employed are working part-time, half of whom wish to work full-time. The involuntary part-time rate is A) 6.3 percent. B) 12.5 percent. C) 2.8 percent. D) 5 percent. E) none of the above. Answer: C Diff: 3 Type: MC Topic: Employment and Unemployment 17) In a country with a working-age population of 30 million, 18 million are employed, 2 million are unemployed, and 2 million of the employed are working part-time, half of whom wish to work full-time. The labour force is A) 30 million. B) 18 million. C) 20 million. D) 22 million. E) 16 million. Answer: C Diff: 1 Type: MC Topic: Employment and Unemployment 18) In a country with a working-age population of 30 million, 18 million are employed, 2 million are unemployed, and 2 million of the employed are working part-time, half of whom wish to work full-time. The labour force participation rate is A) 73.3 percent. B) 66.7 percent. C) 60 percent. D) 53.3 percent. E) none of the above. Answer: B Diff: 2 Type: MC Topic: Employment and Unemployment
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19) In a country with a working-age population of 30 million, 18 million are employed, 2 million are unemployed, and 2 million of the employed are working part-time, half of whom wish to work full-time. The unemployment rate is A) 10 percent. B) 9.1 percent. C) 14.3 percent. D) 11.1 percent. E) none of the above. Answer: A Diff: 2 Type: MC Topic: Employment and Unemployment 20) In a country with a working-age population of 30 million, 18 million are employed, 2 million are unemployed, and 2 million of the employed are working part-time, half of whom wish to work full-time. The employment-to-population ratio is A) 73.3 percent. B) 66.7 percent. C) 60 percent. D) 53.3 percent. E) none of the above. Answer: C Diff: 2 Type: MC Topic: Employment and Unemployment 21) In a country with a working-age population of 30 million, 18 million are employed, 2 million are unemployed, and 2 million of the employed are working part-time, half of whom wish to work full-time. The involuntary part-time rate is A) 10 percent. B) 5 percent. C) 4.8 percent. D) 4.5 percent. E) none of the above. Answer: B Diff: 2 Type: MC Topic: Employment and Unemployment 22) Which of the following reflects an increase in unemployment? A) an increase in the employment-to-population ratio B) a decrease in the unemployment rate C) an increase in the labour force participation rate D) an increase in the involuntary part-time rate E) none of the above Answer: E Diff: 2 Type: MC Topic: Employment and Unemployment
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23) The labour force participation rate is A) the percentage of the working-age population who are employed. B) the percentage of the labour force who are unemployed or employed. C) the percentage of the working-age population who are either unemployed or employed. D) the percentage of the labour force who are employed. E) none of the above. Answer: C Diff: 2 Type: MC Topic: Employment and Unemployment 24) The employment-to-population ratio is A) the percentage of the working-age population who are employed. B) the percentage of the labour force who are unemployed or employed. C) the percentage of the working-age population who are unemployed or employed. D) the percentage of the labour force who are employed. E) none of the above. Answer: A Diff: 1 Type: MC Topic: Employment and Unemployment 25) In a recession, typically A) unemployment rises. B) the employment-to-population ratio decreases. C) the employment-to-population rate rises. D) the labour force participation rate rises. E) both A and B are correct. Answer: E Diff: 2 Type: MC Topic: Employment and Unemployment 26) In a recession, typically A) unemployment decreases. B) the labour force participation rate increases. C) the employment-to-population ratio decreases. D) the employment-to-population ratio increases. E) none of the above. Answer: C Diff: 1 Type: MC Topic: Employment and Unemployment
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27) Complete the following sentence. In an expansion, typically A) unemployment increases. B) the labour force participation rate increases. C) the employment-to-population ratio decreases. D) employment decreases. E) both B and D are correct. Answer: B Diff: 1 Type: MC Topic: Employment and Unemployment 28) Which of the following pieces of information do you need to calculate the labour force participation rate? I. the number of employed persons II. the number of unemployed persons III. the population IV. the working age population A) I and II B) I and III C) I, II and III D) I, II and IV E) all of the above Answer: D Type: MC Topic: Employment and Unemployment Skill: Recognition AACSB: Reflective Thinking 29) Since 1960, Canadian labour force participation rate has ________ and the unemployment rate has ________. A) trended higher; trended higher B) trended lower; varied over the business cycle C) varied over the business cycle; trended higher D) trended higher; varied over the business cycle E) trended higher; trended lower Answer: D Type: MC Topic: Employment and Unemployment Skill: Recognition AACSB: Reflective Thinking
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30) If the people who take early retirement are not counted in the working-age population, then A) the unemployment rate would be lower. B) the labour force participation rate would be less. C) the unemployment rate would be higher. D) the labour force participation rate would be higher. E) none of the above. Answer: D Type: MC Topic: Employment and Unemployment Skill: Conceptual AACSB: Reflective Thinking 31) If the labour force participation rate is rising and the working-age population is not changing, then the A) size of the labour force is rising. B) number of unemployed people is rising and the size of the labour force is falling. C) size of the labour force is falling. D) number of unemployed people is falling and the size of the labour force is rising. E) number of employed people must be increasing. Answer: A Type: MC Topic: Employment and Unemployment Skill: Analytical AACSB: Reflective Thinking 32) The working-age population can be divided into two groups: A) those who are employed and those who are unemployed. B) those in the labour force and discouraged workers. C) those who work full time and those who work part time. D) those in the labour force and those not in the labour force. E) those who are over the age of 15 and those who are under the age of 15. Answer: D Type: MC 33) Which of the following statements is incorrect? A) The labour force is equal to the number of people employed plus the number of people unemployed. B) The unemployment rate is the number of persons who are unemployed divided by the labour force, all multiplied by 100. C) The labour-force participation rate is the labour force divided by the working-age population, all multiplied by 100. D) The employment-to-population ratio is the number of people employed divided by the working-age population, all multiplied by 100. E) The involuntary part-time rate is the number of involuntary part-time workers divided by the number employed, all multiplied by 100. Answer: E Type: MC
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34) Which of the following is NOT included in the working-age population? A) discouraged workers B) involuntary part-time workers C) retired workers D) students over the age of 15 E) All of the above are included in the working-age population. Answer: E Type: MC 35) Suppose the working-age population in Tiny Town is 100 people. If 25 of these people are not in the labour force, the ________ equals ________. A) labour force; 75 people B) unemployment rate; 25 percent C) unemployment rate; 33 percent D) employment-to-population ratio; 25 percent E) employment-to-population ratio; 75 percent Answer: A Type: MC
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21.2 Unemployment and Full Employment 1) In a country with a working-age population of 22 million, 16 million are employed, 2 million are unemployed, and 1 million of the employed are working part-time, half of whom wish to work full-time. If 500,000 of those unemployed are cyclically unemployed, what is the natural unemployment rate? A) 11.1 percent B) 5.6 percent C) 8.3 percent D) 9.4 percent E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 3 Type: MC Topic: Unemployment and Full Employment 2) In a country with a working-age population of 30 million, 18 million are employed, 2 million are unemployed, and 2 million of the employed are working part-time, half of whom wish to work full-time. If 1 million of those unemployed are cyclically unemployed, what is the natural unemployment rate? A) 5.6 percent B) 5 percent C) 6.7 percent D) 11.1 percent E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 3 Type: MC Topic: Unemployment and Full Employment 3) Which one of the following people is structurally unemployed? A) a Saskatchewan welder who lost her job when her company relocated to B. C. and is currently looking for a job B) a Nova Scotia fishery worker who is searching for a better job closer to home C) a steel worker who is laid off but who expects to be called back soon D) an office worker who has lost her job because of a general slowdown in economic activity E) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 2 Type: MC Topic: Unemployment and Full Employment Source: Study Guide
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4) Unemployment caused by permanently decreased demand for horse-drawn carriages is an example of A) cyclical unemployment. B) seasonal unemployment. C) frictional unemployment. D) structural unemployment. E) discouraged unemployment. Answer: D Diff: 2 Type: MC Topic: Unemployment and Full Employment Source: Study Guide 5) Which one of the following people is cyclically unemployed? A) a Saskatchewan welder who lost her job when her company relocated to B. C. and is currently looking for a job B) a Nova Scotia fishery worker who is searching for a better job closer to home C) a steel worker who is laid off but who expects to be called back soon D) an office worker who has lost her job because of a general slowdown in economic activity E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 2 Type: MC Topic: Unemployment and Full Employment Source: Study Guide 6) Which one of the following people is frictionally unemployed? A steel worker who A) loses her job because of technological change. B) is laid off but expects to be called back soon. C) gives up her job because she retires. D) decides to leave the labour force and become a full-time ballet student. E) becomes discouraged and stops looking for a job. Answer: B Diff: 2 Type: MC Topic: Unemployment and Full Employment Source: Study Guide 7) If the economy is at full employment, then A) the entire population is employed. B) the entire labour force is employed. C) the only unemployment is frictional unemployment plus discouraged workers. D) the unemployment rate is less than 3 percent. E) all unemployment arises from normal frictions and structural change. Answer: E Diff: 2 Type: MC Topic: Unemployment and Full Employment
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8) The natural unemployment rate is A) equal to 0 percent. B) the same as the cyclical unemployment rate. C) the rate at which cyclical unemployment is equal to 6 percent. D) the rate at which cyclical unemployment is equal to 0 percent. E) none of the above. Answer: D Diff: 1 Type: MC Topic: Unemployment and Full Employment Source: Study Guide 9) At full employment, there is no A) natural unemployment. B) unemployment. C) cyclical unemployment. D) structural unemployment. E) frictional unemployment. Answer: C Diff: 2 Type: MC Topic: Unemployment and Full Employment Source: Study Guide 10) A zero percent unemployment rate A) is one of the economic goals of the Canadian government. B) would alleviate scarcity. C) is not consistent with the notion of full employment. D) was last achieved during World War II when everyone was willing to work at the going wage rate to end the war. E) is the only efficient unemployment rate. Answer: C Diff: 2 Type: MC Topic: Unemployment and Full Employment 11) Complete the following sentence. Full employment A) occurs when all unemployment is cyclical and structural. B) occurs when all unemployment is frictional and discouraged. C) occurs when there is zero unemployment. D) occurs when there is zero frictional unemployment. E) occurs when there is zero cyclical unemployment. Answer: E Diff: 2 Type: MC Topic: Unemployment and Full Employment
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Use the table below to answer the following questions. Table 21.2.1 This table shows the answers given by interviewees to the Labour Force Survey Person A Now that kids are in school full-time, this person is looking for work and has been interviewed for three jobs over the past 2 weeks. Person B This person has been laid off but expects to be called back in a few weeks, just as soon as the economy improves. Person C This person has just graduated from university and will start a new job in 8 weeks. In the meantime, this person is surveying local drinking establishments. Person D This person was laid off last year when new equipment at the plant reduced the number of jobs. Since his layoff, this person has been constantly job searching. Person E This economics graduate is working two nights a week at the 7-11, but wants full-time work as an economist. 12) In Table 21.2.1, which person is frictionally unemployed? A) A B) B C) C D) E E) none of them Answer: A Diff: 2 Type: MC Topic: Unemployment and Full Employment 13) In Table 21.2.1, which person is structurally unemployed? A) A B) B C) C D) D E) none of them Answer: D Diff: 2 Type: MC Topic: Unemployment and Full Employment
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14) In Table 21.2.1, which person is cyclically unemployed? A) A B) B C) C D) D and B E) A and C Answer: B Diff: 2 Type: MC Topic: Unemployment and Full Employment 15) In Table 21.2.1, which person is a discouraged worker? A) A B) B C) C D) D E) none of them Answer: E Diff: 2 Type: MC Topic: Unemployment and Full Employment 16) Structural unemployment arises in part because A) there are not enough jobs available. B) of technological change. C) people become discouraged when they cannot find jobs. D) people will not quit their present jobs until they can find suitable employment elsewhere. E) of unrealistic wage expectations. Answer: B Diff: 2 Type: MC Topic: Unemployment and Full Employment 17) Full employment does not mean that there is zero unemployment because A) some cyclical unemployment is always present. B) some frictional and structural unemployment is always present. C) business fluctuations are inevitable. D) of the existence of discouraged workers. E) of unrealistic wage expectations. Answer: B Diff: 2 Type: MC Topic: Unemployment and Full Employment
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18) In a dynamic economy under ideal conditions, the unemployment rate A) should be zero. B) is greater than zero percent due to natural unemployment. C) increases as the price level rises. D) decreases as the price level falls. E) averages 6 percent. Answer: B Diff: 2 Type: MC Topic: Unemployment and Full Employment 19) If the economy is operating at full employment, then A) everyone who wants a job has one. B) the entire labour force is employed. C) the unemployment rate is approximately 3 percent. D) the unemployment rate is zero. E) none of the above. Answer: E Diff: 1 Type: MC Topic: Unemployment and Full Employment 20) Jesse just graduated from university, and is looking for her first job. Jesse is A) frictionally unemployed. B) structurally unemployed. C) not unemployed. D) cyclically unemployed. E) not in the labour force. Answer: A Diff: 2 Type: MC Topic: Unemployment and Full Employment 21) Caitlin is working part-time at the Mr. G store, but wants to work full-time. She is A) frictionally unemployed. B) structurally unemployed. C) not in the labour force. D) cyclically unemployed. E) none of the above. Answer: E Diff: 2 Type: MC Topic: Unemployment and Full Employment
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22) Michael lost his job as a night security guard because he kept falling asleep at the job. Now he is looking for a new job. Michael is A) frictionally unemployed. B) structurally unemployed. C) not unemployed. D) cyclically unemployed. E) none of the above. Answer: A Diff: 2 Type: MC Topic: Unemployment and Full Employment 23) Rochelle lost her job as a salesperson when sales fell off during the recession. Now she is looking for a new job. Rochelle is A) frictionally unemployed. B) structurally unemployed. C) not unemployed. D) cyclically unemployed. E) none of the above. Answer: D Diff: 2 Type: MC Topic: Unemployment and Full Employment 24) Henelyn lost her job as a factory worker when she was replaced by a robotic machine. Now she is looking for a new job. Henelyn is A) frictionally unemployed. B) structurally unemployed. C) not unemployed. D) cyclically unemployed. E) none of the above. Answer: B Diff: 2 Type: MC Topic: Unemployment and Full Employment 25) People become unemployed when they A) retire. B) are on maternity leave. C) quit working to go to university. D) leave university and start seeking work. E) all of the above. Answer: D Diff: 1 Type: MC Topic: Unemployment and Full Employment
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26) People end unemployment when they A) retire from a job. B) quit work to go to school. C) quit work to raise a family. D) are recalled from a layoff. E) are laid off. Answer: D Diff: 1 Type: MC Topic: Unemployment and Full Employment 27) Counting discouraged workers as unemployed would A) not change the measured unemployment rate. B) lower the measured unemployment rate. C) raise the natural unemployment rate. D) raise the full employment rate. E) raise the measured unemployment rate. Answer: E Diff: 2 Type: MC Topic: Unemployment and Full Employment Source: Study Guide 28) If the number of discouraged workers increases, everything else remaining the same, then the A) unemployment rate will increase. B) employment-to-population ratio will decrease. C) labour force participation rate will increase. D) labour force participation rate will decrease. E) employment-to-population ratio will increase. Answer: D Diff: 2 Type: MC Topic: Unemployment and Full Employment Source: Study Guide 29) If the number of discouraged workers decreases because many of them start to look for work, everything else remaining the same, then the A) unemployment rate will increase. B) employment-to-population ratio will decrease. C) labour force participation rate will increase. D) labour force participation rate will decrease. E) both A and C. Answer: E Diff: 2 Type: MC Topic: Unemployment and Full Employment
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30) Suppose the economy is experiencing frictional unemployment of 1 percent, structural unemployment of 3 percent and cyclical unemployment of 4 percent. What is the natural unemployment rate? A) 3 percent B) 4 percent C) 5 percent D) 7 percent E) 8 percent Answer: B Type: MC Topic: Unemployment and Full Employment Skill: Analytical AACSB: Reflective Thinking 31) Suppose that the natural unemployment rate is 4.5 percent and the actual unemployment rate is 3.5 percent. Then cyclical unemployment is A) 1 percent. B) -1 percent. C) 8 percent. D) 0 percent. E) 3.5 percent. Answer: B Type: MC Topic: Unemployment and Full Employment Skill: Analytical AACSB: Reflective Thinking 32) Suppose that the unemployment rate equals 4.5 percent and that the natural unemployment rate is 5.5 percent. We can conclude that A) potential GDP is greater than real GDP. B) potential GDP equals real GDP. C) potential GDP is less than real GDP. D) we have mismeasured the natural unemployment rate. E) real GDP is greater than nominal GDP. Answer: C Type: MC Topic: Unemployment and Full Employment Skill: Conceptual AACSB: Reflective Thinking
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33) If the economy is at full employment, A) the entire population is employed. B) the entire labour force is employed. C) the only unemployment is frictional unemployment plus discouraged workers. D) real GDP equals potential GDP. E) all unemployment is cyclical and structural. Answer: D Type: MC Topic: Unemployment and Full Employment Skill: Recognition AACSB: Reflective Thinking 34) When the unemployment rate is less than the natural unemployment rate, real GDP is ________ than potential GDP and the output gap is ________. A) greater; positive B) smaller; positive C) greater; negative D) smaller; negative E) greater; equal to zero Answer: A Type: MC Topic: Unemployment and Full Employment Skill: Recognition Source: MyEconLab AACSB: Reflective Thinking 35) When the unemployment rate ________ the natural unemployment rate, real GDP ________ potential GDP. A) equal; is less than B) is greater than; is less than C) is less than; is less than D) equals; is greater than E) is greater than; equals Answer: B Type: MC Topic: Unemployment and Full Employment Skill: Recognition Source: MyEconLab AACSB: Reflective Thinking
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36) Some unemployment is unavoidable because ________. A) people are making transitions through the stages of life and businesses are making transitions B) many part-time workers would like to have full-time work C) often people become discouraged workers D) many people in the working-age population attend school and are unemployed E) there is always some cyclical unemployment Answer: A Type: MC Topic: Unemployment and Full Employment Skill: Recognition Source: MyEconLab AACSB: Reflective Thinking 37) The official unemployment rate might underestimate the underutilization of labour resources for all of the following reasons except ________. A) it excludes part-time workers who want full-time jobs B) it excludes discouraged workers C) it excludes marginally attached workers D) it excludes people who are waiting to be called back to jobs from which they have been laid off E) the official unemployment rate excludes all of the above Answer: D Type: MC Topic: Unemployment and Full Employment Skill: Recognition Source: MyEconLab AACSB: Reflective Thinking 38) The unemployment rate is supposed to measure ________. It is an imperfect measure because ________. A) the number of unemployed plus the number of marginally attached workers expressed as a percentage of the labour force; it excludes the marginally attached workers because Statistics Canada considers them as employed B) the percentage of the working-age population who are unemployed; it is impossible to count everyone in the working-age population C) the percentage of the labour force who are unemployed; it is impossible to count everyone in the labour force D) the underutilization of labour resources; it excludes some underutilized labour and some unemployment is unavoidable E) the underutilization of labour resources; it includes part-time workers and excludes discouraged workers Answer: D Type: MC Topic: Unemployment and Full Employment Skill: Recognition Source: MyEconLab AACSB: Reflective Thinking
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39) The three types of unemployment are A) frictional, structural, and involuntary. B) voluntary, involuntary, and natural. C) voluntary, involuntary, and cyclical. D) frictional, structural, and cyclical. E) cyclical, maternity leave, and paternity leave. Answer: D Type: MC 40) Frictional unemployment ________. A) includes discouraged workers B) is voluntary part-time unemployment C) includes workers who have lost their jobs due to an economic downturn D) is unemployment associated with normal labour turnover E) occurs when changes in technology change the skills needed to perform jobs Answer: D Type: MC 41) Suppose the country of Tiny Town experiences frictional unemployment. This frictional unemployment would A) signal that the country is in a recession. B) be considered a natural occurrence in a growing economy. C) signal the number of discouraged workers is growing. D) increase structural unemployment. E) decrease the output gap. Answer: B Type: MC
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21.3 The Price Level, Inflation, and Deflation 1) The reference base period is 2002. A consumer price index of 122 in 2012 means that A) prices of consumer goods have gone up by a factor of 12.2. B) if the price of a good was $100 in 2002, its price in 2012 is $122. C) prices of consumer goods have more than doubled. D) the market basket of consumer goods that cost $122 in 2002 can be purchased for $100 in 2012. E) the average of the prices paid by urban consumers for a fixed market basket of consumer goods and services was 22 percent higher in 2012 than it was on average during 2002. Answer: E Diff: 1 Type: MC Topic: The Price Level and Inflation 2) If the CPI was 128 at the end of 2011 and 136 and the end of 2012, what was the inflation rate in 2012? A) 4.2 percent B) 5.9 percent C) 6.25 percent D) 8 percent E) 9.4 percent Answer: C Diff: 2 Type: MC Topic: The Price Level and Inflation 3) If the CPI was 95 at the end of 2011 and 105 at the end of 2012, what was the inflation rate in 2012? A) 10 percent B) 105 percent C) 9.5 percent D) 5 percent E) 10.5 percent Answer: E Diff: 2 Type: MC Topic: The Price Level and Inflation 4) If the CPI was 228 at the end of 2011 and 236 at the end of 2012, what was the inflation rate in 2012? A) 8 percent B) 236 percent C) 3.5 percent D) 3.4 percent E) 4 percent Answer: C Diff: 2 Type: MC Topic: The Price Level and Inflation
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5) If the CPI was 140 at the end of 2011 and 150 at the end of 2012, what was the inflation rate in 2012? A) 7.14 percent B) 10 percent C) 6.25 percent D) 8 percent E) 6.67 percent Answer: A Diff: 2 Type: MC Topic: The Price Level and Inflation 6) If the CPI was 180 at the end of 2011, and 216 at the end of 2012, the inflation rate in 2012 was A) 216 percent. B) 36 percent. C) 16.67 percent. D) 20 percent. E) 18 percent. Answer: D Diff: 2 Type: MC Topic: The Price Level and Inflation 7) The cost of the CPI basket in base-period prices is $200 and the cost of the CPI basket in current-period prices is $450. The CPI in the current year is A) 450. B) 225. C) 300. D) 250. E) 44.44. Answer: B Diff: 2 Type: MC Topic: The Price Level and Inflation 8) The consumer price index is a measure of A) the average of the prices paid by urban consumers for a fixed basket of consumer goods and services. B) the commodity prices paid by urban consumers for a fixed basket of consumer goods and services. C) the consumer prices paid by average households for a fixed basket of goods and services. D) the average of the prices paid by rural consumers for a fixed basket of consumer goods and services. E) the lowest prices paid by urban consumers for a fixed basket of consumer goods and services. Answer: A Diff: 2 Type: MC Topic: The Price Level and Inflation
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9) The inflation rate measures A) the annual change in the price level. B) the annual percentage change in the price level. C) the average price level. D) the annual percentage change in the wage rate. E) none of the above. Answer: B Diff: 2 Type: MC Topic: The Price Level and Inflation Use the table below to answer the following questions. Table 21.3.1 Suppose a simple economy produces three goods only. The price and output data for some selected years are shown below. Price (dollars) Price (dollars) Quantity (number) Quantity (number) 2002 2012 2002 2012 Pop Crackers Cucumbers 0.75 1.25 2.00 1.10 2.10 3.00 100 300 200 120 280 190 10) Refer to Table 21.3.1. The reference base period is 2002. The CPI in 2012 is A) 1,340. B) 158. C) 100. D) 96. E) 63. Answer: B Diff: 3 Type: MC Topic: The Price Level and Inflation 11) Refer to Table 21.3.1. The reference base period is 2002. Which one of the following statements is true? A) From 2002 to 2012, the cost of the market basket rose by 58 percent. B) It costs 158 times more in 2012 than it does in 2002 to buy the same market basket. C) All prices have risen by the same amount. D) The inflation rate in 2012 is greater than the inflation rate in 2002. E) The inflation rate in 2002 is greater than the inflation rate in 2012. Answer: A Diff: 3 Type: MC Topic: The Price Level and Inflation
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12) Refer to Table 21.3.1. The reference base period is 2002. the CPI in 2002 is A) 1,340. B) 158. C) 100. D) 96. E) 63. Answer: C Diff: 2 Type: MC Topic: The Price Level and Inflation 13) Refer to Table 21.3.1. The reference base period is 2008. The CPI in 2002 is A) 100. B) 157. C) 129. D) 63. E) 152. Answer: D Diff: 3 Type: MC Topic: The Price Level and Inflation 14) Refer to Table 21.3.1. The reference base period is 2012. The CPI in 2012 is A) 100. B) 157. C) 129. D) 64. E) 153. Answer: A Diff: 2 Type: MC Topic: The Price Level and Inflation 15) If the CPI in 2008 was 100 and the CPI in 2006 was 115, then the inflation rate in 2006 is A) 1.5 percent. B) 100 percent. C) 11.5 percent. D) 115 percent. E) none of the above. Answer: E Diff: 2 Type: MC Topic: The Price Level and Inflation
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16) The fixed basket of Econoland consists of 10 units of A , 20 units of B , and 30 units of C . Current prices are $1 per unit of A , $2 per unit of B , and $3 per unit of C . Base year prices are $1 for each unit of A , B , and C . What is the CPI in the current year? A) 43 B) 100 C) 233 D) 430 E) 140 Answer: C Diff: 3 Type: MC Topic: The Price Level and Inflation 17) The Consumer Price Index measures inflation by using A) all goods and services that are produced using a current-year basket. B) all goods and services that are produced using a base-year basket. C) only consumption goods and services purchased using a current-year basket. D) only consumption goods and services purchased using a base-year basket. E) A and D. Answer: D Diff: 2 Type: MC Topic: The Price Level and Inflation 18) The technique used to calculate the CPI implicitly assumes that consumers buy A) relatively more of goods with relative prices that are increasing. B) relatively less of goods with relative prices that are decreasing. C) the same relative quantities of goods as in a base year. D) goods and services whose quality improves at the rate of growth of real GDP. E) more computers and CD players and fewer black-and-white TVs. Answer: C Diff: 2 Type: MC Topic: The Price Level and Inflation Source: Study Guide 19) If there is a 5 percent increase in the CPI, then there will most likely be A) a 5 percent rise in the cost of living. B) a less than 5 percent rise in the cost of living because of consumers substituting away from goods whose relative prices rise towards other goods. C) a more than 5 percent rise in the cost of living because of consumers substituting away from goods whose relative prices rise towards other goods. D) a less than 5 percent rise in the cost of living because of falling quality of goods over time. E) a more than 5 percent rise in the cost of living because of the introduction of new goods. Answer: B Diff: 2 Type: MC Topic: The Price Level and Inflation
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20) All of the following are possible sources of bias in using the Consumer Price Index to measure inflation except A) the introduction of new goods. B) an improvement in the quality of goods. C) commodity substitution. D) an increase in the cost of living E) Both C and D are exceptions. Answer: D Diff: 2 Type: MC Topic: The Price Level and Inflation 21) If prices at Wendy's rise, more consumers buy their meals at McDonald's and fewer consumers buy their meals at Wendy's. This is an example of A) consumers' action to boycott Wendy's. B) outlet substitution. C) commodity substitution. D) both A and B. E) both B and C. Answer: B Diff: 2 Type: MC Topic: The Price Level and Inflation 22) Suppose a trade union and a firm agree to increase the wage rate by the same percentage as the increase in the Consumer Price Index. If the CPI increases by 5 percent, then the real income of workers will A) increase by 5 percent as well. B) remain unchanged, accounting for bias in the calculation of the CPI. C) decrease by 5 percent, accounting for bias in the calculation of the CPI. D) increase by more than 5 percent, accounting for bias in the calculation of the CPI. E) increase by less than 5 percent, accounting for bias in the calculation of the CPI. Answer: D Diff: 3 Type: MC Topic: The Price Level and Inflation
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Use the table below to answer the following question. Table 21.3.2 Data From Southton Price (dollars) Price (dollars) Quantity (number) Quantity (number) Item Base Current Base Current Rubber Ducks Beach Towels 1.00 9.00 1.25 6.00 100 12 100 14 23) Refer to Table 21.3.2. From the data in Table 21.3.2, what is Southton's consumer price index for the current year? A) 112 B) 105.6 C) 100.5 D) 100 E) 94.7 Answer: E Diff: 2 Type: MC Topic: The Price Level and Inflation Source: Study Guide 24) Comparing the core inflation rate to the Consumer Price Index, the core inflation rate A) controls for the biases of the CPI. B) measures all goods produced, not just consumer goods. C) uses current period quantities, not base period quantities. D) excludes the volatile elements of the CPI. E) includes volatile elements not in the CPI. Answer: D Diff: 2 Type: MC Topic: The Price Level and Inflation Source: Study Guide 25) If the inflation rate is positive, the price level in an economy is A) falling rapidly. B) rising. C) constant. D) falling slowly. E) zero. Answer: B Diff: 2 Type: MC Topic: The Price Level and Inflation Source: Study Guide
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26) Commodity substitution bias in the CPI refers to the fact that the CPI A) takes into account the substitution of goods by consumers when relative prices change. B) takes no account of the substitution of goods by consumers when relative prices change. C) substitutes quality changes whenever they occur without taking account of the cost of the quality changes. D) substitutes relative prices for absolute prices of goods. E) accounts for improved quality in price rises. Answer: B Type: MC Topic: The Price Level and Inflation Skill: Recognition AACSB: Reflective Thinking 27) Of the following sequences of price levels, which correctly represents a 5 percent inflation rate? A) 100, 100, 100, 100 B) 100, 105, 105, 105 C) 100, 105, 110, 115 D) 100, 105, 110.25, 115.76 E) 95, 100, 105, 110 Answer: D Type: MC Topic: The Price Level and Inflation Skill: Analytical AACSB: Analytical Skills 28) The commodity substitution bias is that A) consumers substitute high-quality goods for low-quality goods. B) government spending is a good substitute for investment expenditures. C) national saving and foreign borrowing are interchangeable. D) consumers decrease the quantity they buy of goods whose relative prices rise and increase the quantity of goods whose relative price falls. E) consumers substitute more expensive goods for less expensive goods when technology advances. Answer: D Type: MC Topic: The Price Level and Inflation Skill: Recognition AACSB: Reflective Thinking
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29) Hyperinflation is defined as A) declining inflation rates. B) rising but low inflation rates. C) very high inflation rates. D) very low inflation rates. E) an increase in the price level. Answer: C Type: MC Topic: The Price Level and Inflation Skill: Recognition AACSB: Reflective Thinking 30) Choose the incorrect statement. A) The outlet substitution bias injects an upward bias into the CPI. B) When the quality of a good improves over time and as a result the price rises, the CPI counts the entire price rise as inflation and so overstates inflation. C) When relative prices change and people substitute to the lower priced good, the CPI ignores the substitution and the CPI overstates inflation. D) The CPI basket is constantly updated to allow for the introduction of new goods. E) All of the above statements are incorrect. Answer: D Type: MC Topic: The Price Level and Inflation Skill: Recognition Source: MyEconLab AACSB: Reflective Thinking 31) The price indexes that are alternatives to the CPI are ________. A) the GDP deflator and the chained price index for consumption B) the chained price index for consumption and the CPI deflator C) the core GDP deflator and the CPI deflator D) the GDP deflator and the CPI deflator E) the unbiased CPI and the unbiased GDP deflator Answer: A Type: MC Topic: The Price Level and Inflation Skill: Recognition Source: MyEconLab AACSB: Reflective Thinking
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32) The CPIC ________. A) does not overcome the source of bias in the CPI B) overcomes the sources of bias in the CPI by eliminating measures of the goods and services with the most volatile prices C) overcomes the sources of bias in the CPI by incorporating substitutions and using current and previous period quantities D) overcomes the sources of bias in the CPI by giving extra weight to the measures of the goods and services with the most volatile prices E) overcomes the sources of bias in the CPI by always using discount store prices Answer: C Type: MC Topic: The Price Level and Inflation Skill: Recognition Source: MyEconLab AACSB: Reflective Thinking Refer to the table below to answer the following question. Table 21.3.3 Region 2006 2007 2008 United State Euro area Japan 117.1 113.6 98.1 120.4 117.1 98.1 124.0 119.6 98.8 33) Refer to Table 21.3.3. The IMF World Economic Outlook reports the price level data given in the table. The region with the highest inflation rate in 2007 is ________. The region with the highest inflation rate in 2008 is ________. A) the Euro area; the United States B) Japan; the United States C) the Euro area; Japan D) the United States; Japan E) the United States; the Euro area Answer: A Type: MC Topic: The Price Level and Inflation Skill: Recognition Source: MyEconLab AACSB: Reflective Thinking
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34) Between 1972 and 2012, Canada's inflation rate as measured by the CPI ________. A) rises in some years and falls in some years B) consistently rises every year C) consistently falls every year D) was always between 1 and 3 percent a year E) was always positive Answer: A Type: MC 35) In China, suppose that the price level was 100 in 2007, 110 in 2008, 120 in 2009, and 130 in 2011. Over this time period, A) zero inflation occurred. B) the inflation rate increased. C) the inflation rate was positive. D) the inflation rate decreased. E) Both C and D are correct. Answer: E Type: MC 36) If the inflation rate is negative, the price level in an economy is ________. A) rising rapidly B) rising slowly C) falling D) constant E) none of the above Answer: C Type: MC Chapter 22 Economic Growth 22.1 The Basics of Economic Growth 1) Economic growth is A) a sustained expansion of production possibilities measured as the increase in nominal GDP over a given period. B) a sustained expansion of consumption expenditure over a given period. C) always accompanied by a rising price level. D) equal to real GDP per capita multiplied by 70. E) a sustained expansion of production possibilities measured as the increase in real GDP over a given period. Answer: E Diff: 2 Type: MC Topic: The Basics of Economic Growth Skill: Recognition AACSB: Reflective Thinking 2) In 2010, Northland had real GDP of $4.21 billion and a population of 2.98 million. In 2011,
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real GDP was $4.59 billion and population was 2.97 million. What was Northland's economic growth rate in 2011? A) 0.38 percent B) 3.8 percent C) 8.3 percent D) 9.0 percent E) 11.1 percent Answer: D Type: MC Topic: The Basics of Economic Growth Skill: Analytical AACSB: Analytical Skills 3) In 2010, Northland had real GDP of $4.21 billion and a population of 2.98 million. In 2011, real GDP was $4.59 billion and population was 2.97 million. Between 2010 and 2011, Northland's standard of living ________. A) increased B) decreased C) did not change D) might have increased, decreased, or remained unchanged E) doubled. Answer: A Type: MC Topic: The Basics of Economic Growth Skill: Conceptual AACSB: Analytical Skills
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4) In 2010, Northland had real GDP of $4.21 billion and a population of 2.98 million. In 2011, real GDP was $4.59 billion and population was 2.97 million. Northland's real GDP per person in 2011 was A) $1,545. B) $380. C) $1,413. D) $132. E) $1.41. Answer: A Type: MC Topic: The Basics of Economic Growth Skill: Analytical AACSB: Analytical Skills 5) During 2011, the country of Economia had real GDP of $115 billion and the population was 0.9 billion. In 2010, real GDP was $105 billion and the population was 0.85 billion. In 2011, real GDP per person was A) $124. B) $135. C) $117. D) $12,778. E) $128. Answer: E Diff: 2 Type: MC Topic: The Basics of Economic Growth Skill: Analytical AACSB: Analytical Skills 6) During 2011, the country of Economia had real GDP of $115 billion and the population was 0.9 billion. In 2010, real GDP was $105 billion and the population was 0.85 billion. In 2010, real GDP per person was A) $128. B) $124. C) $135. D) $117. E) $1,235. Answer: B Diff: 2 Type: MC Topic: The Basics of Economic Growth Skill: Analytical AACSB: Analytical Skills
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7) Suppose a country's population grows by 2 percent a year and, at the same time, its real GDP grows by 5 percent a year. Real GDP per person is increasing by ________ a year. A) 2 percent B) 5 percent C) 10 percent D) 16 percent E) 3 percent Answer: E Type: MC Topic: The Basics of Economic Growth Skill: Analytical AACSB: Analytical Skills 8) The Rule of 70 is used to A) estimate how much of an economy's growth rate is attributable to increases in capital per hour of labour. B) calculate the standard of living. C) calculate the economy's growth rate. D) estimate how long it will take the level of any variable to double. E) estimate how much of an economy's growth rate is attributable to technological advance. Answer: D Type: MC Topic: The Basics of Economic Growth Skill: Recognition AACSB: Reflective Thinking 9) Using the Rule of 70, if the country of Flowerdom's current growth rate of real GDP per person is 7 percent a year, how long will it take the country's real GDP per person to double? A) 1 year B) 2 years C) 10 years D) 49 years E) 7 years Answer: C Diff: 2 Type: MC Topic: The Basics of Economic Growth Skill: Analytical AACSB: Analytical Skills
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10) Using the Rule of 70, if the country of Flowerdom's current growth rate of real GDP per person is 10 percent a year, how long will it take the country's real GDP per person to double? A) 0.7 years B) 1 year C) 10 years D) 49 years E) 7 years Answer: E Diff: 2 Type: MC Topic: The Basics of Economic Growth Skill: Analytical AACSB: Analytical Skills 11) Slowdonia's current growth rate of real GDP per person is 2 percent a year. How long will it take to double real GDP per person? A) half a year B) approximately 10 years C) 28.6 years D) 35 years E) 2 years Answer: D Diff: 3 Type: MC Topic: The Basics of Economic Growth Skill: Analytical AACSB: Analytical Skills 12) Slowdonia's current growth rate of real GDP per person is 1 percent a year. How long will it take to double real GDP per person? A) 10 years B) 35 years C) 70 years D) 100 years E) Real GDP per person will never double Answer: C Diff: 3 Type: MC Topic: The Basics of Economic Growth Skill: Analytical AACSB: Analytical Skills
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13) If real GDP per person is growing at 4 percent per year, it will double in A) 17.5 years. B) 25 years. C) 4 years. D) 8 years. E) 56 years. Answer: A Type: MC Topic: The Basics of Economic Growth Skill: Analytical AACSB: Analytical Skills 14) Suppose a country is producing $20 million of real GDP. If the economy grows at 10 percent per year, approximately how many years will to take for real GDP to grow to $80 million? A) 14 B) 7 C) 4 D) 30 E) 3.5 years Answer: A Type: MC Topic: The Basics of Economic Growth Skill: Analytical AACSB: Analytical Skills 15) Real GDP per person in the country of Flip is $10,000, and the growth rate is 10 percent a year. Real GDP per person in the country of Flap is $20,000 and the growth rate is 5 percent a year. When will real GDP per person be greater in Flip than in Flap? A) in 2 years B) in 15 years C) never D) in 10 years E) in 7 years Answer: B Type: MC Topic: The Basics of Economic Growth Skill: Analytical AACSB: Analytical Skills
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16) Growthland's real GDP per person was $112,000 in 2009 and $117,000 in 2010. What is the growth rate of Growthland's real GDP per person in 2010? A) 4.3% B) 4.5% C) 5% D) 12% E) 17% Answer: B Type: MC Topic: The Basics of Economic Growth Source: Study Guide
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22.2 Economic Growth Trends 1) In which of the following decades did Canada experience the slowest economic growth? A) 1960s B) 1970s C) 1980s D) 1940s E) 1990s Answer: C Diff: 2 Type: MC Topic: Economic Growth Trends 2) Canada's economic growth rate was highest in which of the following decades? A) the 1930s B) the 1960s C) the 1970s D) the 1980s E) the 1990s Answer: B Diff: 2 Type: MC Topic: Economic Growth Trends Source: Study Guide 3) Which of the following statements about Canada's long-term growth trends is false ? A) Economic growth rates have been steady, except for the business cycle. B) Economic growth rates show periods of slow and high growth. C) Economic growth rates were faster in the 1990s than in the 1980s. D) Economic growth rates have slightly faster in the United States than in Canada. E) African countries have fallen further behind Canada in recent years. Answer: A Type: MC Topic: Economic Growth Trends Source: Study Guide 4) Between 1926 and 2010 real GDP per person in Canada grew at an average rate of A) 2.8 percent a year. B) 1.7 percent a year. C) 2.0 percent a year. D) 3.6 percent a year. E) 4.3 percent a year. Answer: C Diff: 3 Type: MC Topic: Economic Growth Trends
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5) Compared to growth in other countries, between 1960 and 2010 Canada A) fell behind most other countries. B) dramatically caught up to and passed other countries. C) worsened dramatically versus the United States, but did better versus other countries. D) did as well or better than most countries except certain Asian countries. E) did none of the above. Answer: D Type: MC Topic: Economic Growth Trends Source: Study Guide 6) Between 1926 and 2010, the average growth rate of real GDP per person in Canada was ________ percent a year. During this period, ________ grew at a faster rate than ________. A) 2.0; GDP; the population B) 2.0; real GDP; the population C) 1.0; inflation; real GDP D) 3.0; the population; real GDP E) 3.0; inflation; real GDP Answer: B Type: MC Topic: Economic Growth Trends Source: MyEconLab 7) Convergence between real GDP per person in Canada and Japan was relatively ________ during the 1960s; convergence has recently been ________. A) slow; increasing B) rapid; decreasing C) rapid; increasing at an even faster rate D) slow; decreasing E) rapidly; continuing at the 1960s pace Answer: B Type: MC Topic: Economic Growth Trends Source: MyEconLab 8) The gap between real GDP per person in Canada and Hong Kong has ________ since 1960. During this period, the growth rate of real GDP per person in Canada has been ________ than in Hong Kong. A) reversed; faster B) increased; faster C) remained constant; equal D) reversed; slower E) decreased; faster Answer: D Type: MC Topic: Economic Growth Trends Source: MyEconLab
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9) Between 1960 and 2010, growth rates in real GDP per person in Hong Kong, Korea, Singapore, Taiwan, and China ________ the growth rate of real GDP per person in Canada. China's real GDP per person in 2010 is approximately equal to real GDP per person in Hong Kong in ________. A) exceeded; 1998 B) were less than; 1988 C) were less than; 1976 D) exceeded; 1976 E) were approximately equal to; 1968 Answer: D Type: MC Topic: Economic Growth Trends Source: MyEconLab 10) During the last 10 years, which of the following had the lowest level of real GDP per person? A) Eastern Europe B) Central and South America C) Africa D) Japan E) China Answer: C Type: MC 11) Of the following countries, which has the lowest level of real GDP per person? A) China B) Singapore C) Hong Kong D) Korea E) Canada Answer: A Type: MC
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22.3 How Potential GDP Grows 1) An increase in labour hours will lead to A) an upward shift of the aggregate production function. B) a movement along the aggregate production function. C) both a movement along and an upward shift of the aggregate production function. D) neither a movement along nor a shift of the aggregate production function. E) a downward shift of the aggregate production function. Answer: B Type: MC Topic: How Potential GDP Grows Skill: Conceptual AACSB: Reflective Thinking 2) The aggregate production function is graphed as A) a downward-sloping curve. B) an upward-sloping straight line. C) an upward-sloping line that becomes flatter as the quantity of labour increases. D) an upward-sloping line that becomes steeper as the quantity of labour increases. E) a production possibilities frontier. Answer: C Type: MC Topic: How Potential GDP Grows Skill: Recognition AACSB: Reflective Thinking 3) The decreasing slope of the aggregate production function reflects A) diminishing returns. B) rising unemployment. C) decreasing costs. D) increasing aggregate demand. E) a decrease in potential GDP. Answer: A Type: MC Topic: How Potential GDP Grows Skill: Conceptual AACSB: Reflective Thinking
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4) According to the law of diminishing returns, along the aggregate production function an additional unit of A) capital produces more output than an additional unit of labour. B) labour decreases output. C) labour produces more output than the previous unit. D) labour produces less output than the previous unit. E) labour increases the real wage rate. Answer: D Type: MC Topic: How Potential GDP Grows Skill: Recognition AACSB: Reflective Thinking Use the figure below to answer the following question. Figure 22.3.1 5) Refer to Figure 22.3.1. The country of Kemper is on its aggregate production function at point W in the above figure. If the population increases with no change in capital or technology, the economy will A) move to point such as Y . B) remain at point W . C) move to point such as X . D) move to point such as Z . E) either remain at point W or move to point X . Answer: C Type: MC Topic: How Potential GDP Grows Skill: Conceptual AACSB: Analytical Skills
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6) If the money wage rate is $15.00 an hour and the price level is 120, the real wage rate is A) $8.50 an hour. B) $10.75 an hour. C) $12.50 an hour. D) $15.00 an hour. E) $18 an hour. Answer: C Type: MC Topic: How Potential GDP Grows Skill: Analytical AACSB: Analytical Skills 7) If the money wage rate is $10.00 an hour and the price level is 60, the real wage rate is A) $16.67 an hour. B) $18.75 an hour. C) $10.00 an hour. D) $12.50 an hour. E) $6.00 an hour. Answer: A Type: MC Topic: How Potential GDP Grows Skill: Analytical AACSB: Analytical Skills 8) If the real wage rate is $10.00 an hour and the price level is 60, the money wage rate is A) $16.75 an hour. B) $18.50 an hour. C) $10.00 an hour. D) $6.00 an hour. E) $16.67 an hour. Answer: D Type: MC Topic: How Potential GDP Grows Skill: Analytical AACSB: Analytical Skills
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9) When the quantity of labour demanded exceeds the quantity of labour supplied, the real wage rate A) rises to eliminate the labour market shortage. B) falls to eliminate the labour market surplus. C) rises to eliminate the labour market surplus. D) falls to eliminate the labour market shortage. E) does not change but the money wage rate rises to eliminate the labour market shortage. Answer: A Type: MC Topic: How Potential GDP Grows Skill: Conceptual AACSB: Reflective Thinking 10) In the labour market, an increase in labour productivity ________ the real wage rate and ________ the level of employment. A) raises; increases B) raises; decreases C) lowers; increases D) lowers; decreases E) raises; does not change Answer: A Type: MC Topic: How Potential GDP Grows Skill: Analytical AACSB: Analytical Skills
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Use the figure below to answer the following questions. Figure 22.3.2 11) Refer to Figure 22.3.2. The equilibrium real wage rate is A) $10 an hour. B) $15 an hour. C) $20 an hour. D) any wage rate above $15 an hour. E) any wage rate below $15 an hour. Answer: B Type: MC Topic: How Potential GDP Grows Skill: Analytical AACSB: Analytical Skills 12) Refer to Figure 22.3.2. The equilibrium quantity of labour is A) 100 billion hours. B) 150 billion hours. C) 200 billion hours. D) 50 billion hours. E) 250 billion hours. Answer: B Type: MC Topic: How Potential GDP Grows Skill: Analytical AACSB: Analytical Skills
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13) Refer to Figure 22.3.2. If the real wage is $20 an hour, a labour A) shortage will occur and the real wage will rise. B) shortage will occur and the real wage will fall. C) surplus will occur and the real wage will rise. D) surplus will occur and the real wage will fall. E) surplus will occur and the demand for labour will increase. Answer: D Type: MC Topic: How Potential GDP Grows 14) When the population increases with no change in labour productivity, employment ________ and potential GDP ________. A) decreases; decreases B) increases; increases C) decreases; increases D) increases; decreases E) increases; does not change Answer: B Type: MC Topic: How Potential GDP Grows Skill: Analytical AACSB: Reflective Thinking
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Use the table below to answer the following questions. Table 22.3.1 Real wage rate (2002 dollars per hour) Quantity of labour demanded (billions of hours per year) Quantity of labour supplied (billions of hours per year) 15 70 10 20 60 20 25 50 30 30 40 40 35 30 50 Real GDP (trillions of 2002 dollars per year) Quantity of labour (billions of hours per year) 3 20 9 30 14 40 18 50 21 60 15) Refer to Table 22.3.1. The tables show the labour market and the aggregate production function schedule for the country of Pickett. Potential GDP is ________. A) $40 trillion B) $6 trillion C) $14 trillion D) $25 trillion E) $9 trillion Answer: C Type: MC Topic: How Potential GDP Grows Skill: Analytical AACSB: Analytical Skills
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16) Refer to Table 22.3.1. The tables show the labour market and the production function schedule for the country of Pickett. An increase in population changes the quantity of labour supplied by 20 billion hours at each real wage rate. Potential GDP ________. A) does not change. B) decreases to $3 trillion. C) increases to $50 trillion. D) increases to $18 trillion. E) increases to $20 trillion. Answer: D Type: MC Topic: How Potential GDP Grows Skill: Analytical AACSB: Analytical Skills 17) Labour productivity is A) real GDP per hour of labour times the hours of work. B) real GDP per hour of labour times the population. C) the quantity of real GDP produced by an hour of labour. D) the rate of change in real GDP per hour of labour. E) none of the above. Answer: C Type: MC Topic: How Potential GDP Grows Skill: Recognition AACSB: Reflective Thinking 18) If real GDP is $800 million and aggregate labour hours are 20 million, labour productivity is ________. A) $40 an hour B) $16,000 million C) $40 million D) $160 an hour E) $16 an hour Answer: A Type: MC Topic: How Potential GDP Grows Skill: Analytical AACSB: Analytical Skills
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19) If real GDP is $12,150 billion and aggregate labour hours are 270 billion, labour productivity equals A) $6.50 an hour. B) $45 an hour. C) $48 an hour. D) $650 an hour. E) $32.81 an hour. Answer: B Diff: 3 Type: MC Topic: How Potential GDP Grows Skill: Analytical AACSB: Analytical Skills 20) When labour productivity increases, the demand for labour curve ________ and the supply of labour curve ________. A) shifts rightward; shifts rightward B) shifts rightward; does not shift C) shifts leftward; shifts rightward D) shifts leftward; does not shift E) shifts rightward; shifts leftward Answer: B Type: MC Topic: How Potential GDP Grows Skill: Analytical AACSB: Analytical Skills 21) An increase in labour productivity ________ the real wage rate and an increase in population ________ the real wage rate. A) raises; lowers B) raises; raises C) lowers; lowers D) lowers; raises E) raises; does not change Answer: A Type: MC Topic: How Potential GDP Grows Skill: Analytical AACSB: Analytical Skills
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22) An increase in population results in A) an upward shift in the production function. B) a movement along the production function. C) a leftward shift of the labour supply curve. D) a rightward shift of the labour demand curve. E) both B and D are correct. Answer: B Diff: 3 Type: MC Topic: How Potential GDP Grows Skill: Conceptual AACSB: Analytical Skills 23) If the population increases, then potential GDP ________, employment ________, and ________ potential GDP per hour of labour. A) increases; increases; decreases B) increases; decreases; decreases C) decreases; increases; increases D) decreases; decreases; decreases E) increases; increases; increases Answer: A Type: MC Topic: How Potential GDP Grows Skill: Analytical AACSB: Analytical Skills 24) If new capital increases labour productivity, the supply of labour ________ and the demand for labour ________. A) stays the same; increases B) increases; increases C) increases; decreases D) decreases; stays the same E) increases; stays the same Answer: A Type: MC Topic: How Potential GDP Grows Skill: Analytical AACSB: Reflective Thinking
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Use the figure below to answer the following question. Figure 22.3.3 25) Refer to Figure 22.3.3. As a result of the rightward shift in the demand curve for labour from LD 0 to LD 1 , the equilibrium level of employment ________, potential GDP ________, and potential GDP per hour of labour ________. A) increases; increases; increases B) increases; decreases; increases C) decreases; increases; decreases D) decreases; decreases; decreases E) increases; increases; decreases Answer: A Type: MC Topic: How Potential GDP Grows Skill: Analytical AACSB: Analytical Skills 26) Ceteris paribus , an increase in labour productivity results in a A) higher real wage rate and higher potential GDP per hour of labour. B) lower real wage rate and higher potential GDP per hour of labour. C) higher real wage rate and lower potential GDP per hour of labour. D) lower real wage rate and lower potential GDP per hour of labour. E) constant real wage rate in the long run. Answer: A Type: MC Topic: How Potential GDP Grows Source: Study Guide
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27) Ceteris paribus , an increase in population results in a A) higher level of labour employed and higher potential GDP per hour of labour. B) lower level of labour employed and higher potential GDP per hour of labour. C) higher level of labour employed and lower potential GDP per hour of labour. D) lower level of labour employed and lower potential GDP per hour of labour. E) constant level of labour employed and constant potential GDP per hour of labour. Answer: C Type: MC Topic: How Potential GDP Grows Source: Study Guide 28) The aggregate production function shows how ________ varies with ________. A) real GDP; labour B) labour; leisure C) real GDP; leisure D) labour; capital E) real GDP; capital Answer: A Type: MC 29) A movement along the aggregate production function is the result of a change in ________. A) capital B) technology C) the quantity of labour D) the interest rate E) the inflation rate Answer: C Type: MC
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22.4 Why Labour Productivity Grows 1) Labour productivity grows as A) consumption expenditure increases. B) depreciation increases. C) physical capital grows. D) human capital grows. E) both C and D are correct. Answer: E Type: MC Topic: Why Labour Productivity Grows Skill: Conceptual AACSB: Reflective Thinking 2) If capital per worker increases, labour productivity A) decreases for a given level of technology. B) increases because the level of technology increases. C) increases for a given level of technology. D) decreases because the level of technology decreases. E) does not change unless technology advances at the same time. Answer: C Type: MC Topic: Why Labour Productivity Grows Skill: Analytical AACSB: Reflective Thinking 3) If capital per worker decreases, real GDP per hour of labour A) decreases because the level of technology decreases. B) increases because the level of technology increases. C) increases for a given level of technology. D) decreases for a given level of technology. E) none of the above. Answer: D Type: MC Topic: Why Labour Productivity Grows Skill: Analytical AACSB: Reflective Thinking
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4) An increase in education and training A) increases labour productivity. B) increases aggregate hours. C) decreases real GDP growth. D) increases the employment-to-population ratio. E) is an increase in physical capital. Answer: A Type: MC Topic: Why Labour Productivity Grows Skill: Conceptual AACSB: Reflective Thinking 5) ________ is the accumulated skill and knowledge of human beings. A) Labour productivity B) Human capital C) Capital D) Technology E) Human investment Answer: B Type: MC Topic: Why Labour Productivity Grows Skill: Recognition AACSB: Reflective Thinking 6) Human capital is the A) machinery used by humans to produce GDP. B) technology used by humans to produce GDP. C) skill and knowledge accumulated by humans. D) plant and equipment produced by humans and not by machines. E) none of the above. Answer: C Type: MC Topic: Why Labour Productivity Grows Skill: Recognition AACSB: Reflective Thinking
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7) Which of the following statements regarding human capital is INCORRECT ? A) Human capital is the accumulated skill and knowledge of human beings. B) Education is the only vehicle for the creation of human capital because training simply reinforces what has already been learned. C) The accumulation of human capital is the source of both increased labour productivity and technological advance. D) Writing and mathematics, the most basic of human skills, are crucial elements in economic progress. E) All of the above statements are correct. Answer: B Type: MC Topic: Why Labour Productivity Grows Skill: Conceptual AACSB: Reflective Thinking 8) Which of the following is not a source of economic growth? A) increasing stock market prices B) better educated workers C) growing physical capital D) appropriate incentive system E) advances in technology Answer: A Type: MC Topic: Why Labour Productivity Grows Source: Study Guide 9) The Industrial Revolution in England was largely the result of A) growth in human capital. B) population growth. C) technological innovations that were financed mainly by government spending. D) technological innovations encouraged by the patent system. E) the elimination of the patent system. Answer: D Type: MC 10) Factors that influence labour productivity include ________. A) the inflation rate, the real wage rate, and the exchange rate B) the labour demand curve C) physical capital, the real wage rate, and technology D) the demand for labour, the real wage rate, and technology E) physical capital, human capital, and technology Answer: E Type: MC
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11) Labour productivity rises when A) technological progress is stagnant. B) firms invest more in hiring workers than in replacing worn-out capital. C) the amount of capital per worker decreases. D) the real wage rate falls. E) the amount of capital per worker increases. Answer: E Type: MC 12) In developing nations, microloans ________. A) have enabled small businesses with limited access to credit to purchase capital and expand, allowing greater economic growth B) have increased the indebtedness of impoverished people, slowing economic growth C) are primarily used to finance consumption expenditure, leading to economic growth D) are far too small to have any discernible effect E) discourage saving and investment Answer: A Type: MC 22.5 Growth Theories, Evidence, and Policies 1) Which one of the following quotations could be attributed to a supporter of the classical growth theory? A) "Growth will last as long as technology keeps advancing." B) "Prosperity will last as long as technology keeps advancing." C) "Growth will last only until the increase in population brings productivity down to the subsistence level." D) "Prosperity will last as long as there is knowledge accumulation." E) "Growth will last as long as knowledge accumulation continues." Answer: C Diff: 2 Type: MC Topic: Growth Theories and Policies 2) The new growth theory holds that growth can persist indefinitely based on the major assumption that A) discoveries result from regulations. B) knowledge capital does not experience diminishing returns. C) knowledge is a public capital good. D) discoveries bring profit. E) knowledge destroys profit. Answer: B Diff: 2 Type: MC Topic: Growth Theories and Policies
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3) Which theory of economic growth argues that growth does not automatically slow down? A) classical growth theory B) neoclassical growth theory C) new growth theory D) all of the theories E) none of the theories Answer: C Diff: 2 Type: MC Topic: Growth Theories and Policies 4) Which theory of economic growth argues that, in the long run, people do not benefit from growth? A) classical growth theory B) neoclassical growth theory C) new growth theory D) all of the theories E) none of the theories Answer: A Diff: 2 Type: MC Topic: Growth Theories and Policies 5) Which theory of economic growth argues that population growth lowers the real wage rate and stops economic growth? A) classical growth theory B) neoclassical growth theory C) new growth theory D) all of the theories E) none of the theories Answer: A Diff: 2 Type: MC Topic: Growth Theories and Policies 6) The key difference between the neoclassical growth theory and the classical growth theory is that A) capital is not subject to diminishing returns under classical growth theory. B) capital is subject to diminishing returns under classical growth theory. C) increases in population drive workers' incomes back down to the subsistence level in classical growth theory. D) growth in the neoclassical growth theory ends with a population explosion. E) in classical growth theory, the pace of technological change influences the economic growth rate but economic growth does not influence the pace of technological change. Answer: C Diff: 3 Type: MC Topic: Growth Theories and Policies
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7) The key difference between the neoclassical growth theory and the new growth theory is that A) capital is not subject to diminishing returns under new growth theory. B) capital is subject to diminishing returns under new growth theory. C) increases in population drive workers' incomes back down to the subsistence level in neoclassical growth theory. D) the pace of technological advances are caused by chance in new growth theory. E) labour productivity grows indefinitely in neoclassical growth theory. Answer: A Diff: 3 Type: MC Topic: Growth Theories and Policies 8) In the classical growth theory, economic growth eventually stops due to A) diminishing returns. B) knowledge capital being easily replicated. C) the real rate of interest falling back down to its target rate. D) real GDP per person becoming too high. E) high population growth resulting from the increase in real GDP per person. Answer: E Diff: 2 Type: MC Topic: Growth Theories and Policies Source: Study Guide 9) In the neoclassical growth theory, economic growth eventually stops after a technological advance when A) the return on capital falls and the incentive to invest weakens. B) knowledge capital is replicated. C) the subsistence real wage rate falls. D) the real wage rate increases. E) high population growth occurs. Answer: A Diff: 3 Type: MC Topic: Growth Theories and Policies 10) Knowledge capital is different from physical capital because knowledge capital A) does not experience diminishing returns. B) experiences diminishing returns. C) is free. D) increases with investment. E) none of the above. Answer: A Diff: 2 Type: MC Topic: Growth Theories and Policies
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11) Growth eventually stops in neoclassical growth theory when A) technology stops advancing. B) saving increases. C) discoveries are replicated. D) the return on capital increases. E) population growth lowers the real wage rate. Answer: A Diff: 2 Type: MC Topic: Growth Theories and Policies 12) An assumption of the neoclassical growth theory is that A) people earn a subsistence real wage in the long run. B) technological advances are the result of chance. C) the marginal product of all types of capital increases as more capital is accumulated. D) discoveries are a public capital good. E) encouraging international trade increases economic growth. Answer: B Diff: 2 Type: MC Topic: Growth Theories and Policies 13) An assumption of the new growth theory is that A) people earn a subsistence real wage in the long run. B) all technological advances are the result of chance. C) the marginal product of all types of capital increases as more capital is accumulated. D) the growth rate of labour productivity depends on people's ability to innovate. E) technological advances encourage international trade. Answer: D Diff: 2 Type: MC Topic: Growth Theories and Policies 14) Which theory of economic growth concludes that technological advances are influenced by the profit motive? A) classical growth theory B) neoclassical growth theory C) new growth theory D) neo growth theory E) none of the theories Answer: C Diff: 2 Type: MC Topic: Growth Theories and Policies
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15) Compared to physical capital, knowledge capital A) can be replicated without diminishing returns. B) can be held in your hand. C) leads to an automatic slowdown in growth. D) cannot be replicated without diminishing returns. E) none of the above. Answer: A Diff: 2 Type: MC Topic: Growth Theories and Policies Source: Study Guide 16) Which of the following is a suggestion for increasing Canadian economic growth rates? A) Stimulate saving by taxing consumption. B) Reduce the time period for patent protection to increase replication. C) Put less public research funds into universities. D) Protect our industries from foreign competition. E) Tax education. Answer: A Type: MC Topic: Growth Theories and Policies Source: Study Guide 17) In neoclassical growth theory, if the rate of return on capital increases due to a technological advance, then A) the rate of return on capital will eventually decline. B) capital per hour of labour will decrease. C) real GDP per hour of labour will decrease. D) the rate of return on capital will never decline. E) population growth will explode. Answer: A Type: MC Topic: Growth Theories and Policies Source: Study Guide
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18) According to ________ growth theory, growth of real GDP per person comes to a stop because a population explosion returns real GDP per person to the subsistence level. According to ________ growth theory, growth of real GDP per person comes to a stop when technology stops advancing. According to ________ growth theory, growth of real GDP per person is unending. A) classical; new; neoclassical B) neoclassical; classical; new C) new; neoclassical; classical D) classical; neoclassical; new E) new; classical; neoclassical Answer: D Type: MC Topic: Growth Theories and Policies Source: MyEconLab 19) Choose the statements concerning neoclassical growth theory which are true. 1. Neoclassical growth theory was developed in the late 19th century. 2. The rate of technological change influences the economic growth rate but economic growth does not influence the pace of technological change. 3. Economic growth will stop if technology stops advancing. 4. Technological change results from the choices people make in the pursuit of profit. A) Statements 1 and 4 are correct. B) Statements 3 and 4 are correct. C) Statements 2 and 3 are correct. D) Statements 1 and 3 are correct. E) Statements 2 and 4 are correct. Answer: C Type: MC Topic: Growth Theories and Policies Source: MyEconLab 20) All of the following statements are included in new growth theory except ________. A) discoveries are a public capital good B) discoveries result from choices C) the forces of competition destroy incentives to make new discoveries D) discoveries bring profit, and competition destroys profit E) knowledge is capital that is not subject to the law of diminishing returns Answer: C Type: MC Topic: Growth Theories and Policies Source: MyEconLab
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21) According to Thomas Robert Malthus, ________. A) labour productivity increases continuously B) the population growth rate is fixed C) technological advances lead to permanent increases in real GDP per person D) increases in real GDP per person are only temporary E) knowledge capital does not experience diminishing returns Answer: D Type: MC 22) Which of the following ideas apply to the neoclassical growth theory? I. The rate of technological change influences the rate of economic growth. II. Technological change promotes saving and investment. III. Convergence of economic growth rates across countries. A) I only B) II only C) III only D) I and II only E) I, II, and III Answer: E Type: MC Chapter 23 Finance, Saving, and Investment 23.1 Financial Institutions and Financial Markets 1) Capital is A) the tools, instruments, machines, buildings, and other items that have been produced in the past and that are used today to produce goods and services. B) financial wealth. C) the sum of investment and government expenditure on goods. D) net investment. E) gross investment. Answer: A Type: MC Topic: Financial Institutions and Financial Markets Skill: Recognition AACSB: Reflective Thinking 2) Gross investment A) is the total amount spent on new capital. B) includes only replacement investment. C) equals wealth minus saving. D) equals saving minus wealth. E) is the change in the value of capital Answer: A Type: MC Topic: Financial Institutions and Financial Markets
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Skill: Recognition AACSB: Reflective Thinking 3) The total amount spent on new capital is A) wealth. B) gross investment. C) depreciation. D) net investment. E) saving. Answer: B Type: MC Topic: Financial Institutions and Financial Markets Skill: Recognition AACSB: Reflective Thinking
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4) In January 2011, Tim's Gyms, Inc. owned machines valued at $1 million. During the year, the market value of the machines fell by 30 percent. During 2011, Tim spent $200,000 on new machines. During 2011, Tim's gross investment was A) $1 million. B) $300,000. C) $200,000 D) $900,000. E) $100,000. Answer: C Diff: 1 Type: MC Topic: Financial Institutions and Financial Markets Skill: Analytical AACSB: Analytical Skills 5) Net investment equals A) capital minus depreciation. B) gross investment minus depreciation. C) the total quantity of plant, equipment, and buildings. D) gross investment/depreciation. E) wealth minus saving. Answer: B Type: MC Topic: Financial Institutions and Financial Markets Skill: Recognition AACSB: Reflective Thinking 6) The increase in the value of capital is A) gross investment. B) depreciation. C) net investment. D) private sector spending. E) wealth. Answer: C Type: MC Topic: Financial Institutions and Financial Markets Skill: Recognition AACSB: Reflective Thinking
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7) Capital stock increases when A) gross investment exceeds net investment. B) net investment exceeds gross investment. C) gross investment is negative. D) net investment is positive. E) net investment is zero. Answer: D Type: MC Topic: Financial Institutions and Financial Markets Skill: Conceptual AACSB: Reflective Thinking 8) If the economy's capital increases over time, A) net investment is positive. B) depreciation is less than zero. C) depreciation exceeds gross investment. D) gross investment equals depreciation. E) gross investment is zero. Answer: A Type: MC Topic: Financial Institutions and Financial Markets Skill: Conceptual AACSB: Reflective Thinking 9) If the economy's capital decreases over time, A) net investment is positive. B) depreciation is less than zero. C) depreciation exceeds gross investment. D) gross investment equals net investment. E) gross investment is zero. Answer: C Type: MC Topic: Financial Institutions and Financial Markets Skill: Conceptual AACSB: Reflective Thinking
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10) In January 2011, Tim's Gyms, Inc. owned machines valued at $1 million. During the year, the market value of the machines fell by 10 percent. During 2011, Tim spent $200,000 on new machines. During 2011, Tim's net investment was A) $1 million. B) $300,000. C) $200,000. D) $100,000. E) $1.1 million. Answer: D Diff: 1 Type: MC Topic: Financial Institutions and Financial Markets Skill: Analytical AACSB: Analytical Skills 11) The Acme Stereo Company had a capital stock of $24 million at the beginning of the year. At the end of the year, the firm had a capital stock of $20 million. Thus its A) net investment was some amount but we need more information to determine the amount. B) net investment was $4 million for the year. C) gross investment was zero. D) net investment was -$4 million for the year. E) depreciation was $4 million. Answer: D Type: MC Topic: Financial Institutions and Financial Markets Skill: Analytical AACSB: Analytical Skills 12) At the beginning of the year, Tom's Tubes had a capital stock of 5 tube-inflating machines. During the year, Tom scrapped 2 old machines and purchased 3 new machines. Tom's net investment for the year totaled A) 1 machine. B) 2 machines. C) 3 machines. D) 6 machines. E) 5 machines Answer: A Type: MC Topic: Financial Institutions and Financial Markets Skill: Analytical AACSB: Analytical Skills
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13) At the beginning of the year, Tom's Tubes had a capital stock of 5 tube-inflating machines. During the year, Tom scrapped 2 old machines and purchased 3 new machines. Tom's gross investment for the year totaled A) 1 machine. B) 2 machines. C) 3 machines. D) 6 machines. E) 8 machines. Answer: C Type: MC Topic: Financial Institutions and Financial Markets Skill: Analytical AACSB: Analytical Skills 14) At the beginning of the year, Tom's Tubes had capital of 5 tube-inflating machines. During the year, Tom scrapped 2 old machines and purchased 3 new machines. Tom's capital at the end of year was A) 1 machine. B) 2 machines. C) 3 machines. D) 6 machines. E) 8 machines. Answer: D Type: MC Topic: Financial Institutions and Financial Markets Skill: Analytical AACSB: Analytical Skills 15) Which of the following is FALSE about saving? A) Saving adds to wealth. B) Income left after paying taxes can either be consumed or saved. C) Saving equals wealth minus consumption expenditure. D) Saving is the source of funds used to finance investment. E) Saving supplies funds in loan markets, bond markets, and stock markets. Answer: C Type: MC Topic: Financial Institutions and Financial Markets Skill: Recognition AACSB: Reflective Thinking
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16) At the beginning of the year, your wealth is $10,000. During the year, you have an income of $90,000 and you spend $80,000 on consumption goods and services. You pay no taxes. Your wealth at the end of the year is A) $20,000. B) $0. C) $90,000. D) $100,000. E) $10,000. Answer: A Type: MC Topic: Financial Institutions and Financial Markets Skill: Analytical AACSB: Analytical Skills 17) At the beginning of the year, your wealth is $10,000. During the year, you have an income of $80,000 and you spend $90,000 on consumption goods and services. You pay no taxes. Your wealth at the end of the year is A) $20,000. B) $0. C) $90,000. D) $100,000. E) $10,000. Answer: B Type: MC Topic: Financial Institutions and Financial Markets Skill: Analytical AACSB: Analytical Skills 18) In 2011, Tim's Gyms needs to finance the building of a new gym. Suppose Tim secures this financing from a bank, and the bank receives ownership if Tim fails to make payments. This type of funding is A) a mortgage obtained in the loan market. B) a stock issued in the bond market. C) a bond issued in the bond market. D) a mortgage obtained in the stock market. E) a stock issued in the loan market. Answer: A Diff: 1 Type: MC Topic: Financial Institutions and Financial Markets Skill: Conceptual AACSB: Reflective Thinking
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19) The funds used to buy physical capital are A) net investment. B) financial capital. C) saving. D) wealth. E) investment. Answer: B Type: MC Topic: Financial Institutions and Financial Markets Skill: Recognition AACSB: Reflective Thinking 20) This year Pizza Hut spent $1.3 billion on new capital in its stores. Depreciation during the year was $300 million. Pizza Hut's gross investment was ________ and its net investment was ________. A) $1.3 billion; $1.6 billion B) $1.0 billion; $1.3 billion C) $1.3 billion; $1.0 billion D) $1.0 billion; $0.7 billion E) $1.3 billion; $0.3 billion Answer: C Type: MC Topic: Financial Institutions and Financial Markets Skill: Analytical AACSB: Analytical Skills 21) If a bank's net worth is negative, then the bank is A) liquid. B) insolvent. C) illiquid. D) solvent. E) none of the above. Answer: B Type: MC Topic: Financial Institutions and Financial Markets Skill: Recognition AACSB: Reflective Thinking
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22) In which market would you find mortgage-backed securities? A) stock market B) bond market C) housing market D) capital market E) loan market Answer: B Type: MC Topic: Financial Institutions and Financial Markets Skill: Recognition Source: Study Guide AACSB: Reflective Thinking 23) Elena owns a Canada Savings Bond with a a price of $5,000, which pays $500 per year. The price of the bond rises in the bond market to $7,500. What is the new interest rate on the bond? A) 5% B) 6.67% C) 10% D) 20% E) 500% Answer: B Type: MC Topic: Financial Institutions and Financial Markets Skill: Recognition Source: Study Guide AACSB: Reflective Thinking 24) Suppose that a bond promises to pay its holder $100 a year forever. If the price of the bond increases from $1,000 to $1,250, then the interest rate on the bond ________. A) rises from 8 percent a year to 10 percent a year B) falls from 10 percent a year to 6 percent a year C) falls from 10 percent a year to 8 percent a year D) rises because the bond becomes a better investment E) does not change because the purchaser buys the bond knowing that interest rates will be adjusted Answer: C Type: MC
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25) Suppose a bond promises to pay its holder $100 a year forever. The interest rate on the bond rises from 4 percent to 5 percent. The price of the bond ________. A) falls from $2,500 to $2,000 B) falls from $25,000 to $20,000 C) rises from $2,000 to $2,500 D) rises from $20,000 to $25,000 E) does not change. Bond prices are constant. Answer: A Type: MC 26) The key Canadian financial institutions include all of the following except ________. A) commercial banks B) trust and loan companies C) credit unions and caisses populaires D) pension funds E) ATMs Answer: E Type: MC 27) Choose the statement that is incorrect about trust and loan companies. A) Trust and loan companies hold more than 70 percent of the total assets of the Canadian financial services sector. B) The largest trust and loan companies are owned by banks. C) Trust and loan companies accept deposits and make personal loans and mortgage loans. D) Trust and loan companies administer estates. E) Trust and loan companies administer trusts and pension plans. Answer: A Type: MC 28) Choose the statement that is incorrect . A) A financial institution can be solvent but illiquid. B) A firm is illiquid if it has made long-term loans with borrowed funds and is faced with a sudden demand to repay more of what is has borrowed than its available cash. C) Insolvency and illiquidity were at the core of a global financial meltdown in 2007-2008. D) A financial institution's net worth is the market value of what it has lent minus the market value of what it has borrowed. E) All of the above are true. Answer: E Type: MC
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23.2 The Loanable Funds Market 1) Investment is financed by which of the following? I. Government spending. II. Household saving. III. Borrowing from the rest of the world. A) I, II, and III B) I and II only C) I and III only D) II and III only E) None of the above Answer: D Type: MC Topic: The Market for Loanable Funds Skill: Recognition AACSB: Reflective Thinking 2) National saving equals A) private saving + private wealth. B) private saving + government saving. C) private saving - net taxes. D) government saving. E) investment. Answer: B Type: MC Topic: The Market for Loanable Funds Skill: Recognition AACSB: Reflective Thinking 3) If national saving equals $100,000, net taxes equal $100,000 and government expenditure equals $25,000, what is private saving? A) $25,000 B) $225,000 C) -$25,000 D) zero E) $175,000 Answer: A Type: MC Topic: The Market for Loanable Funds Skill: Analytical AACSB: Analytical Skills
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4) Suppose Canada spends more on foreign goods and services than foreigners spend on our goods and services. Then A) Canada must borrow an amount equal to national saving. B) Canada must borrow an amount equal to imports minus exports. C) the rest of the world may or may not finance Canada's trade deficit. D) Canada must borrow an amount equal to consumption expenditure plus investment. E) none of the above. Answer: B Type: MC Topic: The Market for Loanable Funds Skill: Recognition AACSB: Reflective Thinking 5) In 2011, Country A has net taxes of $30 million and government expenditures of $35 million. Private saving in Country A is $5 million and consumption expenditure is $80 million. The government of Country A is running a budget ________ and national saving is ________. A) surplus; $5 million B) deficit; -$5 million C) deficit; $5 million D) surplus; $25 million E) deficit; zero Answer: E Diff: 2 Type: MC Topic: The Market for Loanable Funds Skill: Analytical AACSB: Analytical Skills
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Refer to the table below to answer the following questions. Table 23.2.1 Item Millions of dollars Consumption expenditure Government expenditure on goods and services Net taxes Investment Imports Exports 80 30 35 20 10 20 6) Refer to Table 23.2.1. Private saving is A) -$15 million. B) $40 million. C) $25 million. D) $20 million. E) $80 million. Answer: C Type: MC Topic: The Market for Loanable Funds Skill: Analytical AACSB: Analytical Skills 7) Refer to Table 23.2.1. Government saving is A) $15 million. B) -$5 million. C) $5 million. D) $45 million. E) $20 million. Answer: C Type: MC Topic: The Market for Loanable Funds Skill: Analytical AACSB: Analytical Skills
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8) Approximately, the real interest rate ________ the inflation rate ________ the nominal interest rate. A) plus; equals B) equals; plus C) equals; minus D) minus; equals E) times; divided by 100 equals Answer: A Type: MC Topic: The Market for Loanable Funds Skill: Recognition AACSB: Reflective Thinking 9) The real interest rate A) can never be negative. B) is approximately equal to the nominal interest rate plus the inflation rate. C) is approximately equal to the nominal interest rate minus the inflation rate. D) increases when the inflation rate increases. E) none of the above. Answer: C Type: MC Topic: The Market for Loanable Funds Skill: Recognition AACSB: Reflective Thinking 10) Suppose that you took out a $1,000 loan in January and had to pay $75 in annual interest. During the year, inflation was 6 percent. Which of the following statements is correct? A) The nominal interest rate is 7.5 percent and the real interest rate is 1.5 percent. B) The nominal interest rate is 7.5 percent and the real interest rate is 13.5 percent. C) The real interest rate is 7.5 percent and the nominal interest rate is 1.5 percent. D) The real interest rate is 6 percent and the nominal interest rate is 7.5 percent. E) The real interest rate is 6 percent and the nominal interest rate is -1.5 percent. Answer: A Diff: 2 Type: MC Topic: The Market for Loanable Funds Skill: Analytical AACSB: Analytical Skills
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11) If the nominal interest rate is 11 percent and the inflation rate is 9 percent, then the real interest rate is approximately A) 2 percent. B) 20 percent. C) 4 percent. D) 18 percent. E) -2 percent. Answer: A Type: MC Topic: The Market for Loanable Funds Skill: Analytical AACSB: Analytical Skills 12) A firm's decision to invest in a project is based on the A) real interest rate and expected total revenue. B) nominal interest rate and expected total revenue. C) nominal interest rate and the expected profit. D) real interest rate and the expected profit. E) expected future income, wealth, and default risk. Answer: D Type: MC Topic: The Market for Loanable Funds Skill: Recognition AACSB: Reflective Thinking 13) Suppose a firm has an investment project which will cost $200,000 and result in $30,000 profit. The firm will not undertake the project if the interest rate is ________. A) greater than 15 percent B) greater than 10 percent C) greater than 5 percent D) positive E) greater than 7.5 percent Answer: A Type: MC Topic: The Market for Loanable Funds Skill: Conceptual AACSB: Reflective Thinking
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14) As the ________ interest rate increases, the quantity of loanable funds demanded ________. A) real; increases B) real; decreases C) nominal; increases D) nominal; decreases E) None of the above. There is no relationship between interest rates and loanable funds. Answer: B Type: MC Topic: The Market for Loanable Funds Skill: Conceptual AACSB: Reflective Thinking 15) The demand for loanable funds is the relationship between the quantity of loanable funds demanded and the ________ other things remaining the same. A) real interest rate B) nominal interest rate C) inflation rate D) price level E) quantity of loanable funds supplied Answer: A Type: MC Topic: The Market for Loanable Funds Skill: Recognition AACSB: Reflective Thinking 16) The demand for loanable funds curve A) is horizontal. B) has a negative slope. C) is vertical. D) has a positive slope. E) slopes downward at high real interest rates and slopes upward at low real interest rates. Answer: B Type: MC Topic: The Market for Loanable Funds Skill: Recognition AACSB: Reflective Thinking
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17) As the ________ interest rate rises ________. A) nominal; the demand for loanable funds curve shifts rightward B) real; the demand for loanable funds curve shifts rightward C) nominal; the demand for loanable funds curve shifts leftward D) real; a movement occurs up along the demand for loanable funds curve E) real; a movement occurs down along the demand for loanable funds curve Answer: D Diff: 2 Type: MC Topic: The Market for Loanable Funds Skill: Recognition AACSB: Reflective Thinking 18) If the real interest rate rises from 3 percent to 5 percent, A) the nominal interest rate falls. B) the demand for loanable funds curve shifts rightward. C) there is a movement up along the demand for loanable funds curve. D) the supply of loanable funds curve shifts rightward. E) there is a movement down along the supply of loanable funds curve. Answer: C Diff: 2 Type: MC Topic: The Market for Loanable Funds Skill: Conceptual AACSB: Reflective Thinking 19) A rise in the real interest rate A) shifts the demand for loanable funds curve rightward. B) shifts the demand for loanable funds curve leftward. C) creates a movement up along the demand for loanable funds curve. D) creates a movement down along the demand for loanable funds curve. E) none of the above. Answer: C Type: MC Topic: The Market for Loanable Funds Skill: Conceptual AACSB: Reflective Thinking 20) A fall in the real interest rate A) shifts the demand for loanable funds curve rightward. B) shifts the demand for loanable funds curve leftward. C) creates a movement up along the demand for loanable funds curve. D) creates a movement down along the demand for loanable funds curve. E) none of the above. Answer: D Type: MC Topic: The Market for Loanable Funds Skill: Conceptual AACSB: Reflective Thinking
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21) The quantity of loanable funds demanded increases when A) expected profit decreases. B) the real interest rate rises. C) the real interest rate falls. D) the supply of loanable funds decreases. E) wealth increases. Answer: C Type: MC Topic: The Market for Loanable Funds Skill: Conceptual AACSB: Reflective Thinking 22) A decrease in the real interest rate leads to a ________ the demand for loanable funds curve, and a decrease in expected profit leads to a ________ the demand for loanable funds curve. A) rightward shift of; leftward shift of B) movement down along; movement up along C) rightward shift of; movement up along D) movement down along; leftward shift of E) movement down along; rightward shift of Answer: D Type: MC Topic: The Market for Loanable Funds Skill: Conceptual AACSB: Reflective Thinking 23) A decrease in the demand for loanable funds occurs when A) the real interest rate rises. B) the government raises taxes. C) the government cuts taxes. D) expected profit decreases. E) expected profit increases. Answer: D Type: MC Topic: The Market for Loanable Funds Skill: Conceptual AACSB: Reflective Thinking
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24) During a recession, firms decrease their profit expectations. As a result, there is a ________ shift of the ________ loanable funds curve. A) rightward; supply of B) leftward; demand for C) rightward; demand for D) rightward, supply of E) leftward; demand for loanable funds curve and supply of Answer: B Diff: 2 Type: MC Topic: The Market for Loanable Funds Skill: Conceptual AACSB: Reflective Thinking Refer to the figure below to answer the following question. Figure 23.2.1 25) Refer to Figure 23.2.1. In Figure 23.2.1, the economy is at point A on the initial demand for loanable funds curve DLF 0 . What happens if the real interest rate rises? A) There is a movement to a point such as B on the demand for loanable funds curve DLF 0 . B) The demand for loanable funds curve shifts rightward to curve DLF 2 . C) The demand for loanable funds curve shifts leftward to curve DLF 1 . D) Either A or B can occur. E) Either A or C can occur. Answer: A Type: MC Topic: The Market for Loanable Funds Skill: Analytical AACSB: Analytical Skills
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Refer to the figure below to answer the following questions. Figure 23.2.2 26) Refer to Figure 23.2.2. In Figure 23.2.2, a decrease in the real interest rate will result in a movement from point E to A) point F . B) point G . C) point H . D) point I . E) either point G or point F . Answer: B Type: MC Topic: The Market for Loanable Funds Skill: Analytical AACSB: Analytical Skills 27) Refer to Figure 23.2.2. In Figure 23.2.2, an increase in expected profit will result in a movement from point E to A) point F . B) point G . C) point H . D) point I . E) either point I or point F . Answer: A Type: MC Topic: The Market for Loanable Funds Skill: Analytical AACSB: Analytical Skills
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28) Refer to Figure 23.2.2. In Figure 23.2.2, a decrease in expected profit will result in a movement from point E to A) point F . B) point G . C) point H . D) point I . E) either point G or point H . Answer: C Type: MC Topic: The Market for Loanable Funds Skill: Analytical AACSB: Analytical Skills Refer to the figure below to answer the following questions. Figure 23.2.3 29) Refer to Figure 23.2.3. In Figure 23.2.3, if the real interest rate is 6 percent, the quantity of loanable funds demanded is A) $150 billion. B) $300 billion. C) $450 billion. D) $600 billion. E) only amount less than $450 billion. Answer: C Type: MC Topic: The Market for Loanable Funds Skill: Analytical AACSB: Analytical Skills
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30) In Figure 23.2.3, if the real interest rate is constant at 6 percent and expected profit falls, the quantity of loanable funds demanded will be A) less than $450 billion. B) $450 billion. C) between $450 billion and $600 billion. D) greater than $600 billion. E) zero. Answer: A Type: MC Topic: The Market for Loanable Funds Skill: Analytical AACSB: Analytical Skills 31) In Figure 23.2.3, if the real interest rate is constant at 6 percent and and expected profit rises, the amount of loanable funds demanded will be A) less than $450 billion. B) $450 billion. C) between $300 billion and $450 billion. D) greater than $450 billion. E) zero. Answer: D Type: MC Topic: The Market for Loanable Funds Skill: Analytical AACSB: Analytical Skills 32) All of the following are sources of loanable funds EXCEPT A) business investment. B) private saving. C) government budget surplus. D) international borrowing. E) none of the above. Answer: A Type: MC Topic: The Market for Loanable Funds Skill: Conceptual AACSB: Reflective Thinking
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33) Which of the following influences household saving? I. The real interest rate. II. Disposable income. III. Expected future income. A) I only B) I and II C) I and III D) I, II, and III E) None of the above Answer: D Type: MC Topic: The Market for Loanable Funds Skill: Recognition AACSB: Reflective Thinking 34) If households' disposable income decreases, then A) households' saving will decrease. B) households' saving will increase. C) the supply of loanable funds decreases. D) a movement occurs down along the supply of loanable funds curve. E) both A and C are correct. Answer: E Type: MC Topic: The Market for Loanable Funds Skill: Conceptual AACSB: Reflective Thinking 35) Households will choose to save more if A) expected future income decreases. B) current disposable income increases. C) current disposable income decreases. D) both A and B are correct. E) both A and C are correct. Answer: D Type: MC Topic: The Market for Loanable Funds Skill: Conceptual AACSB: Reflective Thinking
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36) Which of the following is correct? A) As disposable income increases, the real interest rate rises. B) As disposable income decreases, saving decreases. C) The higher a household's wealth the greater is its saving. D) Both B and C are correct. E) Both A and C are correct. Answer: B Type: MC Topic: The Market for Loanable Funds Skill: Conceptual AACSB: Reflective Thinking 37) ________ increases households' saving. A) A decrease in the real interest rate B) A tax cut that increases disposable income C) Higher expected future income D) An increase in wealth E) An increase in default risk Answer: B Type: MC Topic: The Market for Loanable Funds Skill: Conceptual AACSB: Reflective Thinking 38) The greater a household's ________ the less is its saving. A) return from saving B) wealth C) disposable income D) expected future profit E) all of the above Answer: B Type: MC Topic: The Market for Loanable Funds Skill: Conceptual AACSB: Reflective Thinking
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39) As the ________ rises, the quantity of loanable funds supplied ________ other things remaining the same. A) nominal interest rate; increases B) real interest rate; increases C) inflation rate; increases D) real interest rate; decreases E) inflation rate; decreases Answer: B Type: MC Topic: The Market for Loanable Funds Skill: Recognition AACSB: Reflective Thinking 40) The supply of loanable funds is the relationship between the quantity loanable funds supplied and ________ other things remaining the same. A) real GDP B) the price level C) the real interest rate D) the inflation rate E) the nominal interest rate Answer: C Type: MC Topic: The Market for Loanable Funds Skill: Recognition AACSB: Reflective Thinking 41) The supply of loanable funds curve A) has a positive slope. B) is vertical. C) is horizontal. D) has a negative slope. E) is upward sloping at low real interest rates and downward sloping at high real interest rates. Answer: A Type: MC Topic: The Market for Loanable Funds Skill: Recognition AACSB: Reflective Thinking
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42) Changes in all of the following shift the supply curve of loanable funds EXCEPT A) the real interest rate. B) wealth. C) disposable income. D) expected future income. E) default risk. Answer: A Type: MC Topic: The Market for Loanable Funds Skill: Conceptual AACSB: Reflective Thinking 43) Which of the following will shift the supply of loanable funds curve leftward? A) a decrease in the real interest rate B) a decrease in real wealth C) a decrease in disposable income D) a decrease in expected future income E) a decrease in default risk Answer: C Type: MC Topic: The Market for Loanable Funds Skill: Conceptual AACSB: Analytical Skills 44) An increase in ________ will shift the supply of loanable funds curve ________. A) expected future income; rightward B) wealth; leftward C) disposable income; leftward D) default risk; rightward E) the real interest rate; rightward Answer: B Diff: 2 Type: MC Topic: The Market for Loanable Funds Skill: Conceptual AACSB: Analytical Skills
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45) As a result of a recession, the default risk increases. How does this change affect the loanable funds market? A) There is a movement up along the supply of loanable funds curve. B) There is a leftward shift of the supply of loanable funds curve. C) There is a movement down along the demand for loanable funds curve. D) There is a rightward shift of the supply of loanable funds curve. E) There is a movement up along the demand for loanable funds curve. Answer: B Diff: 2 Type: MC Topic: The Market for Loanable Funds Skill: Conceptual AACSB: Analytical Skills 46) When the real interest rate increases, A) the supply of loanable funds curve shifts rightward. B) the supply of loanable funds curve shifts leftward. C) there is a movement up along the supply of loanable funds curve. D) there is a movement down along the supply of loanable funds curve. E) the demand for loanable funds curve shifts leftward. Answer: C Type: MC Topic: The Market for Loanable Funds Skill: Recognition AACSB: Analytical Skills 47) Which of the following is true? I. As the real interest rate increases, people increase the quantity they save. II. The supply of loanable funds curve is downward sloping. III. As disposable income increases, the supply of loanable funds curve becomes steeper. A) I and III only B) II and III only C) I only D) III only E) I, II, and III Answer: C Type: MC Topic: The Market for Loanable Funds Skill: Conceptual AACSB: Reflective Thinking
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48) A decrease in disposable income ________. A) has no effect on the supply of loanable funds curve B) shifts the supply of loanable funds curve rightward C) shifts the supply of loanable funds curve leftward D) creates a movement up along the supply of loanable funds curve E) creates a movement down along the supply of loanable funds curve Answer: C Type: MC Topic: The Market for Loanable Funds Skill: Conceptual AACSB: Reflective Thinking 49) If households believe they will experience higher income in the near future, there is a A) rightward shift of the supply of loanable funds curve. B) leftward shift of the supply of loanable funds curve. C) movement up along the supply of loanable funds curve. D) movement up along the demand for loanable funds curve. E) rightward shift of the demand for loanable funds curve. Answer: B Diff: 2 Type: MC Topic: The Market for Loanable Funds Skill: Conceptual AACSB: Reflective Thinking
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Refer to the figure below to answer the following questions. Figure 23.2.4 50) Refer to Figure 23.2.4. In Figure 23.2.4, the economy is at point A on the supply of loanable funds curve SLF 0 . What happens if disposable income decreases? A) Nothing; the economy would remain at point A . B) There is a movement to a point such as B on the supply of loanable funds curve SLF 0 . C) The supply of loanable funds curve shifts rightward to a curve such as SLF 2 . D) The supply of loanable funds curve shifts leftward to a curve such as SLF 1 . E) None of the above. Answer: D Type: MC Topic: The Market for Loanable Funds Skill: Analytical AACSB: Analytical Skills 51) Refer to Figure 23.2.4. In Figure 23.2.4, the economy is at point A on the supply of loanable funds curve SLF 0 . What happens if the real interest rate rises? A) Nothing; the economy would remain at point A . B) There is a movement to a point such as B on the supply of loanable funds curve SLF 0 . C) The supply of loanable funds curve shifts rightward to a curve such as SLF 2 . D) The supply of loanable funds curve shifts leftward to a curve such as SLF 1 . E) None of the above. Answer: B Type: MC Topic: The Market for Loanable Funds Skill: Analytical AACSB: Analytical Skills
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52) In the market for loanable funds, as the real interest rate rises the ________ and the ________. A) quantity of loanable funds supplied increases; quantity of loanable funds demanded decreases B) quantity of loanable funds supplied decreases; quantity of loanable funds demanded increases C) supply of loanable funds increases; demand for loanable funds decreases D) supply of loanable funds decreases; demand for loanable funds increases E) quantity of loanable funds supplied increases; supply of loanable funds increases Answer: A Type: MC Topic: The Market for Loanable Funds Skill: Recognition AACSB: Reflective Thinking 53) The equilibrium real interest rate is determined by the A) demand for loanable funds curve and the supply of loanable funds curve. B) demand for loanable funds curve and real GDP. C) supply of loanable funds curve and financial institutions. D) government expenditure curve and the taxation curve. E) banks and insurance companies. Answer: A Type: MC Topic: The Market for Loanable Funds Skill: Recognition AACSB: Reflective Thinking 54) Suppose the current real interest rate is 4 percent and the equilibrium real interest rate is 3 percent. Choose the correct statement. A) The supply of loanable funds increases. B) There is a surplus of loanable funds. C) There is a shortage of loanable funds. D) There is neither a shortage nor surplus of loanable funds. E) The demand for loanable funds decreases. Answer: B Type: MC Topic: The Market for Loanable Funds Skill: Conceptual AACSB: Analytical Skills
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55) If the quantity of loanable funds supplied exceeds the quantity of loanable funds demanded, then ________. A) the real interest rate will rise B) the supply of loanable funds increases C) people will save more D) the real interest rate will fall E) the demand for loanable funds increases Answer: D Type: MC Topic: The Market for Loanable Funds Skill: Conceptual AACSB: Reflective Thinking 56) If the real interest rate is above the equilibrium real interest rate, A) lenders are unable to find borrowers willing to borrow all of the available funds and the real interest rate falls. B) borrowers are unable to borrow all of the funds they want to borrow and the real interest rate rises. C) lenders are unable to find borrowers willing to borrow all of the available funds and the real interest rate rises. D) borrowers are unable to borrow all of the funds they want to borrow and the real interest rate falls. E) a shortage of loanable funds exists. Answer: A Type: MC Topic: The Market for Loanable Funds Skill: Conceptual AACSB: Reflective Thinking 57) If the real interest rate is below the equilibrium real interest rate, A) lenders are unable to find borrowers willing to borrow all of the available funds and the real interest rate falls. B) borrowers are unable to borrow all of the funds they want to borrow and the real interest rate rises. C) lenders are unable to find borrowers willing to borrow all of the available funds and the real interest rate rises. D) borrowers are unable to borrow all of the funds they want to borrow and the real interest rate falls. E) a surplus of loanable funds exists. Answer: B Type: MC Topic: The Market for Loanable Funds Skill: Conceptual AACSB: Reflective Thinking
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58) If the real interest rate is below the equilibrium real interest rate, A) lenders will be unable to find borrowers willing to borrow all of the available funds and the supply of loanable funds curve shifts leftward. B) borrowers will be unable to borrow all of the funds they want to borrow and the demand for loanable funds curve shifts rightward. C) a shortage of of loanable funds exists, and the real interest rate rises. D) borrowers will be unable to borrow all of the funds they want to borrow and the demand for loanable funds curve shifts leftward. E) lenders will be unable to find borrowers willing to borrow all of the available funds and the supply of loanable funds curve shifts rightward. Answer: C Type: MC Topic: The Market for Loanable Funds Skill: Conceptual AACSB: Reflective Thinking 59) In the market for loanable funds, if the interest rate is above the equilibrium level A) a shortage of loanable funds exists. B) a surplus of loanable funds exists. C) expected profit falls. D) government expenditure decreases. E) wealth increases. Answer: B Type: MC Topic: The Market for Loanable Funds Skill: Conceptual AACSB: Reflective Thinking 60) An increase in disposable income shifts the supply of loanable funds curve A) leftward and decreases the real interest rate. B) leftward and increases the real interest rate. C) rightward and decreases the real interest rate. D) rightward and increases the real interest rate. E) rightward and the demand for loanable funds curve leftward. Answer: C Type: MC Topic: The Market for Loanable Funds Skill: Analytical AACSB: Analytical Skills
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61) Technological progress that increases expected profit shifts the demand for loanable funds curve A) leftward and decreases the real interest rate. B) rightward and increases the real interest rate. C) rightward and decreases the real interest rate. D) leftward and increases the real interest rate. E) rightward and the supply of loanable funds curve leftward. Answer: B Type: MC Topic: The Market for Loanable Funds Skill: Analytical AACSB: Analytical Skills 62) What is the effect of a decrease in expected profit? A) The demand curve for loanable funds shifts leftward and the real interest rate falls. B) The supply curve of loanable funds shifts rightward and the nominal interest rate rises. C) A movement down along the demand curve for loanable funds occurs. D) The real interest rate rises as saving increases. E) The demand curve for loanable funds shifts rightward and the real interest rate rises. Answer: A Diff: 2 Type: MC Topic: The Market for Loanable Funds Skill: Analytical AACSB: Analytical Skills 63) If disposable income increases, people ________ saving, the supply of loanable funds will ________ and the real interest rate will ________. A) increase; decrease; rise B) decrease; decrease; rise C) increase; increase; fall D) decrease; increase; fall E) increase; increase; rise or fall depending on the shift of the demand curve for loanable funds Answer: C Diff: 2 Type: MC Topic: The Market for Loanable Funds Skill: Analytical AACSB: Analytical Skills
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64) Suppose the market for loanable funds is in equilibrium. If expected profit falls, the equilibrium real interest rate ________ and the quantity of loanable funds ________. A) falls; decreases B) falls; increases C) rises; increases D) rises; decreases E) falls; increases or decreases but we don't know for sure Answer: A Type: MC Topic: The Market for Loanable Funds Skill: Analytical AACSB: Analytical Skills
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Refer to the figure below to answer the following questions. Figure 23.2.5 65) Refer to Figure 23.2.5. In Figure 23.2.5, the supply of loanable funds curve is SLF 0 and the demand for loanable funds curve is DLF 0 . An expansion that increases disposable income and expected profit A) shifts the supply of loanable funds curve rightward to curve SLF 1 and does not shift the demand for loanable funds curve. B) shifts the supply of loanable funds curve rightward to curve SLF 1 , and shifts the demand for loanable funds curve rightward to curve DLF 1 . C) shifts the demand for loanable funds curve rightward to curve DLF 1 and does not shift the supply of loanable funds curve. D) has no effect on either the demand for loanable funds curve or the supply of loanable funds curve. E) none of the above. Answer: B Type: MC Topic: The Market for Loanable Funds Skill: Analytical AACSB: Analytical Skills
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66) Refer to Figure 23.2.5. In Figure 23.2.5, the initial supply of loanable funds curve is SLF 0 and the initial demand for loanable funds curve is DLF 0 . An increase in the expected profit A) shifts the supply of loanable funds curve rightward to curve SLF 1 and does not shift the demand for loanable funds curve. B) shifts the supply of loanable funds curve rightward to curve SLF 1 , and shifts the demand for loanable funds curve rightward to curve DLF 1 . C) shifts the demand for loanable funds curve rightward to curve DLF 1 and does not shift the supply of loanable funds curve. D) has no effect on either the demand for loanable funds curve or the supply of loanable funds curve. E) none of the above. Answer: C Type: MC Topic: The Market for Loanable Funds Skill: Analytical AACSB: Analytical Skills 67) Which of the following is false ? A) Y = C + I + G + M - X B) I = S + (T - G) + (M - X) C) Y = C + S + T D) Y + M = C + I + G + X E) Y = C + I + G + X -M Answer: A Type: MC Topic: The Market for Loanable Funds Skill: Analytical Source: Study Guide AACSB: Analytical Skills 68) In Canada's economy, investment is financed by A) C + I + G + X - M. B) C + S + T. C) S + T + M. D) S + (T - G) + (X - M). E) S + (T - G) + (M - X). Answer: E Type: MC Topic: The Market for Loanable Funds Skill: Analytical Source: Study Guide AACSB: Analytical Skills
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69) Investment will be higher if A) the government deficit is higher. B) national saving is higher. C) net exports are higher. D) the real interest rate is higher. E) government spending is higher. Answer: B Type: MC Topic: The Market for Loanable Funds Skill: Analytical Source: Study Guide AACSB: Analytical Skills 70) Southton has investment of $100, private saving of $90, net taxes of $25, government expenditure of $30, exports of $25 and imports of $10. What is national saving? A) $85 B) $90 C) $95 D) $100 E) $105 Answer: A Type: MC Topic: The Market for Loanable Funds Skill: Analytical Source: Study Guide AACSB: Analytical Skills 71) When the inflation rate is zero, the ________. A) real interest rate equals the nominal interest rate B) demand for loanable funds increases C) supply of loanable funds decreases D) nominal interest rate is zero E) Both B and C occur. Answer: A Type: MC
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72) Which of the following explains why the demand for loanable funds is negatively related to the real interest rate? A) Consumers are willing to spend less so they save more at higher real interest rates. B) Interest rate flexibility in financial markets assures an equilibrium in which saving equals investment. C) A lower real interest rate makes more investment projects profitable. D) All of the above are reasons why the demand for loanable funds is negatively related to the real interest rate. E) None of the above are reasons why the demand for loanable funds is negatively related to the real interest rate. Answer: C Type: MC
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23.3 Government in the Loanable Funds Market 1) If net taxes exceed government expenditures, the government sector has a budget ________ and government saving is ________. A) surplus; positive B) surplus; negative C) deficit; positive D) deficit; negative E) balance that is zero; zero Answer: A Type: MC Topic: Government in the Market for Loanable Funds Skill: Conceptual AACSB: Reflective Thinking 2) When a government has a budget surplus, the surplus A) helps finance investment. B) crowds-out private saving. C) must be subtracted from private saving. D) increases the world real interest rate. E) decreases the demand for loanable funds. Answer: A Type: MC Topic: Government in the Market for Loanable Funds Skill: Conceptual AACSB: Reflective Thinking 3) When government saving is negative, A) the real interest rate rises. B) the real interest rate falls. C) investment increases. D) the real interest rate falls if crowding-out occurs. E) the supply of loanable funds increases. Answer: A Type: MC Topic: Government in the Market for Loanable Funds Skill: Conceptual AACSB: Reflective Thinking
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4) The tendency for a government budget deficit to decrease investment is called the A) government dissaving effect. B) crowding-out effect. C) Ricardo-Barro effect. D) capital investment effect. E) deficit effect. Answer: B Type: MC Topic: Government in the Market for Loanable Funds Skill: Recognition AACSB: Reflective Thinking 5) The crowding-out effect refers to A) government spending crowding out private spending. B) private saving crowding out government saving. C) a government deficit crowding out investment. D) private investment crowding out government saving. E) private saving crowding out net taxes. Answer: C Type: MC Topic: Government in the Market for Loanable Funds Skill: Recognition AACSB: Reflective Thinking 6) Crowding out leads to all of the following EXCEPT A) a higher real interest rate. B) a decrease in investment. C) a smaller quantity of capital in the future. D) a decrease in private saving. E) crowding out leads to all of the above. Answer: D Type: MC Topic: Government in the Market for Loanable Funds Skill: Conceptual AACSB: Reflective Thinking 7) If the government begins to run a larger budget deficit, the demand for loanable funds ________ and the real interest rate ________. A) decreases; falls B) decreases; rises C) increases; rises D) increases; falls E) increases; rises or falls depending on the change in the supply of loanable funds Answer: C Type: MC Topic: Government in the Market for Loanable Funds Skill: Analytical
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AACSB: Reflective Thinking 8) A government budget deficit ________ the demand for loanable funds and ________ investment. A) increases; increases B) increases; decreases C) decreases; increases D) decreases; decreases E) increases; rises or falls depending on the change in the supply of loanable funds Answer: B Type: MC Topic: Government in the Market for Loanable Funds Skill: Analytical AACSB: Reflective Thinking 9) A government budget deficit ________ the demand for loanable funds, ________ the real interest rate, and ________ investment. A) increases; decreases; crowds out B) increases; decreases; increases C) decreases; increases; increases D) decreases; increases; crowds out E) increases; increases; crowds out Answer: E Type: MC Topic: Government in the Market for Loanable Funds Skill: Analytical AACSB: Reflective Thinking 10) If China's government increases its budget surplus, there is ________ in the supply of loanable funds, private saving ________ and investment ________. A) an increase; decreases; increases B) a decrease; increases; increases C) an increase; increases; increases D) a decrease; decreases; increases E) an increase; decreases; is crowded out Answer: A Diff: 3 Type: MC Topic: Government in the Market for Loanable Funds Skill: Analytical AACSB: Analytical Skills
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11) The tendency for private saving to increase in response to growing government deficits is known as the A) crowding out effect. B) money illusion effect. C) Keynes effect. D) Ricardo-Barro effect. E) Mulroney-Harper effect. Answer: D Type: MC Topic: Government in the Market for Loanable Funds Skill: Recognition AACSB: Reflective Thinking 12) According to the Ricardo-Barro effect, A) government deficits raise the real interest rate. B) taxpayers fail to foresee that government deficits imply higher future taxes. C) households increase personal saving when governments run budget deficits. D) government budget deficits increase households' expected future disposable income. E) a government deficit decreases the supply of loanable funds. Answer: C Type: MC Topic: Government in the Market for Loanable Funds Skill: Recognition AACSB: Reflective Thinking 13) The Ricardo-Barro effect of a government budget deficit is A) an increase in private saving. B) a large crowding-out effect that decreases investment. C) a large crowding-out effect that decreases national saving. D) a decrease in net exports. E) a decrease in private saving. Answer: A Type: MC Topic: Government in the Market for Loanable Funds Skill: Recognition AACSB: Reflective Thinking
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14) The Ricardo-Barro effect holds that A) equal increases in taxes and government expenditures have no effect on equilibrium real GDP. B) a government budget deficit has no effect on the real interest rate. C) a government budget deficit crowds out private investment. D) a government budget deficit induces a decrease in saving that magnifies the crowding out effect. E) none of the above. Answer: B Type: MC Topic: Government in the Market for Loanable Funds Skill: Recognition AACSB: Reflective Thinking 15) According to the Ricardo-Barro effect, government deficits A) lead to a rise in the equilibrium real interest rate, crowding out investment. B) lead to simultaneous increases in private saving and have no effect on the equilibrium real interest rate and investment. C) lead to simultaneous decreases in private saving and decreases in the equilibrium real interest rate and investment. D) lead to a fall in the equilibrium real interest rate and an increase in investment. E) raise the real interest rate but have no effect on the nominal interest rate. Answer: B Type: MC Topic: Government in the Market for Loanable Funds Skill: Recognition AACSB: Reflective Thinking 16) According to the Ricardo-Barro effect, A) the government budget has no effect on the real interest rate. B) a government budget deficit crowds out private investment. C) financing government spending with taxes has a less severe effect on private investment than financing through government borrowing. D) All of the above. E) None of the above. Answer: A Type: MC Topic: Government in the Market for Loanable Funds Skill: Recognition AACSB: Reflective Thinking
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17) If the Ricardo-Barro effect occurs, ________ in private saving finances the government budget deficit and the real interest rate ________. A) an increase; remains the same B) a decrease; increases C) an increase; falls D) a decrease; remains the same E) an increase; rises Answer: A Diff: 2 Type: MC Topic: Government in the Market for Loanable Funds Skill: Analytical AACSB: Analytical Skills 18) If the Ricardo-Barro effect occurs, a government budget deficit raises the equilibrium real interest rate by ________ and decreases the equilibrium quantity of investment by ________ if the Ricardo-Barro effect is absent. A) more; more than B) more; less than C) less; more than D) less; less than E) the same amount; the same amount as Answer: D Type: MC Topic: Government in the Market for Loanable Funds Skill: Analytical AACSB: Analytical Skills 19) A decrease in the government budget deficit decreases the ________ loanable funds and an increase in the government budget surplus increases the ________ loanable funds. A) demand for; demand for B) demand for; supply of C) supply of; demand for D) supply of; supply of E) demand for loanable funds and the supply of; supply of loanable funds and the demand for Answer: B Type: MC Topic: Government in the Market for Loanable Funds Skill: Conceptual AACSB: Analytical Skills
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Use the table below to answer the following question. Table 23.3.1 Data from Northland Real interest rate (percent per year) Demand for Loanable Funds (billions of dollars) Supply of Loanable Funds (billions of dollars) 3 4 5 6 7 8 160 140 120 100 80 60 40 60 80 100 120 140 20) Refer to Table 23.3.1. Table 23.3.1 shows the market for loanable funds in Northland. The government budget is balanced. If the government moves from a balanced budget to a surplus of $20 billion, the new equilibrium has a real interest rate of ________ percent and quantity of loanable funds traded equal to ________. A) 6.5; $110 billion B) 6.5; $90 billion C) 5.5; $90 billion D) 5.5; $110 billion E) 6; $120 billion Answer: D Type: MC Topic: Government in the Market for Loanable Funds Skill: Conceptual Source: Study Guide AACSB: Analytical Skills 21) In the market for loanable funds, a larger government surplus leads to A) a higher real interest rate, and increased investment. B) a higher real interest rate, and decreased investment. C) a lower real interest rate, and increased investment. D) a lower real interest rate, and decreased investment. E) no effect on the real interest rate or investment. Answer: C Type: MC Topic: Government in the Market for Loanable Funds Skill: Conceptual Source: Study Guide AACSB: Analytical Skills
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22) Choose the statement that is incorrect . A) According to the Ricardo-Barro effect, taxpayers are rational people who know that a budget deficit today means that future taxes will be higher and future disposable incomes will be smaller. B) According to the Ricardo-Barro effect, a budget deficit has no effect on either the real interest rate or investment. C) Most economists believe that the Ricardo-Barro effect holds in the market for loanable funds. D) According to the Ricardo-Barro effect, the quantity of loanable funds demanded increases when a government budget deficit occurs, and private saving and the private supply of loanable funds increase to match the quantity of loanable funds demanded. E) All of the above statements are correct. Answer: C Diff: 2 Type: MC Topic: Government in the Market for Loanable Funds Source: MyEconLab 23) A government budget surplus occurs, which ________ loanable funds. The real interest rate ________, household saving ________, and investment ________. A) increases the demand for; rises; increases; decreases B) increases the supply of; falls; increases; decreases C) increases the supply of; falls; decreases; increases D) decreases the demand for; falls; decreases; increases E) decreases the supply of; decreases; decreases; increases Answer: C Diff: 2 Type: MC Topic: Government in the Market for Loanable Funds Source: MyEconLab
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Refer to the table below to answer the following question. Table 23.3.2 Real interest rate (percent per year) Loanable funds demanded (trillions of 2002 dollars) Loanable funds supplied (trillions of 2002 dollars) 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 8.5 8.0 7.5 7.0 6.5 6.0 5.5 5.5 6.0 6.5 7.0 7.5 8.0 8.5 24) Refer to Table 23.3.2. The table shows an economy's demand for loanable funds and supply of loanable funds schedules when the government's budget is balanced. The quantity of loanable funds demanded increases by $1 trillion at each real interest rate and the quantity of loanable funds supplied increases by $2 trillion at each real interest rate. If the government wants investment to be $9 trillion, it must ________ its budget balance by ________ trillion. A) increase; $1 B) decrease; $1 C) increase; $1.5 D) decrease; $1.5 E) increase; $2 Answer: A Diff: 2 Type: MC Topic: Government in the Market for Loanable Funds Source: MyEconLab
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Refer to the table below to answer the following question. Table 23.3.3 Real interest rate (percent per year) Loanable funds demanded (trillions of 2002 dollars) Loanable funds supplied (trillions of 2002 dollars) 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 7.5 7.0 6.5 6.0 5.5 5.0 4.5 4.5 5.0 5.5 6.0 6.5 7.0 7.5 25) Refer to Table 23.3.3. The table shows the demand for loanable funds schedule and the private supply of loanable funds schedule when the government's budget is balanced. If the Ricardo-Barro effect occurs, and if the government budget deficit is $2.0 trillion, the real interest rate is ________ percent a year and the quantity of investment is ________ trillion. A) 5.0; $5.0 B) 9.0; $7.0 C) 3.0; $7.5 D) 5.0; $7.0 E) 7.0; $6.0 Answer: E Diff: 2 Type: MC Topic: Government in the Market for Loanable Funds Source: MyEconLab
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Refer to the table below to answer the following question. Table 23.3.4 Real interest rate (percent per year) Loanable funds demanded (trillions of 2002 dollars) Loanable funds supplied (trillions of 2002 dollars) 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 7.0 6.5 6.0 5.5 5.0 4.5 4.0 7.0 7.5 8.0 8.5 9.0 9.5 10.0 26) Refer to Table 23.3.4. The table shows an economy's demand for loanable funds schedule and the private supply of loanable funds schedule when the government's budget is balanced. If the government budget deficit is $1.0 trillion, the real interest rate is ________ percent a year, the quantity of investment is ________ trillion, and the quantity of private saving is ________ trillion. A) 7; $5.5; $8.5 B) 7; $8.5; $5.5 C) 5; $6.5; $7.5 D) 3; $6.5; $7.0 E) 5; $7.5; $6.5 Answer: C Diff: 2 Type: MC Topic: Government in the Market for Loanable Funds Source: MyEconLab
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Refer to the table below to answer the following question. Table 23.3.5 Real interest rate (percent per year) Loanable funds demanded (trillions of 2002 dollars) Loanable funds supplied (trillions of 2002 dollars) 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 8.5 8.0 7.5 7.0 6.5 6.0 5.5 4.5 5.0 5.5 6.0 6.5 7.0 7.5 27) Refer to Table 23.3.5. The table shows an economy's demand for loanable funds schedule and supply of loanable funds schedule when the government's budget is balanced. If the government budget surplus is $2.0 trillion, the real interest rate is ________ percent a year, the quantity of investment is ________ trillion, and the quantity of private saving is ________ trillion. A) 10; $5.5; $7.5 B) 10; $7.5; $5.5 C) 8; $6.5; $6.5 D) 6; $7.5; $7.5 E) 6; $7.5; $5.5 Answer: E Diff: 2 Type: MC Topic: Government in the Market for Loanable Funds Source: MyEconLab 28) The government of Greece is running a large budget deficit. With no Ricardo-Barro effect, which of the following events will occur? I. The supply curve of loanable funds will shift leftward. II. A higher real interest rate crowds out investment. III. Saving increases. A) I only B) II only C) III only D) I and II only E) I, II, and III Answer: D Type: MC
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23.4 The Global Loanable Funds Market 1) If we import more than we export from the rest of the world we A) are a net borrower of funds from the rest of the world. B) are a net lender of funds to the rest of the world. C) are running a trade surplus. D) are helping to finance investment in the rest of the world. E) have a surplus of funds at the world equilibrium interest rate. Answer: A Type: MC Topic: The Global Loanable Funds Market Skill: Recognition AACSB: Reflective Thinking 2) Real interest rates around the world tend to A) be quite different because no two countries are exactly the same. B) be equal after adjusting for differences in risk because financial capital seeks the highest possible return. C) differ because inflation rates differ across countries. D) be equal because trading partners would not do business otherwise. E) none of the above. Answer: B Diff: 3 Type: MC Topic: The Global Loanable Funds Market Skill: Conceptual AACSB: Reflective Thinking 3) The real interest rate is ________ in Canada compared to Zimbabwe because ________. A) lower; there is a lower risk premium in Canada B) higher; more firms want to borrow financial capital in Canada than in Zimbabwe C) lower; Canada is a net borrower D) higher; Zimbabwe is a net borrower E) higher; the supply of loanable funds is greater in Canada Answer: A Diff: 2 Type: MC Topic: The Global Loanable Funds Market Skill: Conceptual AACSB: Reflective Thinking
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4) A small country is a net foreign borrower. Its real interest rate without foreign borrowing is ________ the world real interest rate. A) higher than B) equal to C) lower than D) not comparable to E) either higher than or equal to Answer: A Type: MC Topic: The Global Loanable Funds Market Skill: Conceptual AACSB: Reflective Thinking 5) A very small country is a net foreign borrower. Its supply of loanable funds increases but it still remains a net foreign borrower. As a result, the equilibrium quantity of loanable funds used in the country ________ and the country's foreign borrowing ________. A) does not change; decreases B) does not change; does not change C) does not change; increases D) increases; does not change E) increases; decreases Answer: A Type: MC Topic: The Global Loanable Funds Market Skill: Analytical AACSB: Analytical Skills 6) A very small country is a net foreign borrower and its demand for loanable funds increases. As a result, the equilibrium quantity of loanable funds used in the country ________ and the country's foreign borrowing ________. A) does not change; increases B) does not change; does not change C) increases; increases D) increases; does not change E) increases; decreases Answer: C Type: MC Topic: The Global Loanable Funds Market Skill: Analytical AACSB: Analytical Skills
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7) A very small country is a net foreign lender and its supply of loanable funds increases. As a result, the equilibrium quantity of loanable funds used in the country ________ and the country's foreign lending ________. A) increases; decreases B) does not change; does not change C) does not change; increases D) increases; does not change E) does not change; decreases Answer: C Type: MC Topic: The Global Loanable Funds Market Skill: Analytical AACSB: Analytical Skills 8) If the world real interest rate falls, then a country that is a net foreign lender A) increases the amount of its lending. B) does not change the amount of its lending. C) decreases the amount of its lending. D) changes from being a net foreign lender to a net foreign borrower. E) none of the above. Answer: C Type: MC Topic: The Global Loanable Funds Market Skill: Analytical AACSB: Analytical Skills 9) Loanable funds flow among countries because ________. A) including differences in risk, the real interest rate is always higher in some countries than in others and this real interest rate differential will not change B) funds flow into the country with the highest nominal interest rate and out of the country in which the nominal interest rate is lowest C) it creates more stability for domestic businesses to have foreign investors D) funds flow into the country with the highest real interest rate and out of the country in which the real interest rate is lowest E) rational investors want diversified portfolios Answer: D Type: MC Topic: The Global Loanable Funds Market Skill: Analytical Source: MyEconLab AACSB: Analytical Skills
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10) In an individual economy that is integrated into the global market, the demand for loanable funds is determined by the ________ demand and the supply of loanable funds is determined by the ________ supply. A) country's; world's B) country's; country's C) world's; country's D) world's; world's E) world's; World Bank's Answer: A Type: MC Topic: The Global Loanable Funds Market Skill: Analytical Source: MyEconLab AACSB: Analytical Skills 11) If a country has a shortage of loanable funds at the world real interest rate ________. A) the country increases its net exports B) the country decreases its net exports C) the demand for loanable funds in this country decreases D) world suppliers of loanable funds move funds to this country E) the world interest rate falls Answer: D Type: MC Topic: The Global Loanable Funds Market Skill: Analytical Source: MyEconLab AACSB: Analytical Skills 12) An increase in the government budget deficit ________. If the country is an international borrower, the government budget deficit ________. If the country is an international lender, the government budget deficit ________. A) increases the country's supply of loanable funds; decreases foreign lending; increases foreign borrowing B) decreases the country's demand for loanable funds; decreases foreign lending; increases foreign borrowing C) increases the country's demand for loanable funds; increases foreign borrowing; decreases foreign lending D) decreases the country's supply of loanable funds; increases foreign borrowing; decreases foreign lending E) increases the country's demand for loanable funds; decreases foreign borrowing; increases foreign lending Answer: C Type: MC Topic: The Global Loanable Funds Market Skill: Analytical Source: MyEconLab AACSB: Analytical Skills
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13) A country's exports are $490 billion and its imports are $529 billion. Choose the correct statement. I. The country is a net foreign borrower. II. The Ricardo-Barro effect holds in this country. III. This country does not have an equilibrium in its loanable funds market. A) I only B) II only C) III only D) I and II only E) I, II, and III Answer: A Type: MC 14) A country's imports are $490 billion and its exports are $529 billion. Choose the correct statement. I. The country is a net foreign borrower. II. The Ricardo-Barro effect holds in this country. III. This country does not have an equilibrium in its loanable funds market. A) I only B) II only C) III only D) I and II only E) None of the statements are true. Answer: E Type: MC Chapter 24 Money, the Price Level, and Inflation 24.1 What Is Money? 1) Money is A) equivalent to barter. B) currency plus credit cards plus debit cards. C) the same as gold. D) a means of payment. E) currency plus coins. Answer: D Diff: 1 Type: MC Topic: What Is Money? 2) Which of the following best fits the definition of money? A) gold B) any commodity or token that is generally acceptable as a means of payment C) an obligation between the parties to a transaction D) any unit of account E) any medium of exchange
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Answer: B Diff: 1 Type: MC Topic: What Is Money? 3) If you can find someone to swap what you have for what you want, then A) money is necessary for the exchange to work. B) specialization is impossible in the society in which you live. C) there exists a double coincidence of wants. D) there exists a double system of money. E) there exists a monetary exchange system. Answer: C Diff: 1 Type: MC Topic: What Is Money? 4) Without money to act as a medium of exchange, A) the standard of living in the economy would increase. B) barter exchange would allow for a much simpler yet increased standard of living. C) the increased transactions costs associated with trading would prohibit some trades from taking place. D) independence in production would lead to a proliferation of new products. E) all exchanges that take place under a monetary system would still take place. Answer: C Diff: 1 Type: MC Topic: What Is Money?
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5) Money's function as a unit of account can best be described as A) an agreed measure for stating the prices of goods and services. B) an entry in an accounting ledger. C) a method of recording transactions. D) a commodity that can be exchanged for another commodity. E) a generally accepted medium of exchange. Answer: A Diff: 1 Type: MC Topic: What Is Money? 6) Which one of the following is not a function of money? A) medium of exchange B) means of payment C) store of value D) measure of liquidity E) unit of account Answer: D Diff: 2 Type: MC Topic: What Is Money? 7) Which of the following is a function of money? A) A medium of exchange. B) A measure of liquidity. C) A means of pooling risk. D) A store of exchange. E) A means of reducing transactions costs. Answer: A Diff: 1 Type: MC Topic: What Is Money? Source: Study Guide 8) Money's function as a store of value can best be described as A) an agreed measure for stating the prices of goods and services. B) a guarantee of a double coincidence of wants. C) an efficient means of writing contracts over a long time period. D) something that can be held and exchanged later for goods and services. E) a generally acceptable exchange system. Answer: D Diff: 2 Type: MC Topic: What Is Money?
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9) The higher and more unpredictable the changes in a monetary unit, the A) more likely it will be used as a store of value. B) less likely it will be used as a store of value. C) more confidence people will have in holding it for the future. D) less likely contracts will be written to counterbalance the uncertainty of its value in the future. E) more likely it will be used as a standard of deferred payment. Answer: B Diff: 2 Type: MC Topic: What Is Money? 10) The higher and more unpredictable the changes in the monetary unit, the A) lower the opportunity cost of using it as a medium of exchange. B) lower the opportunity cost of using it as a store of value. C) higher the opportunity cost of using it as a store of value. D) less likely barter exchange will replace it. E) lower the opportunity cost of using it as a standard of deferred payment. Answer: C Diff: 2 Type: MC Topic: What Is Money? 11) Money can take the form of any one of the following except A) a credit card. B) a chequing deposit. C) a savings deposit. D) Bank of Canada notes. E) coins. Answer: A Diff: 2 Type: MC Topic: What Is Money? 12) The official definitions of money can include all of the following except A) currency outside banks. B) personal chequable deposits. C) non-chequable deposits. D) deposits at trust and mortgage loan companies. E) cheques. Answer: E Diff: 2 Type: MC Topic: What Is Money?
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13) Which of the following is not considered money in Canada today? A) deposits at credit unions B) bank of Canada notes C) deposits at banks D) coins E) debit cards Answer: E Diff: 2 Type: MC Topic: What Is Money? 14) Which one of the following items is not included in the M1 definition of money? A) currency outside banks. B) personal chequable deposits C) non-personal chequable deposits D) fixed term deposits E) Neither B nor D are part of M1. Answer: D Diff: 2 Type: MC Topic: What Is Money? 15) The largest component of M1 is A) currency outside banks. B) personal chequable deposits. C) non-personal chequable deposits. D) fixed term deposits. E) non-personal non-chequable deposits. Answer: C Diff: 1 Type: MC Topic: What Is Money? 16) Using a credit card can best be likened to A) taking out a loan. B) a barter exchange. C) using any other form of money, because you can immediately take the goods you purchase home. D) writing a cheque on your chequable deposit. E) withdrawing money from a savings account. Answer: A Diff: 2 Type: MC Topic: What Is Money?
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17) Which of the following assets is the most liquid? A) a Canada Savings Bond B) a credit card C) a house D) cash E) a line of credit Answer: D Diff: 2 Type: MC Topic: What Is Money? 18) If the prices of goods and services are stated in terms of kilograms of salt, then salt is A) a unit of account. B) a standard of deferred payment. C) a store of value. D) quasi-money. E) a medium of exchange. Answer: A Diff: 2 Type: MC Topic: What Is Money? 19) Which one of the following is a component of M2 but not of M1? A) currency outside banks B) personal chequable deposits C) personal non-chequable deposits D) currency in a bank vault E) Canada Savings Bonds Answer: C Diff: 1 Type: MC Topic: What Is Money? Source: Study Guide 20) Which one of the following is not a store of value? A) credit cards B) personal chequable deposits C) fixed term deposits D) non-personal chequable deposits E) non-chequable deposits Answer: A Diff: 2 Type: MC Topic: What Is Money? Source: Study Guide
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21) Which of the following is a store of value? A) a credit card B) a cheque C) a debit card D) a fixed term deposit E) all of the above Answer: D Diff: 2 Type: MC Topic: What Is Money? 22) Which one of the following is considered to be money? A) a chequable deposit B) a blank cheque C) a credit card D) a debit card E) a Canada Savings Bond Answer: A Diff: 2 Type: MC Topic: What Is Money? 23) Which one of the following is considered to be money? A) a cheque B) a debit card C) a credit card D) currency E) all of the above Answer: D Diff: 2 Type: MC Topic: What Is Money? 24) Which one of the following is not money? A) a chequable deposit B) Canadian currency C) a credit card D) a non-chequable deposit E) a fixed term deposit Answer: C Diff: 2 Type: MC Topic: What Is Money?
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25) Anything can be money as long as it A) has low transactions costs. B) is not too bulky. C) has intrinsic worth. D) meets the double coincidence of wants. E) is acceptable as a medium of exchange. Answer: E Diff: 2 Type: MC Topic: What Is Money? 26) Consider the following data from the economy of Adanac: Currency outside banks: $15 billion Personal and non-personal chequable deposits: $40 billion Personal non-chequable deposits: $50 billion Non-personal non-chequable deposits: $125 billion Fixed term deposits: $200 billion The value of MI is $________ billion and the value of M2 is $________ billion. A) 105; 230 B) 110; 235 C) 55; 430 D) 55; 230 E) 60; 430 Answer: C Diff: 2 Type: MC Topic: What Is Money? 27) Barter can only take place if there is A) money. B) a double coincidence of wants. C) a double coincidence of money. D) no inflation. E) none of the above. Answer: B Diff: 1 Type: MC Topic: What Is Money?
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28) If Wolfgang transfers $1,000 out of his chequable deposit account and places it in his non- chequable deposit account, A) M1 and M2 fall. B) M1 falls and M2 rises. C) M1 falls and M3 rises. D) M1 falls and M2 remains the same. E) M1 rises and M2 remains the same. Answer: D Diff: 2 Type: MC Topic: What Is Money? 29) If Wolfgang transfers $1,000 out of his non-chequable deposit account and places it in his chequable deposit account, A) M1 and M2 fall. B) M1 falls and M2 rises. C) M1 falls and M3 rises. D) M1 falls and M2 remains the same. E) M1 rises and M2 remains the same. Answer: E Diff: 2 Type: MC Topic: What Is Money? 30) Which one of the following is most liquid? A) chequable deposits B) real estate C) government bonds D) debit cards E) cheques Answer: A Diff: 1 Type: MC Topic: What Is Money? 31) Liquidity is A) the ease with which an asset can be converted into a means of payment. B) the degree of certainty of the price of an asset. C) a high-risk asset. D) the net flow of gold into the Bank of Canada. E) the same as currency. Answer: A Diff: 1 Type: MC Topic: What Is Money?
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Use the information below to answer the following question. Fact 24.1.1 The information describes a hypothetical banking system. Assume that all banks are holding their desired reserves. Actual reserves in banking system $1,000 Total chequable deposits $5,500 Securities held by chartered banks $1,000 Currency outside banks $500 32) Refer to Fact 24.1.1. The quantity of money as measured by M1 is equal to A) $2,500. B) $1,500. C) $6,500. D) $7,000. E) $6,000. Answer: E Diff: 2 Type: MC Topic: What Is Money? 33) In a world with no money, costs are expressed in terms of other goods. If one video game costs two hamburgers, and a hamburger costs three pops, how many pops would it take to buy a video game? A) 5 B) 3 C) 6 D) 3/2 E) 1/6 Answer: C Type: MC 34) During a period of severe inflation, which function of money is most seriously affected? A) store of value B) unit of account C) medium of exchange D) means of payment E) none of the above Answer: A Type: MC
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24.2 The Banking System 1) Which one of the following would not be considered a depository institution? A) The Bank of Canada. B) a credit union C) a caisse populaire D) a trust and mortgage loan company E) The Bank of Montreal Answer: A Diff: 1 Type: MC Topic: The Banking System 2) A private firm that takes deposits from households and firms and makes loans to other households and firms is A) a usurer. B) a depository institution. C) a credit company. D) a stockbroker. E) an insurance company. Answer: B Diff: 1 Type: MC Topic: The Banking System 3) Which one of the following is not a depository institution? A) a trust and mortgage loan company B) a foreign-owned chartered bank C) a credit union D) a caisse populaire E) a car insurance company Answer: E Diff: 1 Type: MC Topic: The Banking System 4) In 2008, chartered banks held reserves equal to approximately ________ percent of deposits. A) 0.4 B) 0.04 C) 4.0 D) 0.14 E) 14.0 Answer: A Diff: 1 Type: MC Topic: The Banking System
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5) The reserves of a bank include A) the cash in its vault plus the value of its chequable deposits. B) the cash in its vault plus any deposits held on account at the Bank of Canada. C) the cash in its vault plus any gold held for the bank at the Bank of Canada. D) all of its common stock holdings, the cash in its vault, and all deposits held on account with the Bank of Canada. E) the cash in its vault plus any deposits held on account with the Bank of Canada plus the value of any government bonds that it holds. Answer: B Diff: 2 Type: MC Topic: The Banking System 6) Which one of the following is not a service of depository institutions? A) Lowering the cost of borrowing. B) Providing a place for reserve account deposits. C) Pooling risk. D) Creating liquidity. E) Lowering the cost of monitoring borrowers. Answer: B Diff: 2 Type: MC Topic: The Banking System 7) Pooling risk A) refers to a default contract made by a bank to other banks. B) refers to spreading the risk of loan default among all the depositors within the depository institution. C) is now illegal under the Nuisance Act of 2007. D) occurs when one person lends to an entire group or pool of borrowers. E) refers to the lower cost of obtaining funds from a depository institution. Answer: B Diff: 2 Type: MC Topic: The Banking System 8) The Bank of Canada does not do which of the following? A) Supervise chartered banks. B) Lend money to the public. C) Act as a lender of last resort to banks. D) Issue bank notes. E) Hold government of Canada securities. Answer: B Diff: 1 Type: MC Topic: The Banking System
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9) The Bank of Canada is the lender of last resort. This means banks may borrow money from the Bank of Canada A) whenever they are short of reserves. B) overnight. C) if they have sufficient securities to support the loan. D) if the banking system as a whole is short of reserves. E) to finance a sudden and dramatic increase in overseas reserves. Answer: D Diff: 1 Type: MC Topic: The Banking System 10) Which of the following statements about depository institutions is false ? A) They create liquidity by borrowing long and lending short. B) They keep reserves to meet cash withdrawals. C) A credit union is an example of a depository institution. D) They pool, and therefore reduce, risk. E) They borrow at lower interest rates and lend at higher rates. Answer: A Diff: 2 Type: MC Topic: The Banking System Source: Study Guide 11) Which of the following is an economic function of a chartered bank? A) Issuing bank notes. B) Pooling risk. C) Supervising financial markets. D) Conducting monetary policy. E) None of the above. Answer: B Diff: 2 Type: MC Topic: The Banking System 12) Which of the following does not affect the size of the monetary base? A) the amount of notes issued by the Bank of Canada B) the amount of loans issued by chartered banks C) the amount of coins issued by the Canadian Mint D) the amount of chartered bank deposits at the Bank of Canada E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 2 Type: MC Topic: The Banking System
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13) The Monetary Base consists of the sum of A) Bank of Canada notes held within the Bank of Canada, bank deposits at the Bank of Canada, and coins held by banks. B) Bank of Canada notes held outside the Bank of Canada, the desired reserves of chartered banks, and coins held by banks. C) Bank of Canada notes held outside the Bank of Canada, bank deposits at the Bank of Canada, and coins held by banks and the public. D) Bank of Canada notes held within the Bank of Canada, bank deposits at the Bank of Canada, and coins held by banks and the public. E) Bank of Canada notes held outside the Bank of Canada, bank deposits at the Bank of Canada, and notes and coins held by banks. Answer: C Diff: 1 Type: MC Topic: The Banking System 14) Choose the statement that is incorrect . A) A chartered bank is a private firm, chartered under the Bank Act of 1992 to receive deposits and make loans. B) A credit union is a cooperative organization that operates under the Co-operative Credit Association Act of 1992. C) A caisse populaire is similar to a credit union. D) Trust and mortgage loan companies receive deposits, make loans, and act as trustee for pension funds and for estates. E) Trust and mortgage loan companies have the bulk of the deposits in M1 and M2. Answer: E Type: MC 15) Which of the following is an asset of the Bank of Canada? A) loans to depository institutions B) Bank of Canada notes C) depository institution deposits D) deposits of private Canadian citizens E) loans to private Canadian citizens Answer: A Type: MC 16) When the Bank of Canada sells government securities to a bank, how are the Bank of Canada's assets affected? A) The bank's reserves held at the Bank of Canada increase. B) The bank's reserves held at the Bank of Canada decrease. C) Bank of Canada notes increase. D) The amount of the Bank of Canada's government securities increases. E) The amount of the Bank of Canada's government securities decreases. Answer: E Type: MC
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24.3 How Banks Create Money 1) A bank can create money by A) selling some of its securities. B) increasing its reserves. C) lending its excess reserves. D) printing more cheques. E) converting reserves into securities. Answer: C Diff: 2 Type: MC Topic: How Banks Create Money 2) Excess reserves are A) desired reserves minus actual reserves. B) required reserves minus actual reserves. C) liquidity funds minus actual reserves. D) actual reserves minus desired reserves. E) required reserves minus desired reserves. Answer: D Diff: 1 Type: MC Topic: How Banks Create Money 3) Whenever desired reserves exceed actual reserves, the bank A) can make new loans. B) will call in loans. C) will go out of business. D) is in a profit-making position. E) has excess reserves. Answer: B Diff: 2 Type: MC Topic: How Banks Create Money 4) Whenever actual reserves exceed desired reserves, the bank A) can make new loans. B) will go out of business. C) needs to call in loans. D) will borrow funds from another bank. E) will raise the interest rate on its loans. Answer: A Diff: 2 Type: MC Topic: How Banks Create Money
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5) The ratio of currency to deposits is the A) currency drain ratio. B) excess reserve ratio. C) monetary reserve ratio. D) reserve ratio. E) currency ratio. Answer: A Diff: 1 Type: MC Topic: How Banks Create Money 6) The money creation process begins when A) desired reserves increase because of an increase in deposits. B) the quantity of money increases. C) banks have excess reserves. D) bank deposits increase. E) banks lend reserves. Answer: C Diff: 1 Type: MC Topic: How Banks Create Money 7) If people decide to transfer their currency into their bank deposits then, all else constant, their decisions will A) cause the quantity of money to decrease. B) cause lower inflation. C) cause higher real interest rates. D) cause the quantity of money to increase immediately. E) increase the actual reserves of banks. Answer: E Diff: 2 Type: MC Topic: How Banks Create Money 8) Suppose that a country has $50 billion in bank reserves, $100 billion in currency held by the public, and $500 billion in bank deposits. The currency drain ratio is A) 18%. B) 50%. C) 30%. D) 10%. E) 20%. Answer: E Diff: 2 Type: MC Topic: How Banks Create Money
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Use the information below to answer the following questions. Fact 24.3.1 The Bank of Speedy Creek has chosen the following initial balance sheet: 9) Refer to Fact 24.3.1. Based on the Bank of Speedy Creek's initial balance sheet, what is its desired reserve ratio? A) 4 percent B) 8 percent C) 12.5 percent D) 25 percent E) 40 percent Answer: B Diff: 2 Type: MC Topic: How Banks Create Money Source: Study Guide 10) Refer to Fact 24.3.1. Huck Finn comes along and deposits $10. After Huck's deposit, but before any other actions occur, the total amount of money in the economy A) has stayed the same, with its components unchanged. B) has stayed the same, with currency decreasing and deposits increasing. C) has fallen, with currency decreasing and deposits staying the same. D) has risen, with currency unchanged and deposits increasing. E) has fallen, with currency decreasing and deposits unchanged. Answer: B Diff: 2 Type: MC Topic: How Banks Create Money Source: Study Guide
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Use the information below to answer the following questions. Fact 24.3.2 The Bank of Hobbiton has chosen the following initial balance sheet: 11) Refer to Fact 24.3.2. Based on the Bank of Hobbiton's initial balance sheet, what is its desired reserve ratio? A) 10 percent B) 100 percent C) 20 percent D) 5 percent E) not calculable with the available information Answer: D Diff: 2 Type: MC Topic: How Banks Create Money 12) Refer to Fact 24.3.2. Bilbo Baggins comes to the bank and deposits a $100 bill. After Bilbo's deposit, but before any other actions occur, the total quantity of money in the economy A) has stayed the same, with its components unchanged. B) has stayed the same, with currency decreasing and deposits increasing. C) has fallen, with currency decreasing and deposits staying the same. D) has risen, with currency unchanged and deposits increasing. E) has fallen, with currency decreasing and deposits unchanged. Answer: B Diff: 2 Type: MC Topic: How Banks Create Money 13) The Canadian money multiplier is calculated as the A) change in monetary base divided by the change in deposits. B) change in quantity of bank notes divided by the change in monetary base. C) change in monetary base divided by the change in monetary holdings of households. D) change in the quantity of money divided by the change in the monetary base. E) change in monetary base divided by the change in quantity of money. Answer: D Diff: 2 Type: MC Topic: How Banks Create Money
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14) The quantity of money that the banking system can create is limited by A) bank managers' decisions. B) the monetary base, desired reserves, and desired currency holdings. C) the number of consumers who apply for loans. D) the credit ratings of the consumers who are applying for loans. E) the quantity of bank notes released by the Bank of Canada. Answer: B Type: MC Topic: How Banks Create Money Source: MyEconLab 15) If the desired reserve ratio is 3 percent and deposits totaled $5.75 billion, banks hold A) $172.5 million in reserves. B) $0.1725 million in reserves. C) $172.5 million in excess reserves. D) $0.1725 million in excess reserves. E) $192 million in reserves. Answer: A Type: MC 16) The banks on Sunny Island have deposits of $4 million, reserves of $600,000, and loans of $2.4 million. The desired reserve ratio is 10 percent. The banks have ________ of desired reserves and ________ of excess reserves. A) $400,000; $600,000 B) $200,000; $400,000 C) $400,000; $200,000 D) $600,000; $200,000 E) $200,000; $600,000 Answer: C Type: MC 17) When the nominal interest rate rises, the opportunity cost of holding money ________. A) rises and people hold more money B) falls and people hold more money C) falls and people hold less money D) rises and people hold less money E) does not change Answer: D Type: MC
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18) When the interest rate falls in the money market, the quantity of money demanded ________ and the quantity of money supplied ________. A) increases; remains unchanged B) increases; decreases C) remains unchanged; decreases D) remains unchanged; remains unchanged E) decreases; increases Answer: A Type: MC 19) Suppose that the interest rate is greater than the equilibrium interest rate. Which of the following statements is true? I. There is an excess quantity of money. II. The quantity of money automatically increases. III. The interest rate falls. A) I only B) II only C) III only D) I and III only E) None of the above statements are true. Answer: D Type: MC
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24.4 The Money Market 1) The opportunity cost of holding money increases when the A) purchasing power of money increases. B) nominal interest rate rises. C) price of goods and services decrease. D) income of consumers increases. E) income of consumers decreases. Answer: B Diff: 2 Type: MC Topic: The Money Market 2) Choose the correct statement. A) The quantity of money measured in constant dollars is nominal money. B) The quantity of money measured in dollars is nominal money. C) The quantity of nominal money demanded is inversely related to the price level. D) As real GDP increase the quantity of nominal money demanded decreases. E) As the interest rate rises, the quantity of real money demanded increases. Answer: B Diff: 1 Type: MC Topic: The Money Market 3) If the price level doubles, all else constant, the quantity of A) real money demanded will double. B) nominal money demanded will double. C) real money demanded will half. D) nominal money demanded will half. E) nominal money demanded will remain constant. Answer: B Diff: 2 Type: MC Topic: The Money Market 4) Real money is equal to A) nominal income divided by the velocity of circulation. B) nominal income divided by the price level. C) nominal money divided by the price level. D) the price level divided by nominal money. E) nominal money divided by nominal income. Answer: C Diff: 1 Type: MC Topic: The Money Market
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5) Nominal money is equal to real A) money times the price level. B) GDP times the price level. C) GDP times the GDP deflator. D) money divided by the price level. E) GDP times real money. Answer: A Diff: 1 Type: MC Topic: The Money Market 6) Everything else remaining the same, an increase in real GDP A) increases the demand for real money. B) decreases the demand for real money. C) does not change the demand for real money. D) increases the demand for real money up to a point, and then demand will automatically fall. E) decreases the demand for real money up to a point, and then demand will automatically rise. Answer: A Diff: 2 Type: MC Topic: The Money Market
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Use the figure below to answer the following questions. Figure 24.4.1 7) Refer to Figure 24.4.1. Everything else remaining the same, which graph best shows an increase in real GDP? A) (a) B) (b) C) (c) D) (d) E) (a) and (c) Answer: A Diff: 2 Type: MC Topic: The Money Market
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8) Refer to Figure 24.4.1. Everything else remaining the same, which graph best shows a decrease in real GDP? A) (a) B) (b) C) (c) D) (d) E) (a) and (c) Answer: B Diff: 2 Type: MC Topic: The Money Market Use the figure below to answer the following questions. Figure 24.4.2 9) Refer to Figure 24.4.2. Which one of the following best describes the response to an increase in real GDP? A) Movement from A to F B) Movement from A to C C) Movement from E to A D) Movement from B to A E) Movement from A to E Answer: E Diff: 2 Type: MC Topic: The Money Market
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10) Refer to Figure 24.4.2. Which one of the following best describes the response to a decrease in real GDP? A) A movement from A to C B) A movement from A to B C) A movement from A to E D) A movement from B to C E) A movement from E to A Answer: E Diff: 2 Type: MC Topic: The Money Market 11) Refer to Figure 24.4.2. Which one of the following best describes the response to a decrease in the market price of bonds? A) A movement from A to B B) A movement from A to C C) A movement from A to F D) A movement from A to E E) A movement from E to A Answer: A Diff: 2 Type: MC Topic: The Money Market 12) Refer to Figure 24.4.2. Which one of the following best describes the response to a rise in the market price of bonds? A) A movement from A to B B) A movement from A to C C) A movement from A to F D) A movement from A to E E) A movement from C to A Answer: B Diff: 2 Type: MC Topic: The Money Market 13) Refer to Figure 24.4.2. Which one of the following best describes the response to a rise in the price level? A) A movement from A to B B) A movement from A to C C) A movement from A to F D) A movement from A to E E) none of the above Answer: E Diff: 2 Type: MC Topic: The Money Market
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14) The amount of real money people want to hold will increase if either the amount they are spending increases or the A) price level increases. B) price level decreases. C) interest rate increases. D) interest rate decreases. E) price of bond falls. Answer: D Diff: 2 Type: MC Topic: The Money Market 15) The amount of real money people want to hold will decrease if either ________ or the interest rate ________. A) the price level increases; rises B) the price level decreases; falls C) real GDP increases; falls D) real GDP decreases; rises E) the price of bonds increase; rises Answer: D Diff: 2 Type: MC Topic: The Money Market 16) Which one of the following will shift the demand for money curve rightward? A) an increase in real GDP B) an increase in the price level C) a decrease in the price level D) an increase in the interest rate E) a decrease in the interest rate Answer: A Diff: 2 Type: MC Topic: The Money Market 17) If households and firms find they are holding less money than desired, they will A) sell bonds, and the interest rate will rise. B) sell bonds, and the interest rate will fall. C) buy bonds, and the interest rate will rise. D) buy bonds, and the interest rate will fall. E) buy goods, and the price level will rise. Answer: A Diff: 3 Type: MC Topic: The Money Market Source: Study Guide
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18) If households and firms find they are holding more money than desired, they will A) sell bonds, and the interest rate will rise. B) sell bonds, and the interest rate will fall. C) buy bonds, and the interest rate will rise. D) buy bonds, and the interest rate will fall. E) buy goods, and the price level will rise. Answer: D Diff: 3 Type: MC Topic: The Money Market 19) The opportunity cost of holding currency is A) the price level. B) consumption given up. C) the real interest rate. D) the nominal interest rate. E) the inflation rate. Answer: D Diff: 1 Type: MC Topic: The Money Market 20) Money market equilibrium occurs A) when interest rates are constant. B) when the level of real GDP is constant. C) when the quantity of real money supplied equals the quantity of real money demanded. D) only under a fixed exchange rate. E) when bond prices are constant. Answer: C Diff: 1 Type: MC Topic: The Money Market Source: Study Guide 21) If the interest rate is above the equilibrium rate, how is equilibrium achieved in the money market? A) People buy goods to get rid of their excess money, lowering the price of goods and lowering the interest rate. B) People sell goods to get rid of their excess money, lowering the price of goods and lowering the interest rate. C) People sell bonds to get rid of their excess money, lowering the price of bonds and lowering the interest rate. D) People sell bonds to get rid of their excess money, raising the price of bonds and lowering the interest rate. E) People buy bonds to get rid of their excess money, raising the price of bonds and lowering the interest rate. Answer: E Diff: 3 Type: MC Topic: The Money Market Source: Study Guide
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22) If the interest rate is below the equilibrium, how is equilibrium achieved in the money market? A) People buy goods to get rid of their excess money, lowering the price of goods and raising the interest rate. B) People sell goods to get rid of their excess money, lowering the price of goods and raising the interest rate. C) People sell bonds to get rid of their excess money, lowering the price of bonds and raising the interest rate. D) People sell bonds to try and raise more money, lowering the price of bonds and raising the interest rate. E) People buy bonds to get rid of their excess money, raising the price of bonds and raising the interest rate. Answer: D Diff: 3 Type: MC Topic: The Money Market Use the table below to answer the following questions. Table 24.4.1 A B C 1 r Y 0 Y1 2 7 1.0 1.5 3 6 1.5 2.0 4 5 2.0 2.5 5 4 2.5 3.0 6 3 3.0 3.5 7 2 3.5 4.0 8 1 4.0 4.5 23) Refer to Table 24.4.1. The spreadsheet provides information about the demand for money in Minland. Column A is the nominal interest rate, r . Columns B and C show the quantity of money demanded at two different levels of real GDP: Y 0 is $10 billion and Y 1 is $20 billion. The quantity of money is $3 billion. Real GDP is $20 billion. If the interest rate is less than 4 percent a year A) people sell bonds, the price of a bond falls, and the interest rate rises. B) people buy bonds, the price of a bond rises, and the interest rate rises. C) people sell bonds, the price of a bond falls, and the interest rate falls. D) people buy bonds, the price of a bond rises, and the interest rate falls. E) the demand for money increases. Answer: A Type: MC Topic: The Money Market Source: MyEconLab
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24) Refer to Table 24.4.1. The spreadsheet provides information about the demand for money in Minland. Column A is the nominal interest rate, r . Columns B and C show the quantity of money demanded at two different levels of real GDP: Y 0 is $10 billion and Y 1 is $20 billion. The quantity of money is $3 billion. Real GDP is $20 billion. If the interest rate is greater than 4 percent a year A) people buy bonds, the price of a bond rises, and the interest rate rises. B) people buy bonds, the price of a bond rises, and the interest rate falls. C) people sell bonds, the price of a bond falls, and the interest rate rises. D) people sell bonds, the price of a bond falls, and the interest rate falls. E) the demand for money decreases. Answer: B Type: MC Topic: The Money Market Source: MyEconLab 25) When the nominal interest rate rises, the opportunity cost of holding money ________. A) rises and people hold more money B) falls and people hold more money C) falls and people hold less money D) rises and people hold less money E) does not change Answer: D Type: MC
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24.5 The Quantity Theory of Money 1) The quantity theory of money begins with the equation of exchange, MV = PY, and then adds the assumptions that A) velocity varies inversely with the interest rate, and the price level is independent of the quantity of money. B) velocity and the price level are independent of the quantity of money. C) potential GDP and the quantity of money are independent of the price level. D) potential GDP and the price level are independent of the quantity of money. E) velocity and potential GDP are independent of the quantity of money. Answer: E Diff: 2 Type: MC Topic: The Quantity Theory of Money Source: Study Guide 2) According to the quantity theory of money, an increase in the quantity of money will increase the price level A) but have no effect on real GDP or the velocity of circulation. B) and increase real GDP and the velocity of circulation. C) and increase real GDP but decrease the velocity of circulation. D) and decrease real GDP and increase the velocity of circulation. E) but have no effect on real GDP and will decrease the velocity of circulation. Answer: A Diff: 2 Type: MC Topic: The Quantity Theory of Money Source: Study Guide 3) GDP is $2,000 billion, the price level is 100, and the velocity of circulation is 5. The quantity of money is A) $10,000 billion. B) $2,000 billion. C) $400 billion. D) $20 billion. E) $500 billion. Answer: C Diff: 2 Type: MC Topic: The Quantity Theory of Money
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4) Real GDP is $2,000 billion, the price level is 120, and the velocity of circulation is 5. Nominal GDP is A) $24 billion. B) $600 billion. C) $2,000 billion. D) $2,400 billion. E) $166.67 billion. Answer: D Diff: 2 Type: MC Topic: The Quantity Theory of Money 5) Real GDP is $2,560 billion, the price level is 125, and the velocity of circulation is 5. The quantity of money is A) $2,048 billion. B) $625 billion. C) $20.48 billion. D) $400 billion. E) $640 billion. Answer: E Diff: 2 Type: MC Topic: The Quantity Theory of Money 6) Real GDP is $2,560 billion, the quantity of money $800 billion, and the velocity of circulation is 4. The price level is A) 125. B) 6.4. C) 1,000. D) 3,200. E) 3.2. Answer: A Diff: 2 Type: MC Topic: The Quantity Theory of Money 7) According to the quantity theory of money, in the long run A) V/M is constant. B) Y/M is constant. C) Y/P is constant. D) M/P is constant. E) M/V is constant. Answer: D Type: MC Topic: The Quantity Theory of Money Source: Study Guide
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8) International evidence shows us that A) there is a general tendency for money growth and inflation to be correlated but the quantity theory does not predict inflation precisely. B) in the long run a 1 percent increase in the growth rate of money causes a 1 percent increase in inflation. C) there is a general tendency for money growth and inflation to be inversely related, and the quantity theory is a poor predictor of inflation. D) money growth and inflation are always rising, and the quantity theory predicts inflation accurately. E) there is a general tendency for money growth and inflation to be correlated and the quantity theory predicts inflation precisely. Answer: A Type: MC Topic: The Quantity Theory of Money Source: MyEconLab 9) On the average in Canada, the inflation rate and the money growth rate minus real GDP growth rate A) move in opposite directions. B) are not related. C) rise and fall together. D) are always rising. E) are always equal. Answer: C Type: MC Topic: The Quantity Theory of Money Source: MyEconLab 10) Quantecon is a country in which the quantity theory of money operates. The country has a constant population, capital stock, and technology. In year 1, real GDP was $400 million, the price level was 200, and the velocity of circulation was 20. In year 2 the quantity of money was 20 percent higher than in year 1. The quantity of money in year 1 was ________. The quantity of money in year 2 was ________. The price level in year 2 is ________. A) $20 million; 24 million; 240 B) $20 million; $24 million; 220 C) $40 million; $48 million; 240 D) $40 million; $48 million; 220 E) $80 million; $88 million; 200 Answer: C Type: MC Topic: The Quantity Theory of Money Source: MyEconLab
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24.6 Mathematical Note: The Money Multiplier 1) Suppose that people decide to hold more money as cash. Which statement best illustrates the impact of this action on the money multiplier? The money multiplier A) decreases because of the decrease in the currency drain ratio. B) increases because of the decrease in the currency drain ratio. C) increases because of a decrease in deposits. D) increases because of the increase in the currency drain ratio. E) decreases because of the increase in the currency drain ratio. Answer: E Diff: 2 Type: MC Topic: Mathematical Note: The Money Multiplier 2) Which of the following will increase the size of the money multiplier? A) a decrease in the desired reserve ratio B) an increase in the desired reserve ratio C) a decrease in the currency drain ratio D) an increase in the currency drain ratio E) either A or C above Answer: E Diff: 2 Type: MC Topic: Mathematical Note: The Money Multiplier 3) The money multiplier will decrease if the currency drain ratio A) increases or the desired reserve ratio increases. B) decreases or the desired reserve ratio decreases. C) decreases or the desired reserve ratio increases. D) increases or the desired reserve ratio decreases. E) decreases and the monetary base increases. Answer: A Diff: 2 Type: MC Topic: Mathematical Note: The Money Multiplier 4) Suppose that the desired reserve ratio is 0.25 and the currency drain ratio is 0.25. The money multiplier is A) 1.71. B) 2.50. C) 2.40. D) 1.40. E) 2.08. Answer: B Diff: 2 Type: MC Topic: Mathematical Note: The Money Multiplier
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5) Suppose that the banking system has excess reserves of $10 million, the desired reserve ratio is 10 percent and the currency drain ratio is 40 percent. By how much will the quantity of money increase? A) $12.5 million B) $28 million C) $50 million D) $40 million E) $22 million Answer: B Diff: 2 Type: MC Topic: Mathematical Note: The Money Multiplier Use the information below to answer the following questions. Fact 24.6.1 The Bank of Speedy Creek has chosen the following initial balance sheet: 6) Refer to Fact 24.6.1. Suppose all the banks in the banking system have the same desired reserve ratio as the Bank of Speedy Creek. If the currency drain ratio is 32 percent, what is the size of the money multiplier? A) 3.3 B) 1.25 C) 5.0 D) 4.0 E) 2.7 Answer: A Diff: 2 Type: MC Topic: Mathematical Note: The Money Multiplier 7) The Canadian currency drain ratio for M1 is approximately ________ percent in 2010. A) 15 B) 24 C) 11 D) 34 E) 75 Answer: C Diff: 1 Type: MC Topic: Mathematical Note: The Money Multiplier
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8) Canada's M1 multiplier is ________ than Canada's M2 multiplier because the currency drain for M1 is ________ than for M2, and the desired reserve ratio for M1 is ________ than for M2. A) smaller; larger; larger B) larger; smaller; larger C) larger; smaller; smaller D) smaller; larger; smaller E) smaller; smaller; smaller Answer: A Type: MC Topic: Mathematical Note: The Money Multiplier Source: MyEconLab 9) The money multiplier can also be calculated as ________, where a is the currency drain ratio and b is the desired reserve ratio. A) ( a + b ) ÷ (1 + b ) B) a ÷ ( a + b ) C) (1 + a ) ÷ ( a + b ) D) ( a + b ) ÷ (1 + a ) E) (1 + b ) ÷ ( a + b ) Answer: C Type: MC Topic: Mathematical Note: The Money Multiplier Source: MyEconLab 10) In the United Kingdom, the currency drain ratio is 0.38 and the desired reserve ratio is 0.002. The U.K. money multilier is A) 2.62. B) 0.38. C) 0.28. D) 2.77. E) 3.61. Answer: E Type: MC Topic: Mathematical Note: The Money Multiplier Source: MyEconLab
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11) You are given the following information about the economy of Nocoin: The banks have deposits of $300 billion. Their reserves are $15 billion, two thirds of which is in deposits with the central bank. Households and firms hold $30 billion in bank notes. There are no coins! The banks have no excess reserves. The Bank of Nocoin, the central bank, increases bank reserves by $0.5 billion. The quantity of money ________. The change in the quantity of money is not equal to the change in the monetary base because ________. The money multiplier is ________. A) increases; when bank reserves increase, banks loan out their excess reserves and a multiplier process ensues; 7.33 B) decreases; money includes currency but the monetary base does not include currency; 7.0 C) decreases; an increase in monetary base brings about a decrease in the quantity of money; 7.33 D) increases; the components of the monetary base are not the components of the quantity of money; 7.0 E) increases; the monetary base includes bank deposits; 7.0 Answer: A Type: MC Topic: Mathematical Note: The Money Multiplier Source: MyEconLab
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