Sample Final 2021

1 BIOLOGY 210 – Sample Final Exam Questions (Post-Exam 2 Content) Please note that these questions represent the format and approximate difficulty of actual exam questions. They do not represent the full length of the exam, nor all of the content covered by the exam. Part I: Multiple Choice Meiosis and Sexual Life Cycles 1. Asexual reproduction and sexual reproduction differ in all but which of the following ways? a. Individuals reproducing asexually transmit 100% of their genes to their progeny, whereas individuals reproducing sexually transmit only 50%. b. Asexual reproduction produces offspring that are genetically identical to the parents, whereas sexual reproduction gives rise to genetically distinct offspring. c. Asexual reproduction involves a single parent, whereas sexual reproduction involves two. d. Asexual reproduction requires only mitosis, whereas sexual reproduction always involves meiosis. e. Asexual reproduction is utilized only by fungi and protists, whereas sexual reproduction is utilized only by plants and animals. 2. Eukaryotic sexual life cycles show tremendous variation. Of the following elements, which do all sexual life cycles have in common? I. Alternation of generations IV. Gametes II. Meiosis V. Spores III. Fertilization a. I, IV, and V b. I, II, and IV c. II, III, and IV d. II, IV, and V e. All of the above 3. A triploid cell contains three sets of chromosomes. If a cell of a usually diploid species with 42 chromosomes per cell is triploid, this cell would be expected to have which of the following? a. 63 chromosomes in 31 1/2 pairs b. 63 chromosomes in 21 sets of 3 c. 63 chromosomes, each with three chromatids d. 42 chromosomes, each with three chromatids e. 21 chromosome pairs and 21 unique chromosomes For the following two questions, match the key event of meiosis with the stages listed below. I. Prophase V. Prophase II II. Metaphase I VI. Metaphase II III. Anaphase I VII. Anaphase II IV. Telophase I VIII. Telophase II 4. Tetrads of chromosomes are aligned at the equator of the spindle; alignment determines independent assortment. a. I b. II c. IV d. VII e. VIII 5. Centromeres of sister chromatids disjoin and chromatids separate. a. II b. III c. IV d. V e. VII 6. Chromatids are separated from each other. a. The statement is true for mitosis only. b. The statement is true for meiosis I only. c. The statement is true for meiosis II only. d. The statement is true for mitosis and meiosis I. e. The statement is true for mitosis and meiosis II.

2 7. Independent assortment of chromosomes occurs. a. The statement is true for mitosis only. b. The statement is true for meiosis I only. c. The statement is true for meiosis II only. d. The statement is true for mitosis and meiosis I. e. The statement is true for mitosis and meiosis II. 8. Which of the following occurs in meiosis but not in mitosis? a. Chromosome replication b. Synapsis of chromosomes c. Production of daughter cells d. Alignment of chromosomes at the equator e. Condensation of chromatin 9. Chiasmata are what we see under a microscope that let us know which of the following is occurring? a. Synapsis b. Meiosis II c. Anaphase II d. Crossing over e. Separation of homologs Mendel and the Gene Idea 10. What was the most significant conclusion that Gregor Mendel drew from his experiments with pea plants? a. There is considerable genetic variation in garden peas. b. Traits are inherited in discrete units, and are not the results of "blending." c. Recessive genes occur more frequently in the F1 than do dominant ones. d. Genes are composed of DNA. e. An organism that is homozygous for many recessive traits is at a disadvantage. 11. Two plants are crossed, resulting in offspring with a 3:1 ratio for a particular trait. This suggests a. that the parents were true-breeding for contrasting traits. b. incomplete dominance. c. that a blending of traits has occurred. d. that the parents were both heterozygous. e. that each offspring has the same alleles. 12. Two characters that appear in a 9:3:3:1 ratio in the F 2 generation should have which of the following properties? a. Each of the traits is controlled by single genes. b. The genes controlling the characters obey the law of independent assortment. c. Each of the genes controlling the characters has two alleles. d. Four genes are involved. e. Sixteen different phenotypes are possible. 13. A sexually reproducing animal has two unlinked genes, one for head shape ( H ) and one for tail length ( T ). Its genotype is HhTt . Which of the following genotypes is possible in a gamete from this organism? a. HT b. Hh c. HhTt d. T e. tt

4 20. Scale color in a certain species of fish is inherited via a single gene with four different alleles. How many different types of gametes for this gene would be possible in this system? a. 1 b. 2 c. 4 d. 8 e. 16 21. Gene S controls the sharpness of spines in a type of cactus. Cactuses with the dominant allele, S , have sharp spines, and homozygous recessive ss cactuses have dull spines. At the same time, a second gene, N , determines whether cactuses have spines. Homozygous recessive nn cactuses have no spines at all. If doubly heterozygous SsNn cactuses were allowed to self-pollinate, the F 2 would segregate in which of the following ratios? a. 3 sharp-spined : 1 spineless b. 1 sharp-spined : 2 dull-spined : 1 spineless c. 1 sharp spined : 1 dull-spined : 1 spineless d. 1 sharp-spined : 1 dull-spined e. 9 sharp-spined : 3 dull-spined : 4 spineless 22. A woman who has blood type A has a daughter who is type O and a son who is type B. The three possible alleles for the ABO locus are i (recessive), I B and I A (codominant). Which of the following is a possible genotype for the son for the ABO locus? a. I B I B b. I B I A c. ii d. I B i e. I A I A 23. Which describes the ability of a single gene to have multiple phenotypic effects? a. Incomplete dominance b. Co-dominance c. Multiple alleles d. Pleiotropy e. Epistasis 24. Hydrangea plants of the same genotype are planted in a large flower garden. Some of the plants produce blue flowers and others pink flowers. This can be best explained by which of the following? a. Environmental factors such as soil pH b. The allele for blue hydrangea being completely dominant c. The alleles being codominant d. The fact that a mutation has occurred e. Acknowledging that multiple alleles are involved 25. Which of the following provides an example of epistasis? a. Recessive genotypes for each of two genes ( aabb ) results in an albino corn snake. b. The allele b17 produces a dominant phenotype, although b1 through b16 do not. c. In rabbits and many other mammals, one genotype ( cc ) prevents any fur color from developing. d. In Drosophila (fruit flies), white eyes can be due to an X-linked gene or to a combination of other genes. e. In zebrafish, cataracts can be induced using hydrogen peroxide.

5 The following question refers to the pedigree chart below for a family, some of whose members exhibit the dominant hairline trait, widow’s peak . Affected individuals are indicated by a shaded square or circle. 26. What is the probability that individual III-1 is Ww ? a. 3/4 b. 1/4 c. 2/4 d. 2/3 e. 1 27. A pedigree analysis for a given disorder's occurrence in a family shows that, although both parents of an affected child are normal, each of the parents has had affected relatives with the same condition. The disorder is most likely which of the following? a. Recessive b. Dominant c. Incompletely dominant d. Maternally inherited e. A new mutation The Chromosomal Basis of Inheritance 28. What is the chromosomal system of sex determination in most species of ants and bees? a. Haploid-diploid b. X-0 c. X-X d. X-Y e. Z-W 29. In cats, black fur color is caused by an X-linked allele; the other allele at this locus causes orange color. The heterozygote is tortoiseshell. What kinds of offspring would you expect from the cross of a black female and an orange male? a. Tortoiseshell females; tortoiseshell males b. Black females; orange males c. Orange females; orange males d. Tortoiseshell females; black males e. Orange females; black males 30. Which of the following statements is true? a. The closer two genes are on a chromosome, the lower the probability that a crossover occurs between them. b. The frequency of recombination of two genes that are far apart from each other has a max. value of 100%. c. All of the traits that Mendel studied (e.g. seed color, etc.) are due to genes linked on the same chromosome. d. Linked genes are found on different chromosomes. e. Crossing over occurs during prophase II of meiosis.

7 Gene Expression 37. According to Beadle and Tatum's hypothesis, how many genes are necessary for the simple metabolic pathway shown below? a. 0 b. 1 c. 2 d. 3 e. It cannot be determined from the pathway. 38. Which of the following statements best describes the termination of transcription in prokaryotes? a. RNA polymerase transcribes through the polyadenylation signal, causing proteins to associate with the transcript and cut it free from the polymerase. b. RNA polymerase transcribes through the terminator sequence, causing the polymerase to fall off the DNA and release the transcript. c. RNA polymerase transcribes through an intron, and the snRNPs cause the polymerase to let go of the transcript. d. Once transcription has initiated, RNA polymerase transcribes until it reaches the end of the chromosome. e. RNA polymerase transcribes through a stop codon, causing the polymerase to stop advancing through the gene and release the mRNA. 39. Using the table of codons above, what is the sequence of a peptide based on the following mRNA sequence? 5' . . . UUUUCUUAUUGUCUU 3' a. leu-cys-tyr-ser-phe b. cyc-phe-tyr-cys-leu c. phe-leu-ile-met-val d. leu-pro-asp-lys-gly e. phe-ser-tyr-cys-leu

8 40. RNA polymerase moves in which direction along the DNA? a. 3' → 5' along the template strand b. 3' → 5' along the coding (sense) strand c. 5' → 3' along the template strand d. 3' → 5' along the coding strand e. 5' → 3' along the double -stranded DNA 41. Which of the following help(s) to stabilize mRNA by inhibiting its degradation? a. TATA box b. spliceosomes c. 5' cap and poly (A) tail d. introns e. RNA polymerase 42. Once transcribed, eukaryotic mRNA typically undergoes substantial alteration that includes a. union with ribosomes. b. fusion into circular forms known as plasmids. c. linkage to histone molecules. d. excision of introns. e. fusion with other newly transcribed mRNA. 43. Which of the following is (are) true of snRNPs? a. They are made up of both DNA and RNA. b. They bind to splice sites at each end of the exon. c. They join together to form a large structure called the spliceosome. d. They act only in the cytosol. e. They attach introns to exons in the correct order. 44. In many eukaryotic genes, individual exons may be related to which of the following? a. the sequence of the intron that immediately precedes each exon b. the number of polypeptides making up the functional protein c. the various domains of the polypeptide product d. the number of restriction enzyme cutting sites e. the number of start sites for transcription 45. The tRNA shown in the figure above has its 3' end projecting beyond its 5' end. What will occur at this 3' end? a. The codon and anticodon complement one another. b. The amino acid binds covalently. c. The excess nucleotides (ACCA) will be cleaved off at the ribosome. d. The small and large subunits of the ribosome will attach to it. e. The 5' cap of the mRNA will become covalently bound.

10 2. Match each of the processes listed below with the enzyme that facilitates it:  Unwinds DNA at replication forks.  Synthesizes an RNA primer from which DNA replication can begin.  Synthesizes DNA to replace RNA primer. a. DNA Pol I b. DNA Pol II c. DNA Pol III d. Primase e. Helicase Part IV: Short Answer Give a short answer for each of the following questions. 1. For the following biochemical reaction, answer the questions below: pyruvate + NADH + H+  lactate + NAD+ a. Of which metabolic process is this reaction a part? b. Where, specifically, in the cell does this reaction occur? c. Which of the reactants is reduced? d. Does this reaction occur in humans? (yes or no) e. What happens to the lactate? Th at is, where does it “go” next? 2. Name 2 types of post-transcriptional modifications. 3. Complete the genotypes in the central part of this Punnet square for a Mendelian cross between a round wrinkled pea (parent 1, genotype RRWw) and a round smooth pea (parent 2, genotype Rrww). 4. Indicate the phenotype for each genotype in question #3. 5. Provide the terms used by Richard Wright to describe each of the following three aspects of the prevailing 17 th to 19 th century (pre-Darwinian) worldview in Biology Through the Eyes of Faith : a. Dominant paradigm b. Basic assumption about Nature c. Role for God in Nature Part V: Integrative Questions 1. Please answer the following question. a) Diagra m the key components of the “basic dogma” of modern biology. Draw and label molecular components and the key connections/relationships between them. b) Which molecular component of the dogma fundamentally underlies the differences we observe between individuals? 2. Identify one key idea in Richard Wright ’ s Biology Through the Eyes of Faith that has affected your understanding of the relationship between faith and science. How has it influenced your understanding? Parent 1, Gamete 1 Parent 1, Gamete 2 Parent 2, Gamete 1 a b Parent 2, Gamete 2 c d