Forensic Identification: Key Concepts and Techniques Explained

Ch 4-6 1. Forensic identification can best be defined as the process of linking: . A) physical evidence to a particular individual. . B) theory to fact. . C) a particular individual to a source. . D) physical evidence to a crime scene. 2. When a crime is committed: . A) forensic identification is almost always possible. . B) some kind of physical trace is often left behind. . C) the crime scene contains fingerprints and saliva. . D) the perpetrator tries to get as far away as possible from the scene of the crime. 3. Biological evidence may include: . A) blood, saliva, semen, and skin cells. . B) blood, saliva, modus operandi, and fingerprints. . C) semen, skin cells, and fabric threads. . D) skin cells, saliva, and tool marks. 4. The main similarity between Bertillon's anthropometry and modern biometrics is that both:

. A) use iris color and other facial features to identify individuals. . B) are established fields of science that are widely used in court. . C) establish the relationship between the skull shape and personality. . D) aim to identify an individual based on measurable anatomical traces. 5. Biometrics is the: . A) study of facial features. . B) study of skull shapes. . C) identification of anomalies for the purpose of matching. . D) identification based on measurable anatomical traits. 6. Forensic identification is less likely to result in inconclusive findings when a _____ left at the crime scene is _____. . A) fingerprint; partial. . B) tire thread; incomplete. . C) fingerprint; smudged. . D) tire thread; clear. Page 1 7. A shoe imprint left at the crime scene will be much more helpful if it comes from a(n) _____ shoe. . A) well-worn

. B) new . C) in-mint condition . D) borrowed 8. If the imprint came from a popular type of Adidas sneaker, it reflects _____; if the imprint has a unique pattern of wear and tear, it reflects _____. . A) individual characteristics; group characteristics . B) group characteristics; individual characteristics . C) a matrix source; an origin source . D) an origin source; a matrix source 9. Nicholas was brought in for questioning and asked to provide his fingerprints. Based on fingerprint evidence, he was excluded as a suspect. This means that the fingerprints found at the crime scene were: . A) too smudged to prove to be his. . B) incomplete and could not be matched. . C) found to be from someone else. . D) inconclusive. 10. Among the types of questionable forensic evidence that has been used in courts for decades, the text mentions the chemical composition of the bullets and handwriting analysis. What is the reason these are not valid techniques?

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. A) Each case is unique and cannot be compared to others. . B) The error rate is too high to make the techniques useful. . C) It is very rare to find bullets and handwritten notes at the crime scene. . D) The techniques are too expensive and there are very few experts in these. 11. Bullet-matching results: . A) are inconsistent and unproven, even after they have been used in thousands of trials. . B) are generally confirmed by scientific studies to be reliable and can be safely used in court. . C) can always match to a particular suspect if the gun is recovered. . D) demonstrate that each bullet is unique and can be identified as such. Page 2 12. A qualitative statement made by an expert when presenting evidence is: . A) a subjective statement corroborated by statistics. . B) a non-statistical statement about the strength of a match. . C) based on research studies rather than on the analysis of trace evidence. . D) supported by peer review from multiple experts analyzing the

same case. 13. A simple match statement by a forensic expert: . A) uses statistical analysis. . B) applies probability categories. . C) defines specific features and their likelihood. . D) does not use statistical terms. 14. Shelly testifies in court that the DNA recovered at the crime scene is likely to come from the suspect because less than 0.0001% of population have this specific genetic marker. This type of identification is called a(n): . A) simple match. . B) match plus statistics. . C) qualitative statement. . D) inconclusive statement. 15. Diego is a forensic expert who is asked to testify whether the wound that the victim died from came from a knife found in the suspect's car. Diego has confirmed a high level of agreement between the knife and the wound, which in his professional opinion means the wound was produced by the knife in question. This type of opinion is called a(n): . A) quantitative statement. . B) uncorroborated match.

. C) match plus statistics. . D) individualization. 16. A false positive means that a(n): . A) expert declares there is no match when it actually matches. . B) expert declares a match when there is no match in reality. . C) judge declares a mistrial. . D) jury nullifies the expert's credentials. 17. Which one of the following situations would be an example of a false negative error? . A) An expert declares there is no match when it actually matches. . B) An expert declares a match when there is no match in reality. . C) A judge declares a mistrial. . D) A jury nullifies the expert's credentials. Page 3 18. According to the text, it is not easy to calculate the false positive rate for most types of trace evidence because: . A) jurors feel unprepared and lacking specialized education to understand such details. . B) judges would not allow it in court testimony by a forensic expert.

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. C) forensic examiners do not want to participate in studies of error rates. . D) this is not a research question scientists are interested in answering. 19. According to the text, forensic experts testifying in court often cannot provide scientific data about error rates. Instead, they are more likely to invoke their: . A) vast experience as a fingerprint examiner. . B) level of education. . C) recognition in the profession. . D) familial relationships. 20. Reliability refers to: . A) the consistency of a measure or observation. . B) whether the measure is actually measuring what it is supposed to measure. . C) a situation of low validity. . D) the definition of the details of a match. 21. Validity refers to: . A) the consistency of a measure or observation. . B) whether the measure is actually measuring what it is supposed to measure.

. C) a situation of low value. . D) the definition of the details of a match. 22. Temporal consistency is sometimes referred to as: . A) test–retest reliability. . B) interrater reliability. . C) superior validity. . D) interobserver agreement. 23. Two fingerprint examiners have independently concluded that the suspect can be excluded as the source of the print. This scenario illustrates the _____ of fingerprint analysis as a measure. . A) interrater reliability . B) test–retest reliability . C) temporal consistency . D) interpersonal validity Page 4 24. Ebony works as a fingerprint examiner. In a blind test, she is asked to determine if the two fingerprints match. She does not know that it is the same pair of fingerprints she has evaluated a few months before. To compare her previous decision with her current decision would allow us to measure: . A) interrater reliability. . B) test–retest reliability.

. C) internal consistency. . D) interpersonal validity. 25. A survey was administered to high school seniors in Anytown. According to the survey results, fewer than 0.5% of the students drove drunk in the previous 6 months. A month later, the survey was repeated and it again indicated that fewer than 0.5% of Anytown seniors drove drunk in the previous 6 months. Based on this information, the survey has: A) high interrater validity. B) low interrater reliability. C) high test–-retest reliability. D) low measurement validity. 26. A survey was administered to high school seniors in Anytown. According to the survey results, fewer than 5 of them drove drunk in the previous 6 months. However, Anytown police records indicate that more than 15 Anytown seniors were arrested for driving drunk in the previous 6 months. Based on this information, the survey has: . A) high interrater validity. . B) low interrater reliability. . C) high test–retest reliability. . D) low measurement validity. 27. In forensic identification, it is crucial to know whether a specific technique, for example, hair analysis, can actually measure if one hair matches another one. If the technique doesn't do a good job, it means it has: . A) high interrater validity. . B) low external reliability.

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. C) high test–retest reliability. . D) low measurement validity. Page 5 28. Which of the following forms of forensic identification evidence is the most objective one? . A) DNA analysis. . B) Fingerprint analysis. . C) Bullet matching. . D) Handwriting analysis. 29. The Combined DNA Index System (CODIS) maintained by the FBI: . A) is still in the process of being constructed. . B) relies on voluntary DNA donations from the FBI employees. . C) is the most frequently used DNA database in the world. . D) has been closed due to the high rate of errors. 30. DNA can be extracted from _____ evidence: A) any B) biological C) controversial D) psychometric 31. At each locus of the DNA strand, a person has two genetic characteristics, or _____: one inherited _____. . A) alleles; from each parent . B) loci; from birth, another acquired

. C) alleles; from birth, another acquired . D) loci; from each parent 32. Pierre has received a piece of pizza crust with DNA evidence from the crime scene, to analyze and compare it with the CODIS database for possible matches. However, because the piece of pizza crust was mistakenly stored in a plastic bag instead of a paper bag before it got to the lab, the DNA evidence has deteriorated and now yields ambiguous results. Now _____ make a judgment on whether there is a match. . A) Pierre must let the computer . B) the police detective who collected the evidence will . C) the trial judge will need to . D) Pierre has to Page 6 33. DNA can be used more successfully to infer some individual characteristics rather than others because environmental factors and people's behavior influence certain traits more than other ones. Which one of the following characteristics is the easiest to figure out from the DNA? . A) Age . B) Race . C) Weight . D) Health status 34. _____ the other, well-established forms of forensic identification, DNA identification was subjected to _____ scrutiny to establish its

scientific validity and relevance.A) Just like; rather laxB) Just like; increased C) Unlike; rather lax D) Unlike; increased 35. Sir Francis Galton, who was the first to describe fingerprint patterns and use them for matching, was an early pioneer in the field of psychometrics, advocating the idea that individual psychological traits can be:A) measured. B) developed. C) improved. D) swapped. 36. Fingerprint patterns identified by Sir Francis Galton in the late 1800s, include all of the following EXCEPT:A) loops.B) whorls. C) bridges. D) arches. 37. When a fingerprint examiner is asked to compare a suspect's fingerprints with the _____, this means she needs to compare the suspect's prints with the ones found at the scene of a crime. . A) latent prints . B) existing database . C) known criminal . D) friction ridges Page 7 38. When comparing the latent prints with the suspect's fingerprints, a _____ makes a decision on whether there is a _____. . A) person; crime . B) computer; match . C) person; match

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. D) computer; crime 39. All of the following problems lead to fingerprint evidence being imperfect and prone to error, EXCEPT: . A) latent prints are often smudged or partial. . B) if the number of matching ridge characteristics reaches 16, the two prints match. . C) there is no information on how common certain ridge characteristics are in the population. . D) each fingerprint examiner makes decisions based on his or her own perception of the fingerprints. 40. Kelly works as a fingerprint examiner. A police detective showed her some gory photos of the crime scene and told her that the suspect in custody is a likely perpetrator of the murder. Kelly is more likely to find a match between the latent prints and the suspect's prints because of: . A) integration of thought error. . B) contextual bias. . C) generalization bias. . D) fundamental attribution error. 41. A fingerprint examiner's decision about a match may be influenced by whether he is told the suspect has confessed to the crime. This tendency to seek out information that supports one's beliefs is known as: . A) expected outcome.

. B) integration of thought. . C) confirmation bias. . D) attribution error. 42. According to the text, the analysis of bullet striations, tool marks, and bite marks for comparison identification is: . A) scientifically sound and widely used in court. . B) scientifically unproven but routinely used in court. . C) well-established as reliable evidence but not used often in court. . D) scientifically weak and unreliable but should still be used in court. Page 8 43. To reduce error and bias, a blind test can be administered to a forensic examiner, which means that the examiner: . A) does not know he or she is being tested. . B) does not know the correct procedure to follow. . C) is given a test once a year. . D) performs a test while being blindfolded. 44. According to the text, most forensic examiners hold a(n): . A) master's degree. . B) Ph.D.

. C) bachelor's degree. . D) associate's degree. 45. All of the following problems plague forensic science, EXCEPT: . A) financial ties and conflict of interest are common in forensic science. . B) forensic science has been marked by secrecy and fear of negative findings. . C) each scientific study undergoes extensive scrutiny by peer reviewers. . D) most examiners lack advanced graduate training in scientific methods. 46. Research noted in the text reveals that jurors: . A) have difficulty interpreting statistical statements. . B) understand statistical information reasonably well. . C) rely on qualitative results only. . D) rely on quantitative results only. 47. Fingerprint evidence is _____ for jurors to understand because, unlike DNA analysis information, it does not involve _____. . A) harder; probabilities . B) easier; probabilities . C) harder; multiple sources

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. D) easier; multiple sources 48. The text identifies three fundamental problems with forensic identification. Which of the following is NOT among these problems? . A) Many forms of identification evidence have a weak scientific foundation. . B) Forensic identification is too often conducted at the crime scene rather than in a lab. . C) There is always a risk of contamination or misrepresentation of the trace evidence. . D) The way information about a “match” is communicated to a judge or jury can be misleading. Page 9 Page 10 Answer Key 1. A 2. B 3. A 4. D 5. D 6. D 7. A 8. B 9. C 10. B 11. A 12. B 13. D 14. B 15. D 16. B 17. A 18. C 19. A 20. A 21. B 22. A 23. A 24. B 25. C 26. D 27. D 28. A 29. C 30. B 31. A 32. D 33. B 34. D 35. A 36. C 37. A 38. C 39. B 40. B 41. C 42. B 43. A 44. C Page 11 45. C 46. A 47. B 48. B

7. The process of drawing inferences about a suspect's personality, behavior, motivation, and demographic characteristics based on the crime scene information is referred to as: . A) profiling. . B) characterization. . C) development of personality. . D) visionary types. 8. When profilers create a profile of the criminal based on the information about the crime, one could say they are constructing a: . A) valid characterization. . B) tentative description. . C) development of personality. . D) signature. 9. Victims in a string of murder cases were all mutilated in a specific way, which makes profilers think of this feature as a(n) _____ that may reveal something about the perpetrator's personality.A) anchor B) vision C) signature D) lead 10. Profiles are created primarily for the purpose of: . A) aiding in understanding human nature. . B) developing some leads in the ongoing investigation. . C) studying criminal investigation techniques.

. D) embarrassing investigators for pursuing the wrong suspects. 11. All of the following are possible reasons profiling may be useful in an ongoing investigation, EXCEPT: . A) profiles help focus the efforts of investigators. . B) a profile can help set a trap for the criminal. . C) when interrogating a possible suspect, detectives may ask questions suggested by the profile. . D) if a suspect is caught, the profile may help pick him out of the lineup. Page 1 12. Psychological profiling mostly relies on the _____ of a particular profiler. . A) psychological education . B) clinical experience . C) skilled intuition . D) unstructured interview 13. When profilers construct a criminal profile, they mostly seem to rely on: . A) psychometric scales. . B) instinct-based judgments. . C) investigative reporting.

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. D) systematic research. 14. According to the text, profiling is regarded as a mostly _____ technique. A) unvalidatedB) validatedC) research D) biometrical 15. Like with any other technique, what would be required to demonstrate the usefulness of profiling is: . A) systematic research. . B) stories and case studies. . C) DNA evidence. . D) media portrayals. 16. Many people believe that profiling is effective in solving crimes. These perceptions are: . A) corroborated by systematic research. . B) based on first-person accounts of FBI profilers. . C) a result of DNA evidence testing. . D) supported by the use of psychometric scales. 17. According to the text, one of the first criminal profiles was developed by Dr. Bond based on the victims' autopsies in the _____ case, in _____. . A) Jack the Ripper; 1996 . B) Jack the Ripper; 1888 . C) Mad Bomber; 1957

. D) Mad Bomber; 1996 Page 2 18. According to the text, Dr. _____ is considered to be the first individual to develop a criminal profile when working on the Jack the Ripper case, at the end of the 19th century. . A) James Brussel . B) Thomas Bond . C) James Bond . D) John Douglas 19. The characteristics of serial killers seem to have _____ though there are _____ common to all serial killers. . A) no similarities; a few traits . B) some recurring patterns; only two characteristics . C) a lot of similarities; only two characteristics . D) some recurring patterns; no characteristics 20. Rational thinking, in serial killers, is often: . A) intact. . B) highly developed. . C) impaired. . D) dependent on the killer's age.

21. Many serial killers suffer from _____ that impairs their _____. . A) brain injury; modus operandi . B) brain injury; rational thinking . C) bedwetting; self-esteem . D) low self-esteem; modus operandi 22. One of the characteristics thought to be indicative of childhood maladjustment has been identified among quite a few serial killers. It is: . A) cruelty to animals. . B) mental illness. . C) extroversion. . D) temper tantrums. 23. Most serial killers are _____ males of _____ intelligence. . A) African American; above average . B) African American; average . C) white; above average . D) white; average Page 3 24. Many serial killers seem to prefer to use _____ methods of killing, such as _____.

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. A) intimate; strangulation or torture . B) intimate; guns or explosives . C) distant; bombs or other explosive devices . D) distant; guns or poison 25. Many serial killers appear to have an elevated level of: . A) religious zealotry. . B) violent sexual fantasies. . C) sense of grandeur. . D) obsessive-compulsive disorder. 26. Serial killers tend to select victims: . A) completely at random. . B) of a particular type. . C) based on their movie crushes. . D) of above-average intelligence. 27. Killers that can be described as carefully selecting their victims are referred to as: . A) disorganized killers. . B) serial killers. . C) stalkers.

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. D) organized killers. 28. Killers that tend to be more impulsive and select victims more randomly are referred to as: . A) disorganized killers. . B) organized killers. . C) stalkers. . D) mission killers. 29. Holmes and Holmes (2010) have categorized serial killers into four types: visionary, mission-oriented, hedonistic, and power-oriented. Subsequent research showed that: . A) visionary killers are more common than hedonistic ones. . B) most serial killers do not fall neatly into just one of these categories. . C) organized killers can only belong to either mission-oriented or power-oriented types. . D) stalkers can easily turn into either of the four types of serial killers. Page 4 28. Which of the following is a correct statement about research on profiling? . A) Profiling has been extensively tested in scientific studies. . B) Research on profiling strongly supports its effectiveness.

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. C) Stories and case studies found profiling helpful to investigators. . D) There has been little systematic research on profiling. 29. When detectives were asked in a study about their views on profiling, most said they found it: A) helpful.B) accurate.C) overbearing. D) questionable. 30. In a study examining the effectiveness and accuracy of profiling, the vast majority of criminal profiles were found to be:A) inaccurate and inconsistent.B) inaccurate but useful. C) accurate and useful.D) accurate but of little help. 31. In a study examining the effectiveness and accuracy of profiling, criminal profiles led to the identification of a perpetrator: . A) in less than 3% of the cases. . B) in over 90% of the cases. . C) within a week of the profile construction. . D) within a month of the profile construction. 32. In a study by Pinizzotto and Finkel (1990) that has compared the accuracy of profiles developed by trained profilers with those of students, it was found that _____ created more accurate profiles _____. . A) students; across the board . B) profilers; but only for sex offenses . C) students; but only for murder cases

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. D) profilers; in all cases 33. All of the following statements are true about implicit bias, EXCEPT: . A) implicit bias is subtle. . B) people are unaware of their own implicit biases. . C) in highly stressful situations, a person is more likely to act based on implicit bias. . D) implicit bias cannot be corrected, even with time and reflection. Page 5 33. When assessing for common traits among stranger rapists, Mokros and Alison (2002) found that there was _____ among criminals who committed similar crimes. . A) no demographic resemblance . B) a great deal of similarity . C) a common theme in the motives for rape . D) a similar childhood history 34. The hypothesized differences between organized and disorganized killers: . A) can lead to easy identification of a suspect. . B) were not confirmed in empirical studies. . C) earned the Nobel prize for the authors of the typology.

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. D) were extensively tested in field experiments. 35. Research has essentially discredited the idea at the heart of the profiling process: that _____ crimes are committed by _____ people. . A) different; different . B) different; similar . C) similar; similar . D) similar; different 36. A basic assumption of profiling is that particular crime scene characteristics are associated with specific _____. Research has _____ this assumption. . A) personality types; confirmed . B) personality types; not supported . C) occupations; been funded to prove . D) occupations; further elaborated on 37. Alexis is trying to figure out whether murders in three different states were committed by the same person. This process is referred to as: . A) case linkage. . B) psychological autopsy. . C) random speculation.

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. D) probative evidence. Page 6 38. Janet is a chief of police in a city where a string of rape-murder cases are being investigated. She has received an offer of help from the FBI. The FBI's Behavioral Science Unit specialists have developed a profile to help Janet's department solve the cases that look like a serial killer spree. All of the following are serious problems with the characteristics of the perpetrator identified in the profile, EXCEPT: . A) Most characteristics in the profile are unusual. . B) Most characteristics in the profile are hard to observe. . C) Most characteristics in the profile are ambiguous. . D) Most characteristics in the profile are contradictory. 39. Which one of the following statements about the application of criminal profiling to police investigations is INCORRECT? . A) Most characteristics in the profiles are of little use to investigators. . B) Most cases for which criminal profiles were developed, have been solved with their help. . C) Many traits identified in criminal profiles are ambiguous and open to interpretation. . D) Incorrect profiles may divert police resources to pursuing the wrong trail. 40. One of the most serious _____ of profiles is that _____ profiles may direct the police to

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look at the wrong suspects. 43. A) problems; misleading 44. B) uses; accurate 45. C) inconsistencies; correct 46. D) advantages; additional 49. According to the text, some persistent problems with profiling include all of the following, EXCEPT: . A) low likelihood that a profile would help in the investigation. . B) ambiguity of characteristics identified in profiles. . C) high frequency of the use of profiling by law enforcement. . D) lack of substantial research evidence of the validity of profiling. 50. The reliance on maps and mathematics to develop predictions about possible locations of future crimes is referred to as: . A) criminal profiling. . B) characterization. . C) geographic profiling. . D) the NASH system. Page 7 40. In geographic profiling, an anchor point refers to: . A) the location from where attacks might be launched.

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. B) the area where the offender is least likely to commit crimes. . C) the last known area where the offender committed a crime. . D) one of a series of locations where the offender is believed to be hiding. 41. A serial killer has been dumping his victims' bodies along the highways in several states. Using computer programs for geographic profiling, a crime analyst is close to pinpointing a buffer zone, which is an area where the perpetrator: . A) is less likely to commit crimes. . B) is more likely to commit crimes. . C) did commit crimes that have not been discovered yet. . D) tries to return to, in order to clean up the crime scene. 42. As . A) geographic; statistical . B) psychological; statistical . C) psychological; geographic . D) statistical; intuitive a rule, _____ approaches have been found to be superior to _____ approaches. 43. According to the text, an attempt to examine the mental state of an individual prior to his or her death is known as: . A) the NASH system.

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. B) geographic profiling. . C) psychological autopsy. . D) probative evidence. 44. The NASH system is utilized to classify the: . A) probative evidence. . B) criminal typology. . C) causes of death. . D) profile data. Page 8 45. According to the text, courts have been reluctant to allow expert testimony based on psychological autopsies. One exception to this rule is a routine use of psychological autopsies in cases where: . A) there was a history of domestic violence in a case that ended up in a homicide. . B) the will is contested based on whether the deceased person was legally competent when the will was written. . C) a defendant in a murder case argues there was an attack and provocation by the victim who tried to commit suicide by the defendant's hand. . D) a car accident with a resulting fatality occurred. Page 9 Answer Key 1. A 2. B 3. C 4. B 5. D 6. C 7. B 8. A 9. A

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10. B 11. B 12. B 13. D 14. C 15. B 16. A 17. D 18. A 19. B 20. B 21. D 22. A 23. B 24. D 25. A 26. A 27. A 28. B 29. D 30. A 31. B 32. C 33. B 34. A 35. A 36. B 37. A 38. C 39. C 40. A 41. A 42. D 43. C 44. C Page 10 45. B Page 11 12. According to the text, the following statements about child sexual abuse are true, EXCEPT: . A) About equal percentages of boys and girls experience some form of unwanted sexual touching. . B) The true prevalence of child sexual abuse is difficult to measure exactly. . C) The true prevalence of child sexual abuse could be higher than the current best estimates. . D) Child sexual abuse is a disturbingly underreported crime. 13. The following are likely reasons that the crime of child sexual abuse is underreported. Which one of these statements is NOT such a reason? . A) Children who are too young to talk, cannot report the abuse. . B) Young children may not interpret sexual exploitation as abuse. . C) Children may fear retaliation if they tell anyone about the abuse. . D) Children may project the abuse they have experienced, onto

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their toys. 14. Which of the following events have prompted psychologists to conduct additional research on and develop new techniques for eliciting accurate reports of abuse? . A) Multiple reports of sexual abuse of children in day care centers. . B) Clinical trials of a new therapy for children who have experienced abuse. . C) The lowering of the age of criminal responsibility by the Supreme Court. . D) The change in the age of reporting for sexual abuse. 15. Research has shown that children _____ sometimes have difficulty distinguishing between imagined and real events. . A) under 2 . B) under 5 . C) over 8 . D) over 12 16. A shocking wave of cases where day care workers in multiple states were accused of sexually abusing children in their care captured the attention of the media in the United States in the late 1980s and into the 1990s. All of the following were the common features of these unrelated cases, EXCEPT: . A) the bizarre character of the alleged sexual abuse.

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. B) no medical evidence of sexual abuse. . C) the availability of video recordings of sexual abuse sessions. . D) the ability of the alleged abusers to keep their sexual activities secret for long periods of time. Page 1 18. According to the text, the use of anatomically detailed dolls when interviewing children under the age of 6 is likely to _____ the number of false allegations of sexual abuse. . A) have no bearing on . B) decrease . C) increase . D) equalize 19. There have been studies on the use of anatomically detailed dolls as props when questioning children who are suspected of having been victims of sexual abuse. Overall, the research: . A) proves that only false allegations of sexual abuse are increased. . B) suggests that only true allegations of sexual abuse are elicited. . C) clearly shows that these props decrease the number of any allegations of sexual abuse. . D) on the effectiveness of these props is inconclusive. 20. Delia is a prosecutor working on a case where allegations of child

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sexual abuse perpetrated by a day care center worker have been made. The child's parents are very concerned and want Delia to investigate the allegations. When it comes to the use of child interviewing props, Delia's best course of action is to use anatomically detailed _____. Moreover, these props should be used _____. . A) dolls; only after the child has made a disclosure of abuse . B) dolls; as soon as possible . C) body diagrams; only after the child has made a disclosure of abuse . D) body diagrams; as soon as possible 21. Suggestive questions can best be described as _____ leading questions _____. . A) excluding; not volunteered by the child . B) including; not volunteered by the child . C) excluding; that were unsolicited . D) including; that were solicited 22. Suggestive questioning of children is most likely to _____, and can lead to _____ prompted by repetitive questions. . A) be done first by their parents; false allegations of abuse . B) be done first by their parents; projecting sexual abuse on the interviewer . C) elicit true information; a complete account of abuse

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. D) elicit true information; projecting sexual abuse on the interviewer Page 2 24. Research exploring the effect of repetitive questioning on preschool-aged children's responses found that: . A) most children continued to provide correct accounts of past events. . B) most children changed their answers to incorporate the suggested falsehoods. . C) repetitive questioning has produced additional details of the true past events. . D) children would often stop answering the adults' questions altogether. 25. Liam is a 4-year-old who is being questioned by his mom about his physical contact with a guest visitor to Liam's day care center. Even though the visitor never touched Liam, the mother keeps asking which part of Liam's body the visitor touched first. Liam is likely to: . A) keep denying that the physical contact has ever occurred. . B) stop talking altogether. . C) tell mom what she wants to hear even if he has to make it up. . D) tell mom the truth even if it hurts. 26. It is important to avoid bias when interviewing a possible victim or witness. This is particularly true with children. One technique that

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may be used to avoid bias when interviewing children is the National Institute of Child Health and Development (NICHD) Investigative Interview Protocol. The NICHD Protocol guides interviewers towards all of the following, EXCEPT: . A) avoiding biased or suggestive questions. . B) putting the child at ease. . C) using open-ended questions. . D) using questions requiring a yes–no answer. 27. What is the best description of the NICHD Investigative Interview Protocol? . A) This is a technique designed to reduce biased questioning and elicit true responses from children. . B) This is a technique using closed-ended questions to interview alleged victims who are children. . C) This is a protocol for using Bobo Dolls to release children's desire for letting their anger out. . D) This is a coercive approach to interviewing intended to overcome the resistance of an abuse victim. Page 3 30. "Tell me everything that happened" is an example of an open- ended request, which is considered a(n) _____ prompt in the NICHD Investigative Interview Protocol. . A) invasive . B) non-coercive

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. C) overly forceful . D) impractical 31. When NICHD Investigative Interview Protocol procedures are followed, interviews with children are _____ recorded on video. 34. A) almost never 35. B) sometimes 36. C) often 37. D) almost always 38. It is especially important to record the _____ with the child because _____. . A) last interview; it precedes the trial most recently . B) first encounter; it shows the child in the natural settings . C) first interview; it may have the clearest indicators of the child's truthfulness . D) longest interview; this is when the child is likely to stop pretending and start telling the truth 39. Research has demonstrated that some techniques used in interviewing children in abuse cases are especially helpful. These techniques include all of the following, EXCEPT: . A) simplified instructions. . B) taking an oath to tell the truth.

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. C) explicit statement stipulating that the interviewer does not know what happened. . D) asking the same question more than once. 40. According to the text, children who supposedly suffer from child sexual abuse accommodation syndrome (CSAAS) are likely to show behavioral symptoms that could also be evident in children misled into admitting such abuse. The following symptoms are believed to be part of the CSAAS syndrome, EXCEPT: . A) delayed disclosure of the abuse. . B) mentioning the abuse only to peers. . C) denial that the sexual abuse ever occurred. . D) recantation of allegations of abuse later on. Page 4 20. According to the text, children who recant previous allegations of sexual abuse are likely to have been abused by a:A) stranger.B) parental figure. C) peer.D) family friend. . Two components of the presumed child sexual abuse accommodation syndrome (CSAAS) are the denial of abuse and recantation of abuse. Researchers who analyzed actual interviews with sexually abused children found that, in reality, the denial and recantation of abuse: A) are unusual. B) are very common.

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C) happen only with older children. D) happen only in small, tightly knit communities. . When reviewing sexual abuse testimony given by children at trial, it appears that jurors _____ the testimony of children in sexual abuse cases. A) tend to believe B) tend to doubt C) are often instructed to disregard D) defer to the judge when interpreting . When exposed to sexual abuse testimony given by children at trial, it appears that jurors are _____ to believe young children compared to adolescents. A) less likely B) equally as likely C) more likely D) seldom apt . Bearing witness to what someone else said outside of court is called: A) unsubstantiated rumor. B) hearsay testimony. C) non-admissible evidence. D) half-admissible evidence.

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Page 5 41. Hearsay testimony is generally _____ in court but most states do allow an exception to the hearsay rule for _____ victims. . A) inadmissible; child . B) inadmissible; elderly . C) admissible; child . D) admissible; vulnerable 42. There are good reasons why most states allow hearsay testimony when a child is the alleged victim. Which of the following is NOT such a reason? . A) To shield jurors from the biasing impact of young children's cuteness. . B) To protect the victim from being questioned in unusual and formal settings. . C) To spare young children the intimidating atmosphere of the courtroom. . D) To avoid the traumatic experience for the victim of facing the alleged abuser. 43. Hearsay testimony is sometimes admissible in trials where a child is the alleged victim because: . A) defendants need to see the accuser. . B) younger children are sophisticated about sexual matters. . C) prosecutors want to see the victim.

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. D) children may have a hard time facing their abuser. 44. According to research noted in the text, jurors that heard both adult hearsay witnesses and child testimony deemed the hearsay testimony: . A) less credible. . B) equally as credible. . C) more credible. . D) less accurate. 45. One reason why adult hearsay witness testimony may be perceived differently from that of a child, is that: . A) adults are more confident in their testimony. . B) children are less nervous. . C) adults are more likely to lie without feeling nervous. . D) children are more likely to make eye contact. Page 6 47. The use of a closed-circuit television (CCTV) is another way that children can testify in a case. CCTV allows the judge and jury to see the child without exposing the alleged victim to the emotional trauma that may present itself if the child were to see the defendant. In the case of Maryland v. Craig, the U.S. Supreme Court decided that the _____ the defendant's right to confront his or her accuser. . A) need to gather the truth from the child is as important as

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. B) importance of protecting the child victim outweighs . C) rights of the alleged child victim are as important as . D) potential emotional trauma to the child is not as significant as 48. Research by Gail Goodman and her colleagues (1998) examined the use of a closed-circuit television (CCTV) for child testimony. The results show that the use of CCTV _____ the emotional distress in children _____ the accuracy of their testimony. . A) increases; and jeopardizes . B) increases; but does not reduce . C) decreases; and improves . D) decreases; but also reduces 49. According to the text, all of the following ways to ease the child testimony burden have been suggested, EXCEPT: . A) bringing a support person to court. . B) bringing a support animal to court. . C) familiarizing the child with courtroom procedures and personnel. . D) having siblings administer the cross-examination of the child. 50. In the mid-1990s, the hysteria of day care child abuse cases has _____ while claims of having recovered memories of past sexual abuse have _____.

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. A) basically died down; continued at a slower pace . B) basically died down; proliferated . C) continued unabated; slowed down considerably . D) continued unabated; basically died down 51. Aisha had been going through an emotionally tough time after the separation from her long-term partner, and her psychotherapist suggested some hypnotic sessions. During these sessions, Aisha has started vaguely recalling being fondled by her father as a baby while he was giving her baths. Memories of this type are referred to as: . A) unconscious memories. . B) regressed memories. . C) recovered memories. . D) unknown memories. Page 7 51. In some cases, so-called memories of past abuse have surfaced as a result of the _____ of the alleged victim while under hypnosis or guided imagery.A) corroborationB) suggestibility C) fearD) frustration 52. The repression hypothesis posits that traumatic memories can be maintained in the _____ for years, and the use of _____ techniques may be helpful in uncovering them. . A) consciousness; cognitive enhancement . B) consciousness; relaxation and visualization

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. C) unconscious; cognitive enhancement . D) unconscious; relaxation and visualization 53. The concept of repression was popularized by: . A) John Watson. . B) Albert Bandura. . C) Sigmund Freud. . D) Elizabeth Loftus. 54. The concept of repression has found _____ support in empirical research studies of real victims of_____. . A) very little; traumatic events . B) considerable; traumatic events . C) very little; memory loss . D) considerable; memory loss 55. Much research has demonstrated that most victims of traumatic events have _____ memories of the episode. . A) vivid . B) few . C) completely repressed their . D) first repressed, then recovered their 56. According to the text, the most common response to traumatic

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experiences is not _____ but _____. . A) forgetting; repression . B) forgetting; flashbacks . C) flashbacks; repression . D) flashbacks; memory implantation Page 8 42. Elizabeth Loftus is well known for her research on false memories. In one experiment, she created a false memory in participants of being _____. Of the participants in the experiment, _____ have “remembered” most or all of the implanted event after two subsequent interviews. . A) lost at the mall; 5% . B) lost at the mall; 25% . C) bullied; 50% . D) bullied; 75% 43. In a series of experiments replicating Loftus' research, Hyman and his colleagues set out to create false memories of fairly unusual past events. The results of their studies show that again, about _____ of the participants had developed false recollections. . A) 10% . B) a quarter . C) three quarters

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. D) 90% 44. There are several conclusions that can be drawn from research on implanting false memories. Which of the following conclusions is INCORRECT? . A) The majority of people in the studies did not succumb to memory implantation. . B) Hypnosis and other therapeutic techniques facilitate the production of implanted memories. . C) If a person is 100% sure the memory is true, it is often a good indicator of a true memory. . D) People who strongly believe in the possibility of recovering a suppressed memory are more likely to “recover” false memories. 45. We should be especially skeptical of allegedly recovered memories in the following cases, EXCEPT: . A) recalling began as vague feelings rather than clear memories. . B) abuse happened before the age of 3, according to the alleged memories. . C) memories of abuse came back as flashes of particular incidents. . D) the recollection involved extended abuse continuing into adolescence. Page 9 45. In the 2000s, claims of recovered memories ______, mostly in

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response to _____. . A) slowly decreased; research showing that false memories can be easily implanted . B) decreased drastically; successful lawsuits against therapists who had created false memories . C) had stabilized; realizations that false memories bring more pain than relief to the victims . D) had increased; new legislation awarding substantial sums of money to the victims Page 10 Answer Key 1. A 2. D 3. A 4. B 5. C 6. C 7. D 8. C 9. B 10. A 11. B 12. C 13. D 14. A 15. B 16. D 17. C 18. D 19. B 20. B 21. A 22. A 23. C 24. B 25. A 26. A 27. D 28. C 29. A 30. B 31. C 32. D 33. B 34. C 35. B 36. D 37. C 38. A 39. A 40. B 41. B 42. B 43. C 44. C Page 11 45. B Page 12

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Ch 4-6 Key

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