Mid-Term Review Guide ANSC B5

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Mid-Term Review ANSC B5 Which U.S. state played a large role in the origination of the Chester White? A. Pennsylvania B. Connecticut C. New Jersey D. New Hampshire What is the length of gestation for a sow? A. 128 days B. 121 days C. 114 days D. 107 days How often are the sows in the breeding area fed and watered? A. They are fed twice daily and watered once daily. B. They are fed four times a day and watered once daily. C. They are fed twice daily and watered two times a day. D. They are fed once daily and watered four times a day Which breed is thought to have originated the crossed of the old English hog and hogs of Chinese and Siamese origin? A. Yorkshire B. Poland China C. Berkshire D. Spotted What is the desired color for Spot swine? A. 25 percent black and 75 percent white B. 50 percent red and 50 percent white C. 50 percent black and 50 percent white D. 75 percent black and 25 percent white How long do the sows remain in the gestation barn? A. 14 weeks B. 12 weeks C. 10 weeks D. 8 weeks When are sows first tested for pregnancy? A. 28 days of gestation B. 25 days of gestation C. 18 days of gestation D. 15 days of gestation Pigs in the nursery are fed all they can eat for _____ hours a day. A. 3

B. 6 C. 12 D. 24 Which breed is exceptionally long bodied with large, drooping ears? A. Berkshire B. Hampshire C. Yorkshire D. American Landrace How long must workers in the nursery wait before entering the finishing area or the breeding area? A. 3 hours B. 6 hours C. 12 hours D. 24 hours Approximately how often is each boar used in the breeding system? A. Once a week B. Twice a week C. Once every two weeks D. Once a month What is used to move manure from under the floors? A. Brooms B. Salt water flushing system C. Fresh water flushing system D. All of the above In order to be registered, Hampshires should have what color characteristics? A. White covering more than two thirds of the body B. Black coats, white feet and legs, a white stripe on the face and a white tip on the tail C. Black with a white band encircling the shoulders, including the front legs and feet D. Red coloring and hair all over the body What color is the Yorkshire? A. Red B. White C. Black D. Pink The pigs are about ______ of age when they are moved to the finishing barns. A. 8 weeks B. 10 weeks

C. 12 weeks D. 14 weeks What is the former breed name of the Spot? A. Spotted Poland China B. Poland China C. Spotted Berkshire D. It has always been known as the Spotted Hampshires are often used as sires in what kinds of operations? A. Bacon B. Market C. Crossbreed D. Milking The pigs are sold weighing ______ pounds. A. 250 to 260 B. 260 to 270 C. 270 to 280 D. 280 to 290 The Duroc originated in what part of the United States? A. Southwestern B. Midwestern C. Southeastern D. Northeastern What is used to prevent infection after the needle teeth, naval and tail are clipped off? A. Alcohol B. Antibiotic ointment C. Water D. Iodine spray How often are the sows fed while in the farrowing barn? A. Twice daily B. Once daily C. Three times a day D. Four times a day Where are the pigs moved after they are weaned? A. Nursery B. Finishing barn C. Into individual pens D. They are not moved The pigs remain in the nursery for about _____ before being moved to the finishing barn. A. Twelve weeks

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B. Eight weeks C. Four weeks D. Six weeks Pigs for slaughter are referred to as _____ crosses. A. Extractor B. Doomed C. Finished D. Terminal A sick pig is treated for _____ consecutive days. A. Three B. Four C. Five D. Six The temperature is lowered ______ degrees for every week the pigs are in the nursery. A. Four B. Three C. Two D. One The pigs weigh about _____ pounds at 10 weeks of age. A. 100 B. 85 C. 70 D. 65 Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of a Red Wattle? A. Solid red B. Ears should be drooping C. Erect ears D. Wattles hanging from the neck The pigs will be marketed between ______ after arriving in the finishing barn. A. 15 and 17 weeks B. 16 and 18 weeks C. 17 and 19 weeks D. 18 and 20 weeks Which of the following is true of the term "Three Dimensional" ham? A.“Three dimensional” ham describes the muscling of the hog B.The ham is perfectly round C.The ham muscle is deeper, wider and plumper from all directions D.Both A and C When the market hog travels, muscling should be evident in which of the following locations? A.Shoulder B.Ham C.Loin D.All of the above

A groove down the center of the loin is an indicator of leanness. A.True B.False An indication of over conditioning is a dimple above the tail. A.True B.False Which of the following is one of the adjectives Mr. Brock used to illustrate leanness in a market hog? A.Clean B.Expressionless C.Cut D.Dotting Which of the following is NOT one of the major factors considered when evaluating market hogs? A.Muscling B.Face shape C.Leanness D.Structural Soundness Which of the following traits is a reason market hog evaluation is important? A.Sound B.Functional C.Fast-growing D.All of the above Which of the following is NOT an advantage of the modern market hog as compared to the old- fashioned market hog? A.Leaner B.Tighter C.More muscular D.More structurally sound An extremely deep bodied, muscular market hog is desired in modern pork production. A.True B.False In the ideal market hog, size and scale is more important than leanness. A.True B.False Structural soundness is the most important factor in evaluating market hogs. A.True B.False A swollen hock is a direct result of no flexibility in the hock. A.True B.False Extreme muscling can cause unsoundness in market hogs. A.True B.False Structurally sound market hogs have the ability to grow and gain to how many pounds? A.150 pounds B.200 pounds C.230 pounds D.270 pounds Which of the following causes a market hog to be “buck-kneed”? A.When the knees are too far back B.When the hog runs too quickly and pulls a muscle C.When the shoulder is too far forward D.When the hooves need to be trimmed Today's consumer is less diet and health conscious than other generations, so pork producers are NOT concerned with producing a lean, healthy product. A.True B.False Packers want lean, muscular hogs which will kill with a high percentage of lean muscle. A.True B.False Why is it an advantage to produce later maturing hogs? A.Later maturing hogs will grow to a heavier weight while continuing to produce lean muscle tissue B.Later maturing hogs will go to fat C.Later maturing hogs will grow taller D.Later maturing hogs will taste better Muscling and leanness is directly related to size and scale. A.True B.False Which of the following is the average length of gestation in swine? A. 114 days B. 145 days C. 3 months D. 6 months Swine producers will NOT find it economical to purchase an ultrasonic pregnancy detection machine with less than how many animals? A. 10,000 B. 1,000 C. 100 D. 10 Which of the following is the method of pregnancy diagnosis which may be used on sows weighing greater than 300 pounds? A. Vaginal palpation B. Rectal palpation C. External ultrasound D. Internal ultrasound

In artificial insemination, the spirette is turned clockwise to lock it into place and counterclockwise to remove it. A. True B. False Which of the following is the range, in volume, of semen collected per boar? A. 100 - 300 cc or ml B. 200 - 500 cc or ml C. 300 - 600 cc or ml D. 400 - 900 cc or ml Which of the following is the common term for a pig which is not born alive? A. Mummy or stillborn B. Zombie or stillborn C. Mummy or zombie D. Stillborn How soon should newborn pigs receive colostrum? A. Immediately B. 30 minutes C. 60 minutes D. 90 minutes The embryo becomes a fetus between which of the following days? A. 15 - 30 days B. 20 - 40 days C. 30 - 50 days D. 30 - 45 days How far in advance should a sow be moved to the farrowing house? A. 3 days B. 5 days C. 7 days D. 10 days Which of the following is NOT visible on the embryo at 21 days of gestation? A. Tail B. Head C. Eye bud D. Teeth Which of the following is the minimum number of pigs a sow should wean to be kept in the herd? A. 10 B. 15 C. 8 D. 6 Which of the following is the location in the reproductive tract where the sperm is deposited during ejaculation? A. Oviduct B. Vulva C. Cervix D. None of the above Which of the following is the minimum number of teats a gilt should have to be used as breeding stock? A. 10 B. 12 C. 6 D. 20 Embryo mortality rate in swine is _________? A. 40 percent B. 35 percent C. 50 percent D. 65 percent At what time interval does ovulation occur after the onset of estrus? A. 36 to 40 hours B. 30 to 42 hours C. 20 to 35 hours D. 36 to 42 hours Quality market hogs can be produced in 160 days. A. True B. False Spacing and number of teats are known as soundness traits for replacement gilts. A. True B. False A hernia is known as a genetic abnormality for gilts. A. True B. False Masculinity is an important selection trait for gilts. A. True B. False A cryptorchid usually has two normal testicles. A. True B. False Assisting a boar at the time of mating is a sound management practice. A.True B.False Large gilts with small vulvas are ideal for breeding stock. A.True B.False Loineye area at the 12th rib is the best indicator of composition. A.True B.False Gain per day from 60 to 230 pounds is a common measure of conformation type. A.True B.False Sexual maturity is an important behavioral trait for males. A.True B.False

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Which of the following is NOT an environmental factors which can effect puberty? A.Crowding B.Male contact C.Weather D.Nutrition What is the term for keeping females and males apart until desired time of breeding? A.Hand mating B.Artificial insemination C.Heat period D.Puberty Most gilts enter puberty at what age? A.Three to five months B.Five to seven months C.Seven to ten months D.Ten months to one year Which of the following is NOT an advantage of Artificial Insemination (AI)? A.Decreases spread of disease B.Increase the number of offspring from a superior boar C.Identifies the fertility of the boar D.Increases the number of sires needed Fresh semen should be stored at what temperature? A.32-50 degrees B.55-60 degrees C.60-75 degrees D.75-100 degrees What disease is the most prevalent viral agent causing infertility? A.Parturition B.Leptospirosis C.Parvovirus D.Pseudorabies Which of the following is NOT an attribute of keeping accurate records? A.Determining the breeding age of the animal B.Estimating farrowing date C.Analyzing performance data of sow, boar, and litter D.Being unsure of which animals are kept or culled to benefit the breeding program What is the term used to describe the period during which the female is receptive to the male? A.Farrow B.Estrus C.Ovulation D.Parturition What phase of ejaculation prepares sperm for passage or serves as a lubricant? A.Gestation B.Estrous Cycle C.Pre-sperm D.Artificial insemination Boars reach puberty around what age? A.Three to five months B.Four to six months C.Six to eight months D.Ten months to one year A sow is expected to produce four to five litters in confinement situations. A.True B.False Small toe size is desirable in replacement gilts. A.True B.False Which of the following can tear off and cause the gilt to become unsound if touching the ground while the gilt travels? A.Tail B.Dewclaw C.Ears D.Teats How many litters must a breeding gilt be able to produce? A.Two to three B.Four to five C.Five to ten D.Ten to twenty An up-turned vulva is desired when selecting replacement gilts. A.True B.False A short, thick, coarse head is an indicator of a feminine gilt. A.True B.False Inverted nipples are a non-heritable trait. A.True B.False Which of the following is NOT a trait which indicates a gilt is feminine? A.Long fronted B.Long necked C.Long faced D.Long tailed

Which of the following defines a pin nipple? A.Indicator of a non-functional reproductive tract B.Refined and resembles a sharpened pencil or small cone C.Inadequately spaced between other nipples D.Extremely small, non-functional and usually takes the place of a functional nipple Bolder ribbed, wider skeletoned gilts are usually heavier muscled. A.True B.False Arch, spring and curvature of the rib are qualities of an ideal breeding gilt. A.True B.False Gilts should NOT be excessively deep bodied. A.True B.False Breeding gilts should exhibit an extremely refined bone structure. A.True B.False Which of the following is the ratio of muscling and leanness in swine? A.Composition B.Body type C.Fat content D.Body fat percentage Where is fat depth measured? A.At the first rib B.At the middle rib C.At the last rib D.At the rump What is the shape of an ideal breeding gilt? A.Round B.Square C.Diamond D.Hourglass Blade action is a direct indicator of both muscling and leanness. A.True B.False A groove down the top is desirable in replacement breeding gilts. A.True B.False Which of the following is NOT one of the major factors in breeding gilt evaluation? A.Structural Soundness B.Sex Characteristics C.Cleanliness D.Size and Volume Which of the following defines EPD? A.Extreme Professional Difference B.Expected Professional Difference C.Expected Progeny Difference D.Extreme Progeny Difference Which of the following is NOT a step when designing a breeding program? A. Setting goals B. Choosing and weighing traits C. Choosing offspring D. Devising a strategy for selecting parents For which of the following EPD figures is a negative number more desirable? A. Days to 250 and Backfat B. Days to 250 and Loin Eye Area C. Backfat and Pounds of Lean D. Pounds of Lean and Days to 250 Which of the following is NOT a way to select parents in a breeding program? A. Grading up B. Visual selection C. Pedigree D. Expected Progeny Differences Which of the following is NOT a result of inbreeding? A. Surfacing of deleterious gene B. increase uniformity C. Noticeable improvement of fourth generation D. Reduction in performance Which system is the mating of animals of different breeds? A. Grading up B. Crossbreeding C. Inbreeding D. Linebreeding What is the proper term for the measure of how inbred an animal is? A. Inbreeding coefficient B. Inbreeding measurement C. Inbred ratio D. Inbreeding results What is the value of an animal as a parent? A. Grading up B. Breeding value C. Hybrid vigor D. Inbreeding coefficient Which system consists of breeding purebred sires to commercial females? A. Inbreeding B. Linebreeding C. Cross breeding D. Grading up

Which crossbreeding system produces replacement females through the rotation and produces crossbred offspring? A. Rotational crossbreeding system B. Rotational-terminal crossbreeding system C. Static crossbreeding system D. Modified static crossbreeding system How does the modified static system differ from the static system? A. Produces replacement females B. Produces replacement males C. Produces terminal sires D. Produces terminal dams In a two breed rotational crossbreeding system, which generation and sire will have a 75 percent Breed A and 25 percent Breed B? A. First generation; Breed B B. Second generation; Breed A C. Third generation; Breed B D. Fourth generation; Breed A In a static crossbreeding system, which of the following is true regarding replacement females? A. Purchased or produced in a separate population B. Purchased or produced in same operation C. Produced in a rotational crossbreeding system D. Purchased from a composite breeding system Pen mating is mostly used by which of the following? A. Commercial breeders B. Purebred breeders C. Inbreeding breeders D. Small operations What is the first step in the process of AI? A. Select the bull B. Detect when female is in heat C. Introduce semen into uterus D. Collect semen Which mating system results in maximum breeding by a superior male? A. Pen mating B. Stud mating C. Hand mating D. Embryo transfer What is the process by which semen from the male is placed in the reproduction tract of the female through methods other than natural service? A. Hand mating B. Embryo transfer C. Stud mating D. Artificial insemination Farrowing is defined as: The gestation length of a pig is What is this pigs ear notch?

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When should pregnant pigs should be moved into a farrowing crate? On average how man piglets are born to a litter? When does a piglet develop the ability to regulate their body temperature? When is castration typically done on male piglets? Iron shots should be given to piglets when? Pigs should be weaned at what weight? The right ear of a pig represents what? The pigs left ear represents what? Sows should give birth to pigs at what interval? What prevents anemia in baby pigs? Clipping needle teeth prevents what? In a standard notching system the ears are divided into how many spaces? The very tip of the pigs right ear indicates which number if it is notched? Feed accounts for _____ of the production cost of livestock. A. 60 to 80 percent B. 50 to 70 percent C. 40 to 60 percent D. 30 to 50 percent The six classes of nutrients are water, carbohydrates, proteins, starches, vitamins and minerals. A. True B. False The most important nutrient is _____. A. Carbohydrates B. Vitamins C. Minerals D. Water Losing more than _____ of body water can be fatal. A. 15 percent B. 12 percent C. 8 percent D. 5 percent Water _____ nutrients. A. Dissolves B. Transports C. Removes D. A & B

Proteins such as starch, cellulose and simple sugars provide energy. A. True B. False The basic structural unit of animal’s cells are _____. A. Carbohydrates B. Vitamins C. Proteins D. Minerals An example of a simple stomached animal given in the presentation ____. A. Poultry B. Swine C. Cattle D. A & B An animal’s energy warehouse is ______. A. Carbohydrates B. Water C. Mineral D. Fat The _____ is the first stomach in complex stomached animals. A. Rumen B. Omasum C. Abomasum D. Reticulum Animals need over _____ different minerals to maintain good health. A. 15 B. 18 C. 21 D. 24 Dry roughages are usually high in _____. A. Crude protein B. Crude fiber C. Fat D. Water Common energy feeds are _____ such as wheat, rice bran and tallow or lard. A. Roughages B. Grains C. Forages D. None of the above The _____ is the true stomach in ruminant animals. A. Rumen B. Omasum C. Abomasum D. Reticulum Most nutrient absorption takes place in the ______________. A. Abomasum B. Large intestine C. Small intestine D. Rumen The integrated steps involved in assimilating food by the animal for use in tissue repair, growth and normal function is a. nutrition b. nutrients c. a diet d. a ration A mixture of feedstuffs used to supply nutrients to an animal is a. a diet b. feed c. food d. a ration Nutrients consumed by humans in breads and vegetables are a. feed b. food c. a diet d. a ration Food for animals is a. a ration b. a diet c. feed d. food

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Which of the following is an example of a monogastric? a. steer b. horse c. lamb d. deer The most important nutrient is a. protein b. water c. fat or oil d. carbohydrates For every pound of feed consumed by the animal a. two to five pounds of water will be consumed b. six to nine pounds of water will be consumed c. 10-14 pounds of water will be consumed d. 15-18 pounds of water will be consumed Water can be provided to animals by a. bowl waterers b. automatic waterers c. nipple waterers d. all of the above What is fed to provide amino acids, but generally not used to provide energy? a. protein b. carbohydrates c. fats d. nutrients Minerals can be divided into a. one group b. two groups c. three groups d. four groups Soybean meal and cottonseed meal are usually fed to provide a. fat b. carbohydrates c. protein d. oil The most common and abundant cereal grain is a. wheat b. corn c. rye d. barley

The crude protein content of corn is a. four to six percent b. 8-10 percent c. 14-16 percent d. 17-20 percent Triticale is a cross between a. rye and wheat b. rye and corn c. wheat and corn d. wheat and barley The crude protein of grain sorghum is a. four to six percent b. 8-12 percent c. 13-15 percent d. 16-20 percent Pelleting, hammermilling, rollermilling and steam flaking are examples of a. processing b. extrusion c. rations d. diets The composition of the feed an the manufacturers location a. would not be listed anywhere b. would be listed on the feed tag c. would be listed on the sack d. would be listed at the store Extrusion is used in the manufacturing of feed for a. horses b. cattle c. dogs and cats d. sheep Processing a. improves nutrient availability b. is not commonly used for livestock feed c. saves time in preparing rations d. decreases the nutrient availability Feed can be provided to the animal through a. feeders b. lick tanks c. range cubes d. all of the above

Mid-Term Review Guide ANSC B5

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