Exam 1- Day 2-03

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Dec 6, 2023

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Name: ___________________________________ OPER 340 – 03 - Exam 1 Due: Tue. 10/10/23, in class 64 points Instructions: 1. Please write your full name on the first page of this question paper (above) 2. Print the exam (staple pages), complete exam, and turn in printed copy on due date 3. Circle your answer choice to each objective type question (Questions 1 –46) on this question paper 4. Write / Type the answers to the two descriptive type questions in the space provided below the question on this question paper (use additional sheets if needed) Objective Type Questions (Q1 – Q46) (One point each) CIRCLE YOUR ANSWER CHOICE TO EACH OBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTION 1. Each of the following represents an impact of E-Business on operations management except a. better and faster decision-making b. expanded supply chains c. restricted access to suppliers d. information technology synergy 2. Economies of scale exist in production when a. unit cost decrease as production volume decreases b. unit cost increase as production volume decreases c. unit cost increase as production volume increases d. unit cost decrease as production volume increases 3. Which of the following is a characteristic of today’s consumer market? a. product proliferation b. shorter product life cycles c. more customized products d. all of the above 4. A process is a group of related tasks with specific inputs and outputs. a. True b. False 5. The ease with which resources can be adjusted in response to changes in demand, technology, products and services, and resource availability defines the firm’s a. vertical integration b. process flexibility c. customer involvement d. capital intensity
[2] 6. Each of the following is one of the four basic steps of strategy formulation except a. assessing core competencies b. defining a primary task c. developing a balanced scorecard d. positioning the firm 7. The ability to adjust to changes in product volume, product mix, or product design is known as a. positioning b. flexibility c. mass customization d. None of the above 8. All of the following could be a firm’s core competence except a. exceptional service b. slow response times c. low cost manufacturing process d. innovative product design 9. Core competencies are most likely to be a. static b. products c. processes d. technologies 10. All of the following are characteristics of flexibility except a. the ability to introduce new products quickly b. the ability to modify existing products quickly c. the ability to adjust quickly to changes in product volume d. offering a limited number of products 11. Companies that control the production of virtually all of their component parts, including the source of raw materials are said to be horizontally integrated. a. True b. False 12. The probability that a product will operate properly within an expected time frame is the dimension of quality known as a. durability b. reliability c. performance d. serviceability
[3] 13. Achieving quality of conformance depends on all of the following factors except a. the design of the production process b. the performance level of equipment, machinery and materials c. the training and supervision of employees d. the price charged for the product 14. Directly involving employees in the quality-management process is referred to as a. partnering b. a quality circle c. Six Sigma d. participative problem solving 15. Which step follows defining the process in the five step Six Sigma Breakthrough Strategy? a. improving the process b. controlling the process c. measuring the process d. analyzing the process 16. The costs of achieving good quality can be categorized as a. internal failure costs and external failure costs b. prevention costs and appraisal costs c. appraisal costs and internal failure costs d. prevention costs and statistical quality control costs 17. Which of the following is not an example of an internal failure cost of poor quality a. rework costs b. process downtime costs c. scrap costs d. warranty claims costs 18. The costs of testing and inspecting materials, parts, and the product at various stages and at the end of the process is an example of a(n) a. external failure costs b. internal failure cost c. appraisal costs d. prevention costs 19. Which of the following statements is true? a. internal failure costs tend to be low for a service, while external failure costs can be very high b. internal failure costs and external failure costs tend to be low for services c. internal failure costs tend to be high for a service, while external failure costs can be very low d. internal failure costs and external failure costs tend to be high for services
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[4] 20. A firm’s information technology system is unrelated to its quality improvement program. a. True b. False 21. The Six Sigma approach is more concerned with eliminating defects than it is in improving processes. a. True b. False 22. Six Sigma is a statistical measure that translates to a. 60 defects per million opportunities b. 6 defects per million opportunities c. 3.4 defects per million opportunities d. zero defect per million opportunities 23. In SPC (Statistical Process control) a product characteristic that is measured on a continuous scale is a(n) a. attribute b. variable measure c. p-chart d. qualitative evaluation 24. Length, weight, time, and temperature are examples of a. attributes b. c-charts c. p-charts d. variable measures 25. Which of the following statements concerning control chart limits is true? a. the smaller the value of z, the more narrow the control limits are and the more sensitive the chart is to changes in the production process b. the larger the value of z, the more narrow the control limits are and the more sensitive the chart is to changes in the production process c. the smaller the value of z, the wider the control limits are and the less sensitive the chart is to changes in the production process d. the larger the value of z, the more narrow the control limits are and the less sensitive the chart is to changes in the production process 26. A control chart that uses the actual number of defects per item in a sample to monitor a process is known as a a. p-chart b. c-chart c. R-chart d. -chart - - x
[5] 27. Only processes that are out of statistical control have variability. a. True b. False 28. The -chart is used with the R-chart under the premise that both _____________________________must be in control for the process to be in control. a. Central concept and range b. Number of defects and proportion defective c. Randomness and proportion defective d. Process average and process variability e. None of the above 29. Which of the following is not a characteristic of an effective design process? a. matches product or service characteristics with customer requirements b. maximizes the revisions necessary to make a design workable c. ensures that customer requirements are met in the least costly and simplest manner d. reduces the time required to design a new product or service 30. The design process begins with a. a feasibility study b. a form design c. understanding the customer and identifying customer needs d. pilot runs and final tests 31. A structured process that anticipates the failures in a product and fixes them based on the severity of its effects, during product design is called a. quality function deployment (QFD) b. failure mode and effects analysis (FMEA) c. concurrent design d. robust product design 32. The design process is important to manufacturing firms, but not to service organizations. a. True b. False 33. Comparing a product or process against the best-in-class is known as reverse engineering. a. True b. False 34. Because of its intangibility, consumers generally perceive a service to be more risky to purchase than a product. a. True b. False - - x
[6] 35. The performance characteristics relevant in the functional design phase of a product design are a. Color, shape, and texture b. Speed, flexibility, and time-to-market c. Reliability, maintainability, and usability d. Availability, consistency, and calibration e. Product innovation, time-to-market, and consistency 36. Software systems for ‘collaborative design’ are most commonly referred to as a. Breakthrough design systems b. Artificial intelligence c. Fuzzy logic d. Expert systems e. Collaborative product commerce 37. Fluctuating demand, short production runs of a variety of products, and small to moderate quantities produced to customer order are characteristics most associated with a. mass production b. continuous production c. projects d. batch production 38. As production systems move from projects to batch production to mass production to continuous production a. demand volume increases b. products become more customized c. production systems become less automated d. production systems become more flexible 39. When capacity is increased following an increase in demand the firm is said to follow a(n) a. capacity cushion strategy b. average capacity strategy c. capacity lead strategy d. capacity lag strategy 40. Processes in the decreasing order of product customization are: a. mass production, projects, batch production, continuous production b. projects, batch production, continuous production, mass production c. batch production, projects, mass production, continuous production d. continuous production, mass production, batch production, projects e. None of the above
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[7] 41. Capacity decisions affect a. product lead times b. customer responsiveness c. operating costs d. all of the above 42. Supplier speed is not an issue in make-or-buy decisions. a. True b. False 43. Mass production tends to use general equipment and cross trained, multi-skilled labor. a. True b. False 44. Process flowcharts can be used to highlight nonproductive activities. a. True b. False 45. One characteristic of batch production is fluctuating demand. a. True b. False 46. More automated processes have higher variable costs but lower fixed costs. a. True b. False Descriptive Type Questions (PLEASE WRITE THE ANSWER BELOW THE QUESTION) 1) a) List any four competitive priorities of an organization (b) State the practices that are key to achieving each competitive priority (c) Provide an illustrative example of an organization that competes on each competitive priority, and state the practices it follows in order to compete on the said competitive priority. (10 points)
[8]
[9] 2) Explain project, batch, mass, and continuous manufacturing processes using the following criteria for each: (8 Points) i. Type of product ii. Product demand iii. Demand Volume iv. Product Variety v. Equipment vi. Worker skills vii. Advantages viii. Disadvantages
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