Exam2_sample_fall2023
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School
Georgia Institute Of Technology *
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Course
2600
Subject
Geology
Date
Dec 6, 2023
Type
Pages
17
Uploaded by DoctorExplorationSeaLion25
EAS 2600 Review Questions
Learning Objectives (LO)
:
6.1 Describe the major processes that form sedimentary rocks.
6.2 Compare the various types of sedimentary basins.
6.3 Define the different types of sedimentary environments and the two main types of sediments
and sedimentary rocks.
6.4 Summarize the types of sedimentary structures.
6.5 Discuss the process of burial and diagenesis of sediments.
6.6 Describe how the major kinds of siliciclastic, chemical, and biological sediments are
classified.
6.7 Discuss how carbonate and evaporite rocks are formed.
7.1 Explain the causes of metamorphism.
7.2 Describe the various types of metamorphism.
7.3 Summarize the various types of textural features displayed in metamorphic rocks.
7.4 Discuss the ways metamorphic rocks reveal the conditions under which they were formed.
7.5 Illustrate how metamorphic rocks are related to plate tectonic processes.
8.1 Compare the different types of tectonic forces at plate boundaries that deform rocks.
8.2 Describe how maps and diagrams are used to represent geologic structures.
8.3 Explain how laboratory experiments can help us understand the way rocks deform.
8.4 Summarize the basic deformation structures observed in the field and the types of forces that
produce these deformation structures.
8.5 Define the main styles of continental deformation.
8.6 Describe how we reconstruct the geologic history of a region.
10.1 Explain how stress builds up on faults and is released in earthquakes through the process of
elastic rebound.
10.2 Identify the three main types of seismic waves and describe the ground motions they
produce.
10.3 Distinguish shaking intensity from earthquake magnitude and understand how they are
related.
10.4 Classify earthquakes according to their plate-tectonic setting and patterns of faulting.
10.5 Characterize seismic hazards and the risks they pose to society and its built environment.
10.6 Defend the statement that “earthquakes can be forecast in the long term but not predicted in
the short term.”
11.1 Trace the paths of the major seismic waves through Earth’s interior and know what they
reveal about the layering of Earth’s crust, mantle, and core.
11.2 Apply the principle of isostasy to explain why continents ride higher than oceans and why
the oceans deepen as the geologic age of the seafloor increases.
11.3 Recognize where heat in Earth’s interior is transported upward primarily by conduction and
where primarily by convection.
11.4 Describe how temperature increases from Earth’s surface to its center, and identify the
depths where the geotherm crosses the melting curve.
11.5 Visualize Earth’s three
-dimensional structure from the images provided by seismic
tomography.
11.6 Summarize what Earth’s magnetic field tells us about the liquid outer core.
11.7 Explain how magnetic field reversals are used to date rock sequences.
Sample Questions
1.
A sample of marble has deformed brittlely during a laboratory experiment. If we
wish our next sample of marble to deform plastically rather than brittlely, we should
conduct the next experiment at
.
A)
higher temperature and higher confining pressure
B)
lower temperature and lower confining pressure
C)
higher temperature and lower confining pressure
D)
lower temperature and higher confining pressure
2.
A sediment initially composed of roughly equal amounts of quartz and feldspar
grains is transported over a long distance. What will the sediment end up looking
like?
A)
poorly-sorted, rounded grains consisting of mostly of feldspar
B)
well-sorted, angular grains consisting mostly of quartz
C)
well-sorted, rounded grains consisting mostly of quartz
D)
well-sorted, rounded grains consisting mostly of feldspar
E)
poorly-sorted, rounded grains consisting mostly of quartz
3.
Which of the following is NOT a sedimentary structure?
A)
graded bedding
B)
ripples
C)
vesicles
D)
bedding
E)
cross-bedding
4.
A geologist comes across a cross-bedded sandstone and notices all the grains are
rounded and the same size. They have likely found a(n)
A)
ancient chemical sediment
B)
ophiolite suite
C)
ancient sand dune
D)
soil developed on basalt bedrock
5.
Typically, as transport distance increases for sediment
.
A)
sorting and rounding of particles decreases
B)
particle sorting decreases and particle rounding increases
C)
sorting and rounding of particles remains the same
D)
particle sorting increases and particle rounding decreases
E)
sorting and rounding of particles increases
6.
A geologist finds a layer of halite (salt) and gypsum in a drill core taken in the
sediments at the bottom of the Mediterranean Sea. The best interpretation of these
layers is
.
A)
at some point in the past the Mediterranean Sea must have dried up
B)
halite and gypsum layers were emplaced as sills in layers of other sediments
C)
at some point in the past the Mediterranean Sea had significant input of detrital
halite and gypsum from rivers
D)
halite and gypsum layers formed from metamorphism of sedimentary muds
E)
halite and gypsum formed as dikes in layers of other sediments
7.
The tendency for variations in current velocity to segregate sediments on the basis
of particle size is called
.
A)
metamorphism
B)
compaction
C)
lithification
D)
sorting
E)
diagenesis
8.
Graded beds typically form
.
A)
when crystals settle by density to the bottom of a magma chamber
B)
during the first stages of metamorphism
C)
during meteorite impacts
D)
when sands are carried by wind to form sand dunes
E)
when sediments deposit from a progressively weakening river current
9.
What is the term for the process by which organisms burrow through muds and
disrupt the sedimentary bedding?
A)
cementation
B)
cross-bedding
C)
chemical precipitation
D)
lithification
E)
bioturbation
10.
A shale and a basalt are subjected to identical high pressure and temperature
metamorphic conditions (Granulite). A geologist would expect
A)
minerals identical to those in each parent rock but recrystallized larger sizes
B)
minerals found in the two metamorphic rocks to be different
C)
minerals identical to those in each parent rock but recrystallized to polymorphs
D)
minerals found in the two metamorphic rocks to be approximately identical
E)
none of the above
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11.
If one dug a deep hole almost anywhere on the Georgia Tech campus, the rock that
would most likely find would be?
A)
Gneiss
B)
Granite
C)
Limestone
D)
Shale
E)
Gabbro
12.
What type of metamorphism is caused by high temperature and high pressure
imposed over a large volume of crust?
A)
regional
B)
contact
C)
shock
D)
burial
13.
The vast majority of the carbonate sediments of the ocean are derived from
.
A)
fish and other vertebrates
B)
coral reefs
C)
direct inorganic precipitation of calcite from seawater
D)
calcite secreted by shelled organisms
E)
volcanic eruptions along mid-ocean ridges
14.
Detrital sedimentary rocks are classified (named) primarily on the basis of
.
A)
type of bedding
B)
particle size
C)
color
D)
composition
E)
none of the above
15.
Which of the following metamorphic rocks is incorrectly paired with its parent rock?
A)
schist
–
slate
B)
marble
–
limestone
C)
schist
–
shale
D)
quartzite
–
shale
E)
none of the above
16.
Cross-beds are a structure most commonly seen in
A)
chemical sediments
B)
shales
C)
lithified sand dune and river channel sediments
D)
bituminous coal horizons
E)
metamorphic rocks
17.
Which of the following is an example of a clastic sedimentary rock?
A)
evaporite
B)
sandstone
C)
dolostone
D)
limestone
E)
chert
18.
What kind of metamorphism would you expect to see in the rocks at a meteor impact
site?
A)
contact
B)
burial
C)
hydrothermal
D)
shock
E)
regional
19.
Which of the following lists the rocks in the order of increasing grain size and
increasing grade of metamorphism?
A)
slate, phyllite, schist, gneiss
B)
gneiss, phyllite, slate, schist
C)
slate, schist, phyllite, gneiss
D)
phyllite, schist, gneiss, slate
E)
schist, slate, phyllite, gneiss
20.
Metamorphism happens when rocks are subjected to
A)
changing temperatures
B)
changing pressures
C)
fluids inside the earth
D)
all of the above
21.
In which of the following sedimentary rocks would it be easiest to determine the
type of rocks from which the sediment was derived by eye (no magnification)
A)
limestones
B)
sandstones
C)
shales
D)
conglomerates
E)
siltstones
22.
Metamorphic rocks CANNOT originate from
.
A)
chemical sedimentary rocks
B)
igneous rocks
C)
siliclastic sedimentary rocks
D)
other metamorphic rocks
E)
none of the above
23.
rocks are deposited at Earth's surface by physical, chemical, or
biological agents.
A)
metamorphic
B)
sedimentary
C)
epimorphic
D)
igneous
E)
all of the above
24.
Limestone is a
.
A)
metamorphic rock
B)
siliciclastic sedimentary rock
C)
chemical sedimentary rock
D)
igneous rock
E)
none of the above
25.
Which is NOT a type of metamorphism?
A)
burial
B)
shock
C)
regional
D)
contact
E)
siliciclastic
26.
Choose the proper order in which a sedimentary rock forms from start to finish.
A)
weathering -> diagenesis -> erosion -> sedimentation -> burial -> compaction
B)
erosion -> diagenesis -> weathering -> sedimentation -> burial -> compaction
C)
burial -> compaction -> sedimentation -> weathering -> erosion -> diagenesis
D)
erosion -> burial -> sedimentation -> weathering -> compaction -> diagenesis
E)
weathering -> erosion -> sedimentation -> burial -> compaction ->diagenesis
27.
The composition of the inner core of Earth is thought to be
.
A)
liquid iron-manganese alloy
B)
solid iron-nickel alloy
C)
peridotite
D)
liquid iron-nickel alloy
E)
solid iron-manganese alloy
28.
Which of the following combinations should favor folding rather than faulting?
A)
high temperature and low confining pressure
B)
high confining pressure and low temperature
C)
low confining pressure and low temperature
D)
high temperature and high confining pressure
E)
All of the above
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29.
When an earthquake occurs, energy radiates in all directions from its source. The
source is also referred to as the
.
A)
focus
B)
hypocenter
C)
epicenter
D)
A) and B)
E)
none of the above
30.
The asthenosphere is actually a part of
Earth’s
.
A)
crust
B)
lower mantle
C)
transition zone
D)
outer core
E)
upper mantle
31.
The lithosphere is defined as
.
A)
a ductile layer composed mainly of mantle material
B)
a rigid layer of mantle material
C)
a rocky layer having a relatively uniform chemical composition
D)
a rocky layer composed mainly of crustal rocks
E)
none of the above
32.
The compass direction of a line formed by the intersection of a rock layer's surface
or a fault surface with a horizontal surface is termed the
.
A)
tabulatum
B)
strike
C)
strataplane
D)
geoplanum
E)
dip
33.
The distance between a seismological recording station and the earthquake source is
determined from the
.
A)
arrival times of P and S waves
B)
displacement of the earthquake
C)
length of the seismic record
D)
earthquake magnitude
E)
none of the above
34.
The Modified Mercalli Intensity Scale is a rating of the
A)
net earth displacement of an earthquake
B)
structural damage due to an earthquake
C)
intensity of a volcanic eruption
D)
energy required for faulting to occur
E)
viscosity of a magma
35.
Moment magnitude is a measure of
A)
volcanic intensity
B)
earthquake size
C)
the time delay between P and S waves
D)
structural damage due to an earthquake
E)
none of the above
36.
Transmission of S waves through a substance require the substance to have
A)
fluids
B)
a high Mercalli scale rating
C)
molecular structure
D)
no shear strength
E)
high shear strength
37.
Which one of the following statements is incorrect?
A)
P waves have lower velocities than S waves
B)
P and S waves travel through solids
C)
S waves do not travel through liquids and P waves travel through solids.
D)
P waves travel through liquids, but S waves do not travel through liquids.
E)
Both C and D
38.
Approximately how much more energy is released in a magnitude 4.0 earthquake
than in one with magnitude 3.0?
A)
10 times
B)
3 times
C)
32 times
D)
100 times
E)
1000 times
39.
In thrust faulting,
.
A)
the crust is shortened and thickened
B)
grabens develop on the footwall block
C)
the hanging wall block slips downward along the thrust fault
D)
horizontal, tensional stresses drive the deformation
E)
none of the above
40.
In a normal fault
.
A)
the hanging wall block is displaced laterally relative to the footwall block
B)
the footwall block is displaced upwards relative to the hanging wall block
C)
the hanging wall block is displaced upwards relative to the footwall block
D)
the footwall block is displaced downwards relative to the hanging wall block
E)
none of the above
41.
Pick the earthquake wave that squeezes and stretches the rocks it travels through.
A)
Surface waves
B)
Love waves
C)
P waves
D)
S waves
E)
Rayleigh waves
42.
Scientists use which of the following as clues to the composition of Earth's core and
mantle? [ignore question since covers Learning Objective 11.6]
A)
High pressure high temperature experiments
B)
Seismic velocity structure
C)
Meteorite composition
D)
Strength and movement of the Earth's magnetic field
E)
All of the above
43.
When rocks elastically rebound after an earthquake, they
A)
are displaced by the fault and remain deformed
B)
undergo teleseimic reformation
C)
are displaced by the fault and return to their original undeformed dimensions
D)
lose their ability to transmit S waves
E)
lose their ability to transmit P waves
44.
On a geologic map, the symbol for a thrust fault appears as
A)
a plain dark line with small parallel arrows pointing in opposite directions on
either side of the line
B)
a dark line with triangular teeth on both sides pointing in the direction of fault
movement
C)
a plain dark line
D)
a dark line with triangular teeth on one side pointing in the direction of fault dip
E)
none of the above
45.
Which of the following statements about earthquakes is true?
A)
Earthquakes are not associated with strike-slip faulting
B)
S waves travel faster than both P waves and surface waves
C)
Most earthquakes occur in the center of tectonic plates
D)
Earthquakes are associated with faulting and failure of rocks
E)
none of the above
46.
On a geologic map you see patterns showing concentric circular sedimentary
layers with the oldest layers exposed in the center, what is this geologic structure?
A)
dome
B)
anticline
C)
syncline
D)
basin
E)
rift
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47.
Which of the following is not a type of geologic stress?
A)
relaxation
B)
shear
C)
tension
D)
compression
E)
none of the above
48.
A region is characterized by numerous synclines and anticlines. There are also several
faults present that appear to have formed at the same time as the folding. Without
knowing any other details, what type of faults would you assume them to be?
A)
normal
B)
strike slip
C)
transform
D)
thrust
49.
On a seismogram taken near an earthquake focus,
will show the highest
amplitudes.
A)
air waves
B)
S waves
C)
surface waves
D)
P waves
E)
body waves
50.
You are buying a house in an earthquake prone region, which of the following is
most likely to withstand an earthquake.
A)
A wood frame house built on unconsolidated sediment
B)
A solid brick house built on unconsolidated sediment
C)
A wood frame house built on a hard solid rock surface
D)
A solid brick house that is built over a fault line
E)
House construction and underlying geology make almost no difference
51.
Which of the following sedimentary rocks is composed of biochemically precipitated
silica?
A)
chert
B)
halite
C)
conglomerate
D)
limestone
E)
sandstone
52.
Which of the following minerals would be most concentrated at a site containing
heavily weathered sediments?
A)
olivine
B)
feldspar
C)
amphibole
D)
quartz
E)
pyroxene
53.
Which of the following is a typical product of the chemical weathering of quartz?
A)
apatite
B)
pyrite
C)
kaolinite
D)
feldspar
E)
none of the above
54.
Two common cements of clastic sedimentary rocks are
A)
calcite and olivine
B)
quartz and feldspar
C)
quartz and olivine
D)
calcite and quartz
E)
calcium and halite
55.
Which of the following statements is true?
A)
Cementation and compaction typically have no effect of porosity
B)
Cementation increases porosity, whereas compaction decreases porosity.
C)
Cementation and compaction both increase porosity.
D)
Cementation decreases porosity, whereas compaction increases porosity.
E)
Cementation and compaction both decrease porosity.
56.
Which of the following best describes bedded gypsum and halite?
A)
metamorphic rocks
B)
detrital sedimentary rocks
C)
felsic rocks
D)
varieties of coal and peat
E)
evaporites; chemical, sedimentary rocks
57.
Which of the following rocks has the lowest silica content?
A)
sandstone
B)
chert
C)
basalt
D)
granite
E)
limestone
58.
The parallel alignment of mica in a metamorphic rock is an example of
.
A)
foliation
B)
metasomatism
C)
bedding
D)
porphyroblasts
E)
faulting
Use the following to answer questions 59
–
60:
Units A, B, C, D, and E in the cross-section are sedimentary rocks.
The thick black line represents a fault.
(expect many more questions with cross-section and tectonic regional diagrams on the exam)
59.
What kind of fault is shown?
A)
reverse fault
B)
normal fault
C)
right-lateral strike-slip
D)
left-lateral strike-slip
E)
anticline
60.
What do you expect to find associated with the granite intrusion?
A)
Faulting
B)
Shock metamorphism
C)
Contact metamorphism
D)
Plastic deformation
E)
Foliations
61.
What rock is produced by the metamorphism of limestone?
A)
phyllite
B)
mica schist
C)
gneiss
D)
granite
E)
marble
62.
Which of the following is true about tsunamis?
A)
They are associated with large earthquakes on transform faults
B)
They have 10-meter wave height in the open ocean
C)
They are associated with mantle hotspots
D)
They travel at about the speed of a jet airplane.
E)
none of the above
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63.
_____ is a strong, parallel alignment of different mineral bands in a metamorphic rock.
A)
Marbleizing
B)
Stress streaking
C)
Foliation
D)
Cleavage
E)
none of the above
64.
What is the major driving force of physical weathering?
A)
lightning strikes
B)
earthquakes
C)
wind
D)
gravity
65.
Identify this rock:
A)
shale
B)
marble
C)
conglomerate
D)
granite
E)
sandstone
66.
Identify this rock:
A)
shale
B)
marble
C)
granite
D)
gneiss
E)
schist
67.
You stumble upon sediments composed entirely of quartz and clay minerals. What
intensity of weathering did the parent rock experience?
A)
Low intensity
B)
Medium intensity
C)
High intensity
D)
Weathering did not play a role
68.
Diagenesis is the process by which
.
A)
rocks are weathered
B)
sediments are lithified into sedimentary rocks
C)
sediments are transported and deposited
D)
sediments are deposited on the seafloor
69.
Organic matter subjected to burial and heating results in
A)
groundwater filtration
B)
chemical weathering
C)
formation of coal, oil, and/or gas
D)
chemical precipitation of rock
E)
none of the above
70.
The vast majority of sedimentary rock is made from
A)
fine-grained particles
B)
coarse-grained particles
C)
silt, mud, and clay
D)
A and C
E)
B and C
71.
A uniform stress, which is applied equally in all directions, is known as a
A)
differential stress
B)
confining stress
C)
shear stress
D)
extensional stress
72.
Metasomatism is defined as
A)
a change in rock composition by fluid transport of chemical substances into and/or
out of the rock
B)
the burial and diagenesis of sediments
C)
contact metamorphism
D)
physical weathering by fluids
E)
none of the above
73.
At mid-ocean ridges, basalt is altered into hydrous minerals because of
A)
tidal currents
B)
metasomatism from hydrothermal circulation of fluids
C)
contact metamorphism
D)
regional metamorphism
74.
The texture of marble and quartzite is
A)
nonfoliated, with equidimensional coarse-grained crystal
B)
nonfoliated, with randomly sized crystals
C)
foliated, with equidimensional coarse-grained crystal
D)
foliated, with randomly sized crystal
75.
Increasing intensity of metamorphism is characterized by
A)
increasing crystal size and increasing coarseness of foliations
B)
decreasing crystal size and increasing coarseness of foliations
C)
increasing crystal size and decreasing coarseness of foliations
D)
decreasing crystal size and decreasing coarseness of foliations
76.
What are the three types of stress forces that can be exerted on a rock?
A)
compressive, shortening, and folding
B)
tensional, extensional, and pulling
C)
compressive, tensional, and shearing
D)
shearing, twisting, and tearing
77.
What category of deformation is folding?
A)
brittle
B)
elastic
C)
rigid
D)
plastic
78.
Sedimentary basins are
A)
circular in shape, downwarped, with youngest rocks in the center
B)
anticlines, upwarped, with oldest rocks in the center
C)
synclines, downwarped, with youngest rocks in the center
D)
stretched, thinned sections of rifted lithosphere
79.
Extensional stresses can generate which type of fault?
A)
megathrust
B)
thrust
C)
reverse
D)
normal
E)
strike-slip
80.
In a reverse fault, the hanging wall moves
with respect to the footwall.
A)
down
B)
up
C)
sideways
D)
obliquely
E)
all of the above
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81.
Fault block mountains are produced by
stresses, whereas fold and thrust
mountains are produced by
stresses.
A)
compressive, tensional
B)
shear, compressive
C)
tensional, compressive
D)
tensional, shear
82.
For a right-lateral strike slip fault, a left bend in the fault results in
A)
local shearing
B)
local compression
C)
local extension
D)
all of the above
83.
Under elastic rebound theory, stress builds until
A)
it exceeds the strength of the rock and ruptures along a fault in an earthquake
B)
the rock fractures
C)
the rock deforms plasticly
D)
the rock is metamorphosed
84.
What type of seismic energy is radiated from an earthquake?
A)
Seismic waves
B)
Body waves
C)
Surface waves
D)
P-waves
E)
All of the above
85.
If you want to minimize the risk of earthquake damage, what should you build your
home on?
A)
Clay-rich sediment
B)
Water-saturated unconsolidated sediment
C)
Artificial fill
D)
Beach sand
E)
None of the above
86.
Approximately how much more fault slip occurs in a magnitude 7 earthquake
compared to a magnitude 5 earthquake?
A)
0.5 times
B)
2 times
C)
10 times
D)
Earthquakes do not generate fault slip
87.
Megathrust earthquakes are the
A)
largest, most destructive and can generate tsunamis
B)
smallest, least destructive and not a hazard to people
C)
just like any earthquake
D)
megathrust faults to done experience earthquakes
88.
Earth’s compositional layers include:
A)
lithosphere, asthenosphere, mesosphere, outer core, inner core
B)
crust, mantle, core
C)
lithosphere, mantle, core
D)
crust, lithosphere, asthenosphere, core
89.
Earth’s mechanical layers include
A)
lithosphere, asthenosphere
B)
crust, mantle, core
C)
lithosphere, mantle, core
D)
crust, lithosphere, asthenosphere, core
90.
In oceanic plates, why does the seafloor subside and become deeper with age?
A)
the lithosphere thickens with age
B)
the lithosphere becomes denser
C)
the lithosphere gets colder via conductive heat loss with age
D)
all of the above
91.
What seismic evidence is there for a liquid outer core and solid inner core?
A)
P-wave shadow zone
B)
S-wave shadow zone
C)
converted S-waves travel through the inner core
D)
all of the above