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Feb 20, 2024
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Review Quiz 1: The Geographic Perspective
1.
Venice, the old world city of bridges and canals, is sinking faster than anyone expected. In the early 2000s, a grand engineering project began in an attempt to protect Venice from high tides, as well as the rising Adriatic Sea. A series of 79 inflatable pontoons are being installed on the seabed around Venice.
This statement is an example of which theme of geography? [Select the best answer.]
a.
human-environment interaction
b.
movement
c.
place
d.
location
2. You are working for a marketing research company and they have asked you to analyze and track the average household expenditure on tissues from major pharmacies during the month of
January. You are provided with the total number of boxes of tissues purchased and dollars spent by tissue brand in January. The data you are given is considered geographic information.
a)
False. You were not given locations, therefore, it is not geographic information.
b)
False. You were given geographic data, not geographic information.
c)
True. You should be able to determine the location of pharmacies based on this information.
3. You are camping in a valley and you want to get a good view of the land from above. Of the places shown on your topographic map, which of the following describes the best place to do this?
a)
The contour lines form pointed "V"s.
b)
The contour lines are closed with hatch marks.
c)
The contour lines are evenly spaced and far apart.
d)
The contour lines form closed circles.
4. You have returned to the office after conducting field research on the occurrence of drug-
related shootings in United States urban areas. Which of the following geospatial technologies would be the most useful for you to analyze the spatial data that you have collected from the field and other data sources?
a)
GPS
b)
Cartography
c)
GIS
d)
Remote Sensing
5. While camping, you could use a topographic map to do all of the following, EXCEPT:
a)
avoid the hardest bedrock when pitching your tent.
b)
locate sources of water, including streams and lakes.
c)
find the most level area to set up your campsite on.
d)
circumnavigate mountains and wetlands while hiking.
6. MapQuest is an online web mapping service, owned and operated by American Online, Incorporated. When MapQuest is used to identify the location of an address, which geographic tool is being used to provide you with the map?
a)
remote sensing
b)
a geographic information system
c)
a global position system
d)
volunteered geographic information
7. The distribution and pattern of the most dominant tree species across Michigan would best be
displayed and visualized on a ________________ map.
a)
thematic
b)
topographic
c)
reference
d)
Mental
8. A large aluminum smelting plant is located on the south bank of the Ottawa River, just east of
North Bay. This statement is an example of which theme of geography? (Note: Select the best answer.)
a)
movement
b)
human-environment interaction
c)
place
d)
Location
9. You are planning to meet up with your friends at a local coffee shop. When you ask for directions, you are told that the coffee shop is located on the north side of Grand River Avenue, one block west of Hagadorn Road, across from University Apartments. You have been given:
a)
not much, as a street address is needed to determine the coffee shop's location.
b)
the absolute location of the coffee shop.
c)
the relative location of the coffee shop.
d)
a mental map to the coffee shop.
10. True or false? Relative to one another, a map of the state of Indiana is a large scale map, while a map of Indianapolis, Indiana, is a small scale map.
a)
True
b)
False
11. Thinking spatially means considering, "What?"; "Where?"; and "Why there?" for a particular phenomenon. Identify "What?" (that is, the phenomenon) in the following example:
Portuguese is the official language of Brazil, spoken in some form, by nearly all of the country's inhabitants. This is the result of the colonization of the country in the 1500s by the Portuguese people who imposed their language, culture, and customs on the people they colonized.
a)
the 1500s
b)
Portugal and Brazil
c)
the Portuguese language
d)
the country's inhabitants
12. Geography is fundamentally characterized by its concern with:
a)
patterns of spatial development.
b)
phenomena in a spatial context.
c)
humans and the environment.
d)
the human condition across space.
13. A key feature of Volunteered Geographic Information is:
a)
rural-based mapping.
b)
continuous coverage.
c)
more accurate information.
d)
user-generated content.
14. We know that the geographic coordinates of Beijing, China are 39 degrees North latitude, 116 degrees East longitude and those of San Francisco are 37 degrees North latitude, 122 degrees West longitude. Given this information, which of the following coordinates would be nearest the halfway point if traveling from Beijing east to San Francisco?
[Tip: Be sure to pay close attention to the location descriptors provided.]
a)
38 degrees South latitude, 12 degrees East longitude
b)
29 degrees North latitude, 167 degrees West longitude
c)
45 degrees North latitude, 94 degrees West longitude
d)
51 degrees South latitude, 110 degrees East longitude
15. Only one of the following sets of coordinates describes a real location on Earth. Use your knowledge of the latitude/longitude coordinate system to choose the correct response. Look closely at the choices.
a)
74 degrees, 17 minutes North, 126 degrees, 44 minutes West
b)
112 degrees, 5 minutes South, 62 degrees, 31 minutes East
c)
42 degrees, 12 minutes East, 80 degrees, 17 minutes West
d)
23 degrees, 45 minutes South, 181 degrees, 46 minutes East
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16. Quebec has taken advantage of its rivers and the grade (that is, the slope) of those rivers by
constructing hydroelectric dams for electricity generation.
This statement is an example of which theme of geography? (Note: Select the best answer.)
a)
location
b)
human-environment interaction
c)
movement
d)
place
17. Thinking spatially means considering, "What?"; "Where?"; and "Why there?". Identify "
Where
?" in the following example:
a)
Brazil
b)
the country's inhabitants
c)
Portugal
d)
language, culture, and customs
18. Thinking spatially means considering, "What?"; "Where?"; and "Why there?". Identify "
Where
? " in the following example:
Boiling Lake in Roseau, Dominica is a flooded basin associated with an opening in the Earth's crust from which heat and gases can escape.
a)
Boiling Lake
b)
Roseau, Dominica
c)
an opening in the Earth's crust
d)
heat and gases can escape
19. It is spring and the Mississippi River is at flood stage. Levees meant to protect communities
and people have been breached and the water level continues to rise. You are working for the Federal Emergency Management Administration and need to gauge the exact extent of the flooding along a large stretch of the river. Which of the following tools would be most helpful?
a)
a geographic information system
b)
a global positioning system
c)
volunteered geographic information
d)
remote sensing
20. The primary value of a Geographic information system (GIS) is its ability to:
a)
capture high-res imagery of the earth's surface.
b)
pinpoint a location using three satellites.
c)
store, display, and analyze geographic information.
d)
collect geographic information from crowds.
Review: Population and Demography:
1.
A country that is concerned with issues like social security and health care for their elderly citizens is most likely in either __________ of demographic transition.
a.
Stage 4 or 5
b.
Stage 3 or 4
c.
Stage 1 or 2
d.
Stage 1 or 5
2.
If a demographer uses only the Crude Birth Rate and the Crude Death Rate to determine whether a population is increasing, she is calculating the:
a.
Crude Growth Rate.
b.
Doubling Time.
c.
Rate of Natural Increase.
d.
Fertility Rate.
3.
In your lesson, you were asked to watch a video clip from the documentary Affluenza. This particular video clip can best be summarized as a discussion of:
a.
the shrinking middle class, or growing income gap between rich and poor.
b.
the impact of overconsumption on resources such as water and oil.
c.
the chemical changes that occur in our brain when we purchase goods.
d.
the ill effects of a consumer-driven society on people and the planet.
4.
A large percentage of people in the fictional city of Roundville live below the poverty line,
and many engage in subsistence farming or low-wage factory jobs. While vaccine programs have decreased the death rate, life expectancy remains low and other social problems such as illiteracy are prevalent. It is most likely that Roundville is located in:
a.
a more developed country.
b.
an urban area.
c.
a rural area.
d.
a less developed country.
5.
Which of the following pyramids represents Stage 2 of Demographic Transition
a.
1
b.
2
c.
3
6. True or false? If you are forced to move from your home to a new location and have no choice in whether you stay or go, it is NOT considered migration.
a.
True
b.
False
7.Of the revolutions listed below, which led to population growth by improving and increasing the food supply?
a.
Industrial revolution
b.
Agricultural revolution
c.
Medical revolution
8. Which of the following statements about historical population growth is FALSE?
a.
Life expectancy increased as an indirect result of the industrial revolution.
b.
Advances in medicine and health care decreased death rates.
c.
Advances in technology slowed population growth.
d.
Advances in agriculture increased the Earth's carrying capacity.
9. Malthus believed that the one dominant factor that would reduce the Earth's carrying capacity
and limit the world's population is:
a.
lack of food.
b.
natural disasters.
c.
overcrowding.
d.
illness and disease.
10. True or False? Most refugees move from less developed countries to more developed countries in search of job opportunities.
a.
True
b.
False
11. Which of the following statements about population growth is TRUE?
a.
The population of all countries is increasing, just at varying rates.
b.
The global population growth rate is larger than the rate of natural increase.
c.
The global population growth rate has declined since 1970.
d.
The doubling time for the global population is lower than it has ever been.
12. Bre Pettis is the cofounder of Makerbot, an open-source machine that allows users to manufacture their own designs and inventions, nearly as easily as they would print a document.
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He believes that more people should be participating in the creation of new products and have access to the necessary tools.
In this respect, Mr. Pettis would most likely be considered a:
a)
structuralist.
b)
liberal economist.
c)
neo-Malthusian.
13. The major advances associated with the Agricultural, Industrial, and Medical Revolutions are all fundamentally due to improvements in:
a)
political stability.
b)
economic opportunities.
c)
human health.
d)
educational access.
14. Population geographers are distinguished from demographers because they study population characteristics:
a)
between birth and death.
b)
in less developed countries.
c)
by gender, race, and age.
d)
in a spatial context.
15. In the United States we are fortunate to have the technology that enables fewer farmers to cultivate larger areas of land, and produce greater agricultural yields. This is indicative of:
a)
high physiological density.
b)
high agricultural density.
c)
low physiological density.
d)
low agricultural density.
16. Which of the following statements about the agricultural revolution is true?
a)
The agricultural revolution involved increasing agricultural production through technology.
b)
The agricultural revolution involved the domestication of plants and animals.
c)
Issues arising from the agricultural revolution include the excessive use of fertilizer.
d)
The agricultural revolution began in southwest Asia around 1750.
17. Of the following social policies, which is more likely to be found in a core country than in a peripheral one?
a)
a campaign to improve female literacy
b)
free vaccines clinics for common childhood diseases
c)
public pensions for the elderly
d)
subsidies for contraceptives in rural areas
18. Which of the following is an example of a migration push factor?
a)
economic prosperity in the United States creates lower unemployment
b)
poverty in rural Ghana causes families to move to urban areas
c)
the location and climate of Florida increases tourism and attracts retirees
d)
manufacturing jobs in Nigerian cities attract workers from rural areas
19. Population pyramids for three countries (#1, #2, and #3) are shown above. Based on the population pyramids, which country would be most likely to offer incentives to women to have more children?
a)
1
b)
2
c)
3
20. When learning about poverty in many countries in sub-Saharan Africa, you attribute its prevalence to rapid population growth. You do NOT support the social programs in the region aimed to provide aid to the struggling populations and feel that natural selection should determine who inhabits the Earth. You are most likely considered a:
a)
neo-Malthusian.
b)
structural functionalist.
c)
liberal economist.
d)
political ecologist.
21. When learning about poverty in many countries in sub-Saharan Africa, you acknowledge the
problems associated with the rapid population growth occurring there, but also recognize that
there are greater issues like consumption. You support social programs aimed to promote equitable and inclusive economic growth. You are most likely considered a:
a)
neo-Malthusian.
b)
structural functionalist.
c)
liberal economist.
22. France and the United Kingdom have populations that are comparable in size. However, France is significantly larger than the United Kingdom, with more acres of arable land. Which country has the lower physiological density?
a)
France
b)
There is not enough information given to answer this question.
c)
United Kingdom
23. Which of the following related to birth and death rates is true?
a)
The average death rate of less developed countries is substantially higher than that of more developed countries.
b)
A country's infant mortality rate, social structure, and economic activities are variables that influence birth rate.
c)
More developed countries typically have higher birth rates than less developed countries, but a smaller family size.
d)
In many less developed countries, the death rate is high and the birth rate is low resulting in population decline.
24. The population of India is nearly four times that of the United States. However, per capita, the average American consumes nearly three times more. The population growth rate of the United States is low, and the population is a mere quarter of the population of India. The United States is also a much larger country with more land area than India.
Therefore India is overpopulated and a greater burden on the environment than the United States.
a)
False, we must also consider rates of consumption, the economy, and standard of living.
b)
True, countries with a high standard of living are more efficient and consume less.
c)
True, a large population taxes resources more than a small population.
25. The birth rate of China decreased in response to the country's 'one-child' policy, which provided economic incentives to families who had only one child and penalties to those who had
more.
This would be considered a _______________ population control measure.
a)
coercive
b)
prohibitive
c)
collaborative
d)
Progressive
26. Of the revolutions listed below, which led to population growth by generating wealth and capital?
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a)
Industrial revolution
b)
Medical revolution
c)
Agricultural revolution
27. The fictional country of Homelandia has a population of 650,000 and a population growth rate of 1.4 percent. Using the "Rule of 70," we know that Homeland's population will double in approximately:
a)
70 years.
b)
50 years.
c)
98 years.
d)
35 years.
28. Apply the concept of carrying capacity to a forest. A forest ecosystem needs: 500 units of sunlight, 1000 units of water, and 250 units of nutrients daily to thrive. In this same ecosystem, there are 600 units of sunlight, 800 units of water, and 300 units of nutrients available each day. Which of the following is true about this forest ecosystem?
a)
this forest will adapt and implement new technologies to overcome the water deficit
b)
this forest will continue to thrive because it has two out of three necessary components
c)
this forest has exceeded its carrying capacity, therefore some trees will likely die
d)
this forest will be most limited by nutrients because it will run out of nutrients first
29. True or false? Urbanization in the Sahel has taken pressure off of the environment as more people are living in a more concentrated area. This has increased the Sahel's carrying capacity.
a)
True
b)
False
30. Which of the following statements about the Demographic Transition Model is true?
a)
The second stage is characterized by a high rate of natural increase.
b)
The third stage is characterized by a decreasing population.
c)
The fourth stage has a low birth rate and a high death rate.
d)
The fifth stage has a higher birth rate than death rate.
31. True or false? Despite rapid population growth in the past 50 years, most of the world's land area is still uninhabited.
a)
True
b)
False
32. The population of Rwanda is significantly larger than the population of Austria, yet the population of Austria consumes more calories than the population of Rwanda on an annual basis. This example illustrates how ____________ can negatively affect the Earth's carrying capacity.
a)
overconsumption
b)
technology
c)
overpopulation
d)
Industrialization
33. True or false? The carrying capacity of a location represents a fixed limitation on human population growth.
a)
True
b)
False
34. It is estimated that there are over 200 million international migrants worldwide. Which of the following statements about international migrants is FALSE?
a)
Most international migrants are of working age and are considered part of the labor force
of a country.
b)
Some international migrants have been forced to move from their homes and are considered refugees.
c)
Most international migrants are found in the United States, where opportunities are greatest.
d)
Most international migrants move for perceived economic opportunities in other countries.
35. Government officials in the fictional country of Happistan recently met to discuss the lack of working-age individuals to support social security, a problem that is expected to get increasingly
worse in the future. Happistan is most likely in ___________ of demographic transition.
a)
Stage 4
b)
Stage 2
c)
Stage 5
d)
Stage 3
36. If you are interested in studying population distribution as it relates to factors such as age, fertility, gender, health, occupation and ethnicity, you should pursue the field of:
a)
population geography.
b)
Anthropology.
c)
Demography.
d)
biogeography.
37. Those who classify themselves as having a liberal economics perspective on population likely believe that:
a)
the Earth's carrying capacity will increase in response to population growth.
b)
social welfare programs will not improve the quality life for the Earth's population.
c)
the spread of capitalism will create a better global economy and balance trade.
d)
development and improved governance in all nations will decrease population growth.
Review: Atmosphere
1.
While it is still not increasing in ozone concentration, the hole in the Earth's ozone layer is no longer decreasing and it is anticipated that it will recover fully in the future. This is primarily a result of:
a)
the Montreal Protocol.
b)
the Clean Air Act.
c)
Energy Star appliances.
d)
none of the above. These statements are false.
2. Of the gases in our atmosphere, the principle filter for ultraviolet radiation between the Sun and the Earth is:
a)
ozone in the upper atmosphere.
b)
particulates in the lower atmosphere.
c)
clouds in the upper atmosphere.
d)
ozone in the lower atmosphere.
3. A search of research papers in Google Scholar returns the following list of publications. Which is NOTan example of a study that would be done in the context of one of the four environmental spheres introduced in the Lesson Module on the Atmosphere?
a)
Climate change, ambient ozone, and health in 50 United States' cities.
b)
Effects of nitrogen fertilizer and pesticide management on floodwater ecology in a wetland ricefield.
c)
From industrial garden to food desert: Unearthing the root structure of urban agriculture in Oakland California.
d)
Neighborhood racial composition, neighborhood poverty, and the spatial accessibility of supermarkets in metropolitan Detroit.
4. One of the challenges of meeting the requirements of the Clean Air Act has been that:
a)
the federal government does not support monitoring or enforcement.
b)
some standards are set individually at the state-level and, therefore, vary.
c)
cars have become less fuel-efficient in recent years.
d)
natural emissions are more abundant than anthropogenic emissions.
5. In terms of atmospheric gases, plants depend most on _____________ for photosynthesis.
a)
Nitrogen
b)
water vapor
c)
carbon dioxide
d)
Oxygen
6. I am a scientist who studies the affect of nitrogen fertilizers on groundwater quality in the United States Great Plains. The primary focus of my study is on the:
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a)
hydrosphere
.
b)
atmosphere.
c)
biosphere.
d)
Lithosphere.
7. According to the Environmental Protection Agency, since 1970 the Clean Air Act has contributed to all of the following, EXCEPT:
a)
phasing out the operation of coal-fired power plants.
b)
raising the standard for cleaner, more efficient engines in cars and buses.
c)
reducing the amount of smog and particulates in major United States cities.
d)
creating and enforcing national standards for air pollution monitoring.
8. The formation of raindrops benefits from the presence of ______________ in the atmosphere.
a)
nitrogen
b)
particulates
c)
greenhouse gases
d)
Ozone
9. The San Joaquin Valley, in California, is said to have a serious problem with ozone. Based on
your knowledge of air quality, you know that this means that the valley:
a)
has been severely deforested and lacks carbon stores.
b)
has significant amounts of smog and air pollution.
c)
traps so much radiation that human health is impacted.
d)
has a large hole in the atmosphere directly overhead.
10. The presence of _____________________ is critical to the health and well being of human life on Earth.
a)
nitrous oxide in the upper atmosphere
b)
ozone in the upper atmosphere
c)
methane in the lower atmosphere
d)
ozone in the lower atmosphere
11. You are a physical geographer studying the impacts of global climate change on the non-
woody plant species of midlatitude temperate forests. Which environmental sphere are you most concerned with?
a)
biosphere
b)
hydrosphere
c)
lithosphere
d)
Atmosphere
12. Which of the following atmospheric gases is most responsible for regulating temperatures on Earth, in other words, making them more moderate?
a)
ozone
b)
water vapor
c)
carbon dioxide
d)
Oxygen
13. The Montreal Protocol is an agreement designed to:
a)
implement a higher standard of car exhaust systems in developed countries.
b)
phase out coal consumption and outdated technologies in developing countries.
c)
phase out the use of ozone-depleting substances by industries and corporations.
d)
reduce greenhouse gas emissions through a system of carbon credits and offsets.
14. All of the following contribute to air pollution EXCEPT:
a)
mines and quarries.
b)
volcanoes.
c)
a growing forest.
d)
Agriculture.
15. Bird migration is primarily a function of:
a)
the atmosphere.
b)
the biosphere.
c)
the hydrosphere.
d)
the lithosphere.
16. In October of 1948, a weather system trapped coal dust and steel mill particulates in the river valley surrounding the town of Donora, Pennsylvania, resulting in 14,000 reported health incidents. This is an example of an environmental disaster that propelled the United States government to draft which piece of legislation?
a)
Industrial Effluent Act
b)
National Environmental Policy Act
c)
Clean Air Act
d)
Ozone Mitigation Act
17. Which of the following is not a characteristic of one or more of the variable gases in the atmosphere?
a)
regulates the Earth's temperature
b)
makes life on Earth more hospitable
c)
individual amounts may increase or decrease over time
d)
proportion is large compared to other gases in the atmosphere
18. An increase in the incidence of skin cancer and changes in ocean plankton ecology occurring in the latter part of the 20th century can be linked to which of the following?
a)
the use of chlorofluorocarbons in aerosol cans
b)
the combustion of leaded gasoline in automobiles
c)
changing surface reflectivity in urban environments
d)
increasing surface temperatures due to carbon dioxide emissions
19. Particulate matter:
a)
is considered to be a criteria pollutant.
b)
is beyond the scope of the Clean Air Act.
c)
occurs naturally and, therefore, is never a pollutant.
d)
is only a problem in urban areas and areas downwind.
20. Which of the following gases is responsible for absorbing harmful ultraviolet rays and preventing those rays from reaching the surface of the Earth?
a)
water vapor
b)
carbon dioxide
c)
nitrogen
d)
ozone
21. Which of the following would be most considered a part of the hydrosphere?
a)
soil in your backyard
b)
the air you breathe
c)
a needleleaf tree
d)
the Florida Everglades
22. Which of the following is most likely to be a natural source of air pollution?
a)
a surface mining operation
b)
a brush fire
c)
a fireplace chimney
d)
a commercial farm
23. Which of the following best explains why constant gasses are an important part of our atmosphere?
a)
they directly sustain human life through respiration
b)
they prevent ultraviolet rays from reaching Earth's surface
c)
they regulate the earth's temperature
d)
they directly sustain plant life via photosynthesis
24. True or false? Ozone in the lower atmosphere is a threat to plant life, agriculture, and human health.
a)
True
b)
False
25. Anthropogenic air pollution is an indication that a country is:
a)
populous.
b)
industrialized
.
c)
wealthy.
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d)
Urbanized.
26. True or false? Variable gases such as carbon dioxide and water vapor comprise a very small percentage of Earth's atmosphere.
a)
True
b)
False
27. The passage of the Clean Air Act is associated with events surrounding which of the following pollutants?
a)
lead
b)
ozone
c)
hydrocarbons
d)
carbon dioxide
28. The initial passing of the Clean Air Act was intended to:
a)
control the emission of greenhouse gasses in North America.
b)
reduce ground level ozone (smog) and particulates in cities.
c)
monitor, at a national level, the release of sulfur and nitrogen dioxide.
d)
limit the release of chlorofluorocarbons into the atmosphere.
29. Which of the following best describes an interaction, or intersection, between two different spheres of the environment?
a)
a person petting a dog.
b)
an iceberg floating in the ocean
c)
clouds in the atmosphere
d)
copper deposits within the earth
30. True or false? According to the Environmental Protection Agency, carbon dioxide is considered one of the most common and dangerous types of pollutants, also known as a criteria
pollutant.
a)
True
b)
False
31. In general, particulates in the atmosphere are significant for agriculture because they:
a)
inhibit the effectiveness of fertilizers and pesticides applied to crops.
b)
contaminate fields, thereby decreasing crop productivity and yields.
c)
are necessary for drop formation and, therefore, a key component of rainfall.
d)
protect crops by filtering harmful ultraviolet radiation from the sun.
32. I am a geographer who studies the influence of urban areas, their human influences and activities, on weather patterns, specifically those related to cloud formation and cover, precipitation patterns, and humidity levels of a region. The primary focus of my study is on the: a)
biosphere.
b)
hydrosphere.
c)
atmosphere.
d)
Lithosphere.
33. True or false? Ozone is a pollutant and it is a goal of the Environmental Protection Agency to eliminate ozone from Earth's atmosphere.
a)
True
b)
False
34. A commonality that makes all three of the variable gases an important part of our atmosphere is that they:
a)
circulate heat energy around the globe.
b)
block out harmful ultraviolet B rays from the sun.
c)
directly sustain human life through respiration.
d)
make life on Earth more hospitable.
35. Of the gases in our atmosphere, which is the one thought to be the primary component of global climate change?
a)
carbon dioxide
b)
methane
c)
ozone
d)
water vapor
36. I am a scientist who studies the presence of non-native grass species in the Canadian tundra biome. I am a:
a)
hydrologist.
b)
biogeographer.
c)
climatologist.
d)
Geomorphologist.
Review: Hydrosphere
1.
As you have read, water resource access is a highly contentious issue around the world.
Based on your reading of the case studies, which of the following statements is FALSE?
a)
In the western United States, Upper Basin states are content with how water from the Colorado River is allocated.
b)
In North Africa, Egypt is demanding more equitable use of the Nile River to support its population.
c)
In Texas, there is friction between traditional landholder rights and Water Conservation Districts.
2. The Green River flows into the Colorado River and the Missouri River flows into the Mississippi River. The Colorado River flows into the Gulf of California and the Mississippi River flows into the Gulf of Mexico. Based on this information, the Green River and the Missouri River are:
a)
both tributaries of one another
b)
separated by a confluence.
c)
part of the same drainage basin.
d)
separated by a drainage divide.
3. True or false? A floodplain is the relatively flat area adjoining the channel of a river that receives the overflow of water; therefore, floodplains are not used for residential development.
a)
True
b)
False
4. Which of the following statements about porosity and permeability is FALSE?
a)
Large pore spaces are needed to store large amounts of groundwater.
b)
Impermeable rock or clay is necessary for groundwater storage.
c)
Highly porous rock is recharged by base flow, not by precipitation.
d)
Permeability affects the rates of movement and recharge of groundwater.
5. Of the following, which contributes most to water pollution worldwide?
a)
industrial activity
b)
mining
c)
agriculture
d)
municipal and residential use
6. What two elements are required for cloud formation?
a)
saturated air and small particles
b)
saturated air and greenhouse gases
c)
precipitation and wind
d)
humidity and wind
7. On satellite imagery of the Great Plains you can see multitudes of crop circles. What is the main reason these circles exist?
a)
The implementation of centrifugal pumps to water fields.
b)
The implementation of central pivot irrigation to water fields.
c)
It is easier to manage fields that are circular.
d)
The implementation of windmill driven pumps to water fields.
8. According to your lesson, what is most likely to happen to the water in the Ogallala aquifer?
a)
Farming in this region will become obsolete as people begin to realize it is unsustainable.
b)
Long before most pumps run dry, most farmers will not be able to afford the energy to pump without subsidies.
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c)
Scientists will create hybrid seeds that do not require extensive irrigation and the water will eventually recharge.
d)
Farmers will continue to pump at any cost until it runs completely dry (that is, there is no water left in it).
9. As seen in your lesson, which of the following methods are researchers using to gauge water clarity as a reflection of water quality across agricultural areas of the United States' Upper Midwest and measure the extent of spring flooding along the Mississippi River?
a)
geographic information systems
b)
remote sensing
c)
topographic maps
d)
global positioning systems
10. Which of the following statements about porosity and permeability is FALSE?
a)
Permeability affects the rates of movement of groundwater.
b)
Fine-textured clays facilitate water movement and percolation.
c)
Porosity affects the storage of groundwater.
d)
Coarse-textured sands can store large amounts of water.
11. Common sources of thermal pollution include all of the following, EXCEPT:
a)
deforestation on the banks of a river.
b)
soil erosion on the banks of river. c)
industries discharging wastewater into rivers.
d)
excess fertilizer entering rivers through groundwater.
12. Today, intensive agriculture in the United States' interior, including states like Kansas and South Dakota, is heavily dependent on water from the:
a)
High Plains Aquifer.
b)
Missouri River.
c)
Marcellus Shale Aquifer.
d)
Rocky Mountains (snowmelt).
13. In your lesson you were shown a map of total water withdrawals in the United States. The two states with the largest water withdrawals, as you read, had what in common?
a)
They both have a largely arid or desert climate.
b)
They both are heavily engaged in irrigated agriculture.
c)
They both are in the region known as the Southeast.
d)
They both overlie the High Plains Aquifer.
14. Above the rainforest canopy there is consistently a layer of clouds. The source of these clouds is water that moved into the atmosphere as vapor from the leaves of the dense, green vegetation below. More specifically, the source of the water that formed these clouds is:
a)
precipitation.
b)
evaporation.
c)
condensation.
d)
transpiration.
15. During the process of blow drying ones' hair, heat energy from the blow dryer is applied to the hair, which effectively removes the liquid water. This is an example of:
a)
evaporation.
b)
sublimation.
c)
transpiration.
d)
Condensation.
16. In southern Florida, the risk of a winter frost has increased somewhat in recent years. This can be explained by the:
a)
channelization of a river, which led to increased flooding.
b)
draining of wetlands that moderated temperatures.
c)
development that has enhanced global climate change.
d)
building of a hydroelectric dam that increased emissions.
17. Due to its effects on water quality when it enters the water supply, ____________ is responsible for diseases such as hepatitis, polio and spinal meningitis.
a)
sewage
b)
greywater
c)
agriculture
d)
Mining
18. The saline soils of the Great Salt Lake in Utah and the Dead Sea in Israel formed as a result
of the hydrological process known as:
a)
transpiration.
b)
sublimation.
c)
condensation.
d)
Evaporation.
19. You hear in the news that Des Moines, Iowa, is underwater due to a 500-year flood. From your knowledge of floods, you know that a flood of this size:
a)
has not occurred in the last 500 years.
b)
could occur again next year.
c)
will not occur again in your lifetime.
d)
has a one in five chance of occurring in any given year.
20. You buy a cabin on the floodplain of a small river. When you take out a National Flood Insurance policy for your property, FEMA informs you that the last flood to damage your cabin occurred in 1990. That flooding event was a 50-year flood. You know that this type of flood:
a)
occurs, on average, once every 50 years so it may or may not occur again by 2040.
b)
will occur less often than a 100-year flood and more often than a 20-year flood.
c)
is likely to happen again in 2040, so you make plans to sell your property before then.
d)
has a 4% chance of occurring in any given year.
21. In terms of the geology of the Ogallala Aquifer, the sediments that allow the precipitation that falls in that region to enter the soil, travel down, and recharge the aquifer can best be described as:
a)
permeable
b)
porous
c)
fertile
d)
filtrable
22. Which of the following statements about the distribution of water on the earth is FALSE?
[Note: Be sure to read each statement carefully.]
a)
Most of the world's water is found in the oceans.
b)
Most of the world's liquid, fresh water is stored in the ground.
c)
Most of the world's liquid, fresh surface water is found in wetlands.
d)
Most of the world's fresh water is found in ice sheets and glaciers.
23. Each of the following is a visible effect of the ways water moves in the environment, except:
a)
excessive sweat on your skin due to outdoor activity
b)
cumulonimbus clouds in the sky when a storm is approaching
c)
the water vapor content of the atmosphere
d)
drops of condensation running down your drinking glass
24. The Red Cedar River flows into the Grand River, which them empties into Lake Michigan. In
recent years the water level in Lake Michigan has been dropping. Does this affect the Red Cedar River? Why or why not?
a)
No. It will only affect rivers flowing out of Lake Michigan.
b)
Yes. A change in base level affects all rivers in the watershed.
c)
Yes. Less water will be available for the entire region.
d)
No. It will only affect the Grand River.
25. Last year, a plot of land near a stream was cleared and leveled by a developer, who in the coming years intends to turn the plot into a subdivision full of waterfront homes. Subsequently, the lack of shade near the river and increased erosion of soil into the water have negatively affected the river and its aquatic life. Based on what you learned in your lesson, you know that the river and its aquatic life have been most specifically affected by:
a)
thermal pollution.
b)
urban contaminant runoff.
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c)
toxic, organic pollution.
d)
deforestation.
26. Officials from the Michigan Department of Environmental Quality officials test the water in the Red Cedar River, near East Lansing, and find moderate amounts of non-point source pollution, mainly nitrogen, in the water. What is the most likely
source of these pollutants?
a)
any industrial discharge pipe from a local automobile manufacturing plant
b)
contaminated surface runoff from local farms and residences using fertilizer
c)
material that has seeped from industrial waste tanks buried underground
27. Farmer Pete recently purchased a farmstead on the floodplain of the lower basin of the Mississippi River. He is aware of the flood risk and is willing to assume that risk. Flooding aside,
did Farmer Pete make a good choice? Why or why not?
a)
No. Water contamination, floating debris, and sediments can damage crops.
b)
No. Floodplains tend to be waterlogged and mechanized farming is difficult.
c)
Yes. Floodplains are generally not affected by floodwaters.
d)
Yes. Floodplains are relatively flat and have rich fertile sediments.
28. Water droplets forming on your glass of iced tea on a warm day is an example of:
a)
sublimation
b)
precipitation
c)
evaporation
d)
Condensation
29. The largest portion of the earth's fresh, liquid surface water is found in:
a)
the ground.
b)
glaciers and ice caps.
c)
lakes.
d)
the oceans.
30. Which of the following statements about the relationship between agriculture and floodplains
is CORRECT?
a)
floodwater provides crops with essential nutrients like nitrogen
b)
flooding is never a good thing for agriculture
c)
flooding can devastate crops growing near a river
d)
flooding washes away fertile sediment, leaving barren floodplains
31. Water evaporates over the surface of a lake and enters the air. The air rises and cools to the
point that the water vapor condenses into liquid water. Assuming particulates are present in the air:
a)
heat will be absorbed.
b)
it will begin to rain.
c)
clouds will form.
d)
fog will form.
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32. If farmer John has been pumping groundwater from a well for some time, a cone of depression may develop around his well. The area of influence around farmer John's well typically refers to:
a)
the entire areal extent of the aquifer that farmer John's well taps into.
b)
the streams that are losing water because of farmer John's well.
c)
the other wells in the area that overlap the farmer's John's well.
d)
the area around farmer John's well where the water table is lowered.
32. Farmer John has had a well on his farm for many years. Farmer Fred moves in next door and digs a well within 500 meters of Farmer John's well. Five years later, both farmers are having trouble retrieving water from their wells. What is the most likely explanation for this?
a)
The groundwater in that area has been depleted.
b)
The close proximity of the two wells has created well interference.
c)
Farmer Ted's well has created a situation of induced recharge.
d)
Farmer Bob's well is surrounded by a cone of depression.
33. A Metropolitan area sits atop a large aquifer from which most of the city's water supply is pumped. Unfortunately, the city is pumping water from the aquifer at a rate faster than it can recharge. The city is also draining wetlands to make room for residential development. Given the activities that are taking place there, a major issue that the city may face in the future is:
a)
increased water-borne illnesses.
b)
flooding.
c)
increased soil salinity.
d)
Subsidence.
34. The Saint Clair Power Plant is a coal and oil fired power plant located on the west bank of the St. Clair River in Michigan. It releases significant emissions of sulfur dioxide and nitrogen oxides. Recently, areas downwind of the power plant have observed damaged trees and degraded soil. Given this information, you conclude that this is most likely the result of:
a)
acid rain.
b)
eutrophication.
c)
thermal pollution.
d)
Greywater.
35. When a dam is constructed, you can reasonably expect it to do all of the following EXCEPT:
a)
prevent or control flooding in areas downstream.
b)
create and manage the water supply in an area.
c)
generate hydroelectric power.
d)
provide fertile sediment to the surrounding land.
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36. Which of the following statements about the relationship between agriculture and floodplains
is FALSE?
a)
flooding deposits fertile, fine-textured sediment enriching floodplains
b)
in areas prone to flooding, agriculture is rarely found
c)
floodwater may be contaminated and can devastate fields
d)
the flat land of a floodplain can make it ideal for farming and other development
37 True or false? A cone of depression is a phenomenon whereby pumping water from the ground creates a vacuum around a well. The well will run dry, but the water table in the surrounding area as well as local surface water levels will remain stable.
a)
True
b)
False
38. According to your lesson, much of the water in the Ogallala Aquifer was deposited during the:
a)
cretaceous period.
b)
past century.
c)
last ice age.
d)
last fifty years.
39. Which of the following technologies has most dramatically shaped the contemporary landscape of the United States' Great Plains region?
a)
central-pivot sprinkler
b)
windmill
c)
hydroelectric dam
d)
the automobile
40. A large dam is under construction on a river that is important to farmers for agricultural production. More specifically, the river often floods its banks, rejuvenating the nearby fields. In this case, the farmers' major concern with the project is most likely the dam's impact on:
a)
irrigation pumps and wells.
b)
electric power production.
c)
sediment loads and distribution.
d)
transportation and navigation.
41. There are two towns, Town A and Town B. Town A has an industrial economic base, while Town B has an economy based on commercial agriculture. Based on the information presented in your lesson, which of the following is most likely to be true?
a)
Town A contributes more to water pollution.
b)
Town A uses more water annually than Town B.
c)
Town B contributes more to water pollution.
d)
Town B does not have issues related to water use.
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42. Which of the following best describes the primary reason that the Nile Basin initiative was formed?
a)
To regulate corrupt governments that were using the river's water for short-sighted, monetary gain.
b)
To restore ownership and force countries outside of the river's basin to relinquish their rights to the river's water.
c)
To promote equitable development and give upper basin countries greater control
over the river's water.
d)
To restore and enhance water quality in the river and protect it from further degradation.
43. During a long period of little to no rain, Michigan Department of Environmental Quality officials test the water in the Red Cedar River, and find moderate amounts of non-point source pollution, mainly nitrogen, in the water. They also note that that extent of the river tested is located in a residential area. What is the most likely source of these pollutants.
a)
fertilizer that was directly dumped into the river
b)
excessive residential fertilizer use, which contaminated the river's baseflow (groundwater)
c)
excessive surface runoff, which carried fertilizer from the residential area to the river
44. As you have read, water resource access is a highly contentious issue around the world. Based on your reading of the case studies, which of the following statements is CORRECT?
a)
In the western United States, states in the upper basin of the Colorado River are those that are most unhappy with how the river is managed.
b)
In Africa, countries in the lower basin of the Nile River have been more opposed to the movement for equitable management of the river's water initiated by upper basin states.
c)
In Texas, agriculture is failing because most groundwater is being diverted to cities to support growing urban populations.
45. Groundwater recharge and storage are most dependent on:
a)
topography.
b)
precipitation.
c)
base flow.
d)
soil texture.
46. Humidity is most directly the result of:
a)
evapotranspiration.
b)
condensation.
c)
infiltration.
d)
Precipitation.
47. The land surrounding a river can be enriched by:
a)
deposits of mineral rich, quartz sand.
b)
flood waters that cleanse the soil.
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c)
deposits of fine textured sediments.
d)
the erosion of less fertile topsoil.
48. Many countries of Southwest Asia and North Africa, such as Jordan, Saudi Arabia, and Egypt, have an arid climate regime and limited supplies of fresh water. In these same countries, much of the fresh water consumed is for:
a)
agriculture.
b)
industry.
c)
residential water use.
d)
drinking water.
49. You read in the newspaper that farmers in Garden City, Kansas, are going to stop pumping from the High Plains Aquifer because it is economically depleted. In a general sense, this means that:
a)
the local government has taken control of groundwater rights in that area.
b)
it costs more to pump from it than what can be made from farming.
c)
it has been a dry year and the aquifer did not recharge.
d)
the water has been depleted to a point where it cannot be reached.
50. True or false? Texas courts have sided with common law ruling that if there is water in the ground, a property owner is allowed to pump as much water as needed to support irrigated agriculture.
a)
True
b)
False
51. The heat released during ____________ provides energy for hurricane development.
a)
precipitation
b)
evaporation
c)
sublimation
d)
Condensation
52. The area that you live in has been targeted as the site of a new dam project. Which of the following is most likely to decrease in your area following the opening of the dam?
a)
flooding
b)
electricity supply
c)
water supply and management
d)
seismicity and landslides
53. Global climate change is expected to lead to an increase in the mean sea level on Earth. This will likely have a profound effect on the city of New Orleans because:
a)
agriculture on the delta helps sustain the economy.
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b)
levees and canals are not good at controlling floods.
c)
it is located in part on a sediment deprived, barrier island.
d)
it is at or below sea level and experiencing subsidence.
Review: Biosphere
1.
Which of the following best describes the general geographic distribution of forest biomes?
a)
in warm sub-tropical regions, and in continental interiors of the mid- and high- latitudes
b)
in the tropics, mid-latitudes, and high latitudes where precipitation is sufficient
c)
along eastern and western continental shores, and in areas of high altitude
d)
in any location with either high precipitation or high temperatures
2. Evergreen trees retain their dark, green leaves year-round. This feature is most an adaptation
to a _______________ climate.
a)
dry
b)
snowy
c)
cold
d)
Hot
3. Smaller leaves are found on both needleleaf trees in Boreal forests and emergent species in tropical rainforests. This shared characteristic is an adaptation that protects these trees from:
a)
direct sunlight.
b)
abundant precipitation.
c)
an arid climate.
d)
moisture loss.
4. Worldwide, trees are the dominant vegetative form where:
a)
soils are fertile.
b)
there is ample heat.
c)
precipitation is sufficient.
d)
winters are mild.
5. Forest communities that have low biodiversity are less resilient when threatened by adverse conditions. Which of the following provides the best example of this?
a)
The closing of a pulp and paper mill in coastal South Carolina due to declining economic
conditions.
b)
Slash and burn agricultural plots, which are abandoned after several plantings when soils become unproductive.
c)
Decreased productivity of trees in eucalyptus plantations due to an infestation of eucalyptus gall wasps.
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d)
The destruction of orangutan and Sumatran tiger habitat due to the consumption of products made with palm oil.
6. In 1993, David Zirnhelt, the former Canadian Minister of Forests, was quoted in the Vancouver Sun as saying: "It's obvious we have to find ways to get more jobs from every tree. Diversification and value-added manufacturing are our best hope for the future." This quote from
Minister Zirnhelt is most representative of which perspective of trees?
a)
The Puritan Tree
b)
The Romantic Tree
c)
The Political Tree
d)
The Colonial Tree
7. Which of the following resources commonly consumed by the American population has likely contributed the most to tropical deforestation?
a)
beef
b)
water
c)
oil
d)
Copper
8. According to the Foundation for Deep Ecology, the world's current problems stem from "the assumption of human superiority to other life forms, as if we were granted royalty status over Nature; the idea that Nature is mainly here to serve human will and purpose." They believe that this is false and, by virtue of existence, all life forms including trees have _______________ value.
a)
cultural
b)
landscape
c)
economic
d)
intrinsic
9. In March of 2011, United States' General David Petraeus joined with key Afghan leaders to kick-off the celebration of Nowrūz with a campaign to plant 75,000 trees in the country. Most of these trees were paid for by a fund to provide humanitarian and development aid to Afghanistan's rebuilding efforts, and were described as being symbolic of strengthening relations between the United States and Afghanistan. These trees embody which perspective of
trees?
a)
The Puritan Tree
b)
The Colonial Tree
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c)
The Romantic Tree
d)
The Political Tree
10. In your lesson you read a case study on pine plantations in the United States south. Which of the following is TRUE about these plantations?
a)
They are an example of how deforestation can increase biodiversity and forest stability in the long term.
b)
They are an example of how silviculture can combat global deforestation and increase lost carbon stores.
c)
They are an example of how trees can be a renewable resource, but still lack biodiversity and ecosystem health.
d)
They are an example of how the economy of the south has flourished, while providing maximum benefit to the environment.
11. While not traditionally thought of a as a paper product, demand for which of the following consumer goods has created a profitable market for American pulp and paper manufacturers?
a)
bottled water
b)
landscaping mulch
c)
fiber enriched foods
d)
disposable diapers
12. Forests both absorb and release carbon dioxide, but a growing forest absorbs more carbon dioxide than it releases.
a)
True
b)
False
14. When you drive north along the Atlantic seaboard in autumn to witness the beautiful colors of the leaves, you are looking at what type of trees?
a)
evergreen
b)
needleleaf
c)
deciduous
d)
Coniferous
15. In the early eighteenth century, European sailors arrived in New Zealand. They described the trees of the dense lush forests as some of the finest timber around and used it at first for ship-building, and later for the export of timber and other wood products. These trees reflect which of the following perspectives as described by Pollan?
a)
the Romantic Tree
b)
the Puritan Tree
c)
the Colonial Tree
d)
the Political Tree
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16. In 2000, several Douglas fir trees, hundreds of years old, were chopped down in Cathedral Grove of British Columbia because trees in this area are vulnerable to wind throw during storms.
This was described by protesters as a brutal massacre in which trees were removed without care and with a complete disregard for the consequences. Which of the following tree perspectives, as described by Pollan, is most likely held by the protesters?
a)
the Puritan Tree
b)
the Colonial Tree
c)
the Political Tree
d)
the Romantic Tree
17. As presented in your lesson, the case of managed pine plantations in the United States most lends support to which of the following conclusions?
a)
Silviculture benefits the environment and the economy.
b)
The United States can combat tropical deforestation at home.
c)
Valuable farmland is being lost worldwide to non-food crops.
d)
Silviculture cannot make up for the loss of frontier forests.
18. Agriculture expansion, including crops and livestock ranching, is taking place rapidly in the tropics. How does logging contribute to the expansion of agriculture?
a)
logging is considered a gateway activity for agriculture
b)
logging leaves behind square plots of land that can be surveyed and sold
c)
logging has no effect on the expansion of agriculture in the tropics
d)
logging creates fertile soils ideal for agriculture
19. In a cold climate region, an area with high winds and low precipitation for at least part of the year would most likely have trees with which leaf type?
a)
deciduous
b)
coniferous
c)
broadleaf
d)
Needleleaf
20. True or false? According to the definition in your lesson, if new forest growth balances or exceeds forest loss deforestation has not occurred; rather, the forest is considered degraded.
a)
True
b)
False
21. Leaves changing color in autumn is common in temperate forests and is associated with the
____________ characteristic of this biome.
a)
infertile soils
b)
insufficient precipitation
c)
high latitudes
d)
seasonal variation
22 The tree circled in blue on the image above, characteristic of tropical rainforests, is:
a)
an umbrella.
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b)
a buttress.
c)
a canopy.
d)
an emergent.
23. Which of the following statements about biomes is correct?
a)
biomes vary widely from country to country
b)
biomes are most recognizable at regional and global scales
c)
biomes are local phenomena that vary widely over small distances
d)
worldwide there are an infinite number of biomes
24. In what forest type are deciduous trees, such as maple and elm, are found?
a)
Midlatitude forest
b)
Tropical rainforest
c)
Boreal forest
25. All of the following describe a role of trees in the carbon cycle, EXCEPT:
a)
trees convert carbon dioxide into energy during photosynthesis
b)
decomposing plant matter releases carbon dioxide
c)
trees release carbon dioxide when they are burned
d)
trees absorb carbon dioxide during respiration
26. True or false? Silviculture was presented in your lesson as a good solution to increase forest
stability and combat the global deforestation problem.
a)
True
b)
False
27. In terms of frontier forests, those that have been the most degraded and disturbed throughout history are found in the world's:
a)
tropics.
b)
temperate regions.
c)
high latitudes.
d)
subtropics.
28. Needleleaf trees have narrow, waxy leaves . This feature is an adaptation to all of the following conditions, EXCEPT:
a)
wind.
b)
heat.
c)
drought.
d)
Snow.
29. Vast eucalyptus plantations are commonly threatened by a pest known as the eucalyptus gall wasp, which can invade and devastate an entire population of eucalyptus trees. With respect to global forest biomes, this provides an example of how:
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a)
forest communities that have high resilience may have low stability when threatened by adverse conditions.
b)
even if a forest community has high biodiversity, it may have low resilience when threatened by adverse conditions.
c)
forest communities that are fragmented are less resilient when threatened by adverse conditions.
d)
forest communities that have low biodiversity are less resilient when threatened by adverse conditions.
20. Evergreen trees retain their dark, green leaves year-round. This feature is most an adaptation to a _______________ climate.
a)
cold
b)
snowy
c)
hot
d)
Dry
Review: Lithosphere
1.
Which of the following is a product of decomposing organisms?
a)
soil mineral matter
b)
soil water
c)
soil organic matter
d)
soil air
2. Name that soil: Given the moisture regime and vegetation associated with this soil, it can be found in both northern states, like Michigan, and southern states, like Florida.
a)
Mollisols
b)
Spodosols
c)
Andisols
d)
Oxisols
3. Though they are generally related to agriculture, Best Management Practices employed in the
United States also help protect the country s water resources by:
a)
preventing erosion and reducing the amount of sediment and pesticide runoff from entering water bodies.
b)
reducing the amount of water used during agricultural practices and encouraging central pivot irrigation.
c)
subsidizing organic agricultural practices to eliminate the use of fertilizers and pesticides.
d)
increasing the biodiversity of aquatic habitats and reducing the number of invasive species.
4. Which of the following does NOT describe a component of soil?
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a)
air from respiring fauna
b)
infiltrating rain water
c)
decomposing leaves
d)
a moderately-sloping hillside
5. Soil orders can best be described as:
a)
factors of soil development.
b)
a vertical slice of the Earth.
c)
the most common soil profiles.
d)
recognizable layers of soil.
6. Which of the following locations will have the most developed soil?
a)
a sloped location in a cold, dry climate
b)
a flat location in a warm, moist climate
c)
a sloped location in a warm, moist climate
d)
a flat location in a cold, dry climate
7. A vertical column of soil, like that seen when a deep hole is dug in the ground, may have recognizable layers known as:
a)
horizons.
b)
profiles.
c)
orders.
d)
Regimes.
8. Parts of the western Great Plains of the United States have an arid to semi-arid climate. Vegetation consists of short grasses or shrubs. The soils can be used for agriculture, but are not
as fertile as the prairie soils just to the east.
Based on this description, what soils would you expect to find there?
a)
Aridisols
b)
Entisols
c)
Alfisols
d)
Mollisols
9. True or false? You see a farm where the farmer is plowing the soil to remove the complete remains of last year's wheat crop, after the wheat has been harvested, to make for a good seed bed for next season's crop. That farmer is following recommended Best Management Practices for soil conservation.
a)
True
b)
False
10. While driving down the road, you look off to the side and see an exposed bluff of soil. With this view you can observe several distinct layers called soil:
a)
profiles.
b)
regoliths.
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c)
horizons.
d)
Orders.
11. Farmer Pat farms about 500 acres of moderately sloping land. To make the most of her modest farm, she plants all 500 acres each year, alternating between soybeans and corn. Every
year following her harvest, she loses about one inch of topsoil to wind and water erosion. In this case, is there a better way that Farmer Pat could manage her resources?
a)
Yes, she could employ crop nutrient management to protect the most fertile topsoil.
b)
No, losing one inch of topsoil reveals the more fertile soil below the surface.
c)
Yes, she could employ conservation tillage to stabilize the soil and reduce runoff.
d)
No, alternating crops is the best way to maintain productive soils year after year.
12. The Amazon River Basin's dense, tropical rainforests have a strong influence on climate in the region. The removal of vegetation, through deforestation, combined with global climate change has resulted in land degradation, in combination with warming and drying climate trends. This vulnerable area is at risk for what specific process?
a)
erosion
b)
salinization
c)
eluviation
d)
desertification
13. Soil has five essential functions. All of the following provide good examples of those functions, EXCEPT:
a)
a field of soybeans
b)
a sand dune
c)
a clay brick
d)
a mole burrow 14. The United States Heartland, including states such as Illinois and Iowa, has some of the most fertile farmland in the world and grows most of the country's corn and wheat. Which soil order would you most expect to find in the Heartland?
a)
Spodosols
b)
Mollisols
c)
Vertisols
d)
Andisols
15. Soil A and Soil B formed in-situ in exactly the same bedrock. They have been influenced by exactly the same climate and organisms (flora and fauna). They are both located in the same location (a floodplain) on the landscape. Soil A, however, is far better developed and thicker than Soil B.
Why?
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a)
Soil A is older than Soil B.
b)
Soil A is closer to the water table than Soil B.
c)
Soil B is older than Soil A.
d)
Soil A has been fertilized more than Soil B.
16. When traveling from north to south in Michigan, the climate warms and the dominant forest species change from coniferous to deciduous. These changes result in two different soil types. In the southern part of the state, the dominant soil order is most likely:
a)
Alfisols.
b)
Mollisols
c)
Spodosols.
d)
Oxisols.
17. A group of American farmers has agreed to line their fields with trees to prevent the soil from
eroding and plant red clover in the off season to fix soil nitrogen stores. These farmers are following a set of conservation methods known as ______________________ developed by the
government for the preservation of soil.
a)
No Net Loss Practices
b)
Sustainable Farming Initiatives c)
Gateway Activities
d)
Best Management Practices
18. Dead organisms contribute most directly to soil:
a)
mineral matter.
b)
organic matter.
c)
air.
d)
Water.
19. The United States Heartland, including states such as Illinois and Iowa, has some of the most fertile farmland in the world and grows most of the country's corn and wheat. Which soil order would you most expect to find in the Heartland?
a)
Mollisols
b)
Vertisols
c)
Andisols
d)
Spodosols
20. The Upper Peninsula of Michigan has a cool, moist climate and many pine forests. Which soil order would you expect to find in this location?
a)
Spodosols
b)
Mollisols
c)
Oxisols
d)
Gelisols
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21. Farmer Ted is concerned about his soil resources. He applies large amounts of fertilizer to his field once each spring, just before his crops are planted. If any of his plants look as though they are not thriving, he again applies large amounts of fertilizer to his field, and yet his crop yields do not improve.
In this case, is there a better way that Farmer Ted could manage his resources?
a)
Yes, he could employ crop nutrient management to more efficiently manage his nutrient inputs.
b)
Yes, he could plant conservation buffers to increase soil fertility and reduce fertilizer runoff.
c)
Yes, he could consider applying pesticides on his field in addition to fertilizers.
d)
No, increased fertilizer application is the best way to improve soil fertility if crops are not thriving.
22. Which of the following locations will have the least developed soil?
a)
a sloped location in a cold, dry climate
b)
a flat location in a warm, moist climate
c)
a flat location in a cold, dry climate
d)
a sloped location in a warm, moist climate
23. While driving down the road, you look off to the side and see an exposed bluff of soil. With this view you can observe the whole of several distinct layers of the soil and its properties. You are looking at:
a)
a soil function.
b)
a soil parent material.
c)
a soil profile.
d)
a soil horizon.
24. On the African continent, there is a transition area between the warm, humid equatorial region and the hot, dry subtropical region to the north. When land is deforested, misused, and degraded in this fragile area, it is at particular risk to what specific process?
a)
erosion
b)
salinization
c)
desertification
d)
eluviation
25. Which of the following is NOT a soil forming factor?
a)
sediment that the soil formed in
b)
movement of minerals through the profile
c)
dominant vegetation in the area
d)
location of the soil on the landscape
26. Consider the global distribution of soil orders. Which soil orders would you most expect to find in Fairbanks, Alaska?
a)
Gelisols and Inceptisols
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b)
Entisols and Inceptisols
c)
Spodosols and Vertisols
d)
Mollisols and Entisols
27. Which of the following does NOT describe a component of soil?
a)
air from respiring fauna
b)
a moderately-sloping hillside
c)
infiltrating rain water
d)
decomposing leaves
28. The Amazon River Basin's dense, tropical rainforests have a strong influence on climate in the region. The removal of vegetation, through deforestation, combined with global climate change has resulted in land degradation, in combination with warming and drying climate trends. This vulnerable area is at risk for what specific process?
a)
desertification
b)
salinization
c)
erosion
d)
Eluviation
29. True or false? Although some Superfund clean-up sites remain on the National Priorities List
for remediation, since the passing of the Comprehensive Environmental Response, Compensation and Liability Act in 1980, there have been no new cases of soil contamination in the United States.
a)
True
b)
False
30. Soil A and Soil B formed in-situ in exactly the same type of bedrock. They have been influenced by exactly the same type of climate regime and organisms and are both located in the same type of location (a floodplain) on the landscape. However, Soil A is far better developed and thicker than Soil B. Why?
a)
Soil A is closer to the water table than Soil B.
b)
Soil A has been fertilized more than Soil B.
c)
Soil A is older than Soil B.
d)
Soil A has been disturbed more than Soil B.
31. In the Lesson on the Lithosphere, you were introduced to a case study in which birth defects, genetic mutations, kidney and liver problems, and cancers were attributed to chemical exposure from:
a)
pesticides applied to farm fields around St. Louis, Missouri.
b)
the air around Hinkley, California.
c)
water in the Cuyahoga watershed, near Cleveland, Ohio.
d)
the soil of Love Canal, New York.
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32. Farmer Sally needs to make some money, so once her corn crop is harvested, any above-
ground plant material that remains is cut, shredded, and stored as silage for the neighbor's dairy
cows. This cycle continues year after year. In this case, is there a better way that Farmer Sally could manage her resources?
a)
Yes, she could plant conservation buffers and crop nutrient management to increase soil
fertility.
b)
No, she can continue with this farming strategy as long as needed to turn profit without degrading the soil.
c)
Yes, she could employ conservation tillage to reduce erosion and increase soil nutrients.
d)
No, these practices are acceptable and based on cutting-edge soil-conservation research.
33. True or false? Soil supports the anthropogenic ecosystem.
a)
True
b)
False
34. Which of the following types of soils would you expect to find plenty of in the United States heartland, where tall grass, the native vegetation, has been replaced by farm fields?
a)
alfisols
b)
spodosols
c)
andisols
d)
mollisols
35. In the world's tropical regions, rainforest vegetation quickly uses up the nutrients in the generally low-fertility soil type known as:
a)
Ultisols.
b)
Entisols.
c)
Aridisols.
d)
Oxisols.
36. Which of the following provides a good example of bioturbation?
a)
a deceased animal decomposing
b)
cutting the grass on your lawn
c)
a mole digging tunnels underground
d)
a leaf falling to the forest floor
37. True or false? Land in climatically marginal areas is at greater risk of desertification when trees and other vegetation are removed at a faster rate than they can be replaced.
a)
True
b)
False
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38. While driving down the road, you look off to the side and see an exposed bluff of soil. With this view you can observe several distinct layers called soil:
a)
regoliths.
b)
profiles.
c)
horizons.
d)
orders.
39. Nematodes are microscopic worms found in soil that serve to carry and distribute beneficial bacteria throughout the soil. This statement is an example of:
a)
decomposition.
b)
transformation
.
c)
aeration.
d)
Bioturbation.
40. In a compost pile, aerobic bacteria gain energy by oxidizing organic compounds, especially carbon, from such things as leaves and vegetable waste. This statement describes how soil:
a)
recycles raw-materials.
b)
is a medium for plant growth.
c)
controls the fate of water in the hydrologic cycle.
d)
supports the anthropogenic ecosystem.
Review Quiz: Agriculture and Our Food
1.
Which of the following is one of the primary reasons why our food travels so far?
a)
Foods are perishable and need to be eaten soon after harvest
b)
People today are well-traveled and prefer foods from exotic locales
c)
Fossil fuels are cheap and make it more economical to transport food
d)
Commercial agriculture has led to more specialized farming
2. You and your family live on a large farm in Gaylord, Michigan, where you grow crops and raise cattle. The farm work relies heavily on machinery, pesticides and fertilizers and, while you eat some of the food produced, you sell most of it to larger companies. You are practicing:
a)
extensive agriculture.
b)
commercial agriculture.
c)
subsistence agriculture.
d)
cooperative farming.
3. Which of the following descriptions of the First Agricultural Revolution is TRUE?
a)
The First Agricultural Revolution reduced the amount of labor needed through mechanized farming practices.
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b)
After the First Agricultural Revolution, people no longer needed to rely on domesticated animals.
c)
Because of the First Agricultural Revolution, larger amounts of food could be produced in one location.
d)
The First Agricultural Revolution is still taking place in some locations around the world.
4. Historically, families were larger and children contributed to growing food for the family. This is a characteristic most associated with:
a)
commercial farming.
b)
the American Great Plains.
c)
countries in Africa and Asia.
d)
subsistence farming.
5. Which of the following statements about commercial agriculture is FALSE?
a)
farm products are sold indirectly, not from farm to consumer
b)
outside of the western world, few people rely on this type of farming for their food
c)
farming methods rely on a significant investment in machinery, chemicals, and seeds
d)
profits are greater with larger farm sizes and more acres under cultivation
6. Which of the following describes the shift that has taken place in the production of beef?
a)
grain is now transported to the cattle for finishing
b)
ranches are now growing corn and soybeans to finish cattle
c)
cattle are now transported to the source of grain for finishing
d)
cattle are now bred, raised, and finished in the Midwest
7. True or false? Eating a sandwich that includes bread, tomatoes, lettuce, meat, and cheese, is
one way humans interact with the natural environment.
a)
True
b)
False
8. In the Natural Resources: Agriculture and Food Lesson you watched Dr. Kevin Walker's video, "Food and You," in which he noted that, worldwide, the number of overweight people is now on par with the number of malnourished people. Reflecting on the themes of this course, what does this fact help illustrate?
a)
the success of the Green Revolution
b)
disparity in the access to food
c)
subsistence farming is healthy and sustainable.
d)
widespread adoption of a Western diet
9. In the production of food, the largest portion of energy is consumed by:
a)
packaging and processing.
b)
the use chemical fertilizers.
c)
diesel trucks and equipment.
d)
plant growth and harvesting.
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10. Of the following advancements in agriculture, which was directly made possible with Green Revolution technologies?
a)
marginal areas can produce enough food for export
b)
mechanized farming reduces labor inputs
c)
seasonal produce is available year round
d)
livestock is housed and fattened in CAFOs
11. Corn and soybeans have become two of the most common crops grown by farmers in the United States and also increasingly present in the foods we eat. The root cause of this is the:
a)
western diet and consumer preferences.
b)
versatility of these two crops.
c)
farm subsidy program.
d)
health benefits of these two crops.
12. Why is a geographic perspective on the availability of fresh produce and access to those foods important to the health of the population of an area?
[Select the best answer.]
a)
It may help identify areas that need public transportation.
b)
It may help us better understand the obesity problem.
c)
It may help attract large grocery store franchises.
d)
It can help us identify areas that drink too much soda.
13. An area of forest in the Peruvian Amazon was cleared for logging. It was then used as a small-holder farm, and when soils were depleted, forest once again took over the land. This area would most appropriately be considered:
a)
degraded.
b)
degenerated.
c)
deforested.
d)
Deserted.
14. Which of the following does NOT characterize industrialized agriculture?
a)
increase in greenhouse gas emissions
b)
increase in processed foods and drinks
c)
decrease in the size of farms
d)
decrease in the number of farm workers
15. Which of the following describes the direct impact of the Industrial Revolution on farming practices in more developed countries?
a)
a change in the demographics of farmers
b)
an increase in the use of mechanized equipment
c)
a re-allocation of capital towards industry, away from farming
d)
a change in food processing and diet preferences
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16. Which of the following is the best example of commercial agriculture?
a)
going trout fishing in a nearby river or lake
b)
a pick-your-own orchard where visitors can go and pick apples in the fall
c)
a community garden where local citizens can tend their own plots and grow food
d)
raising honeybees in your backyard for honey
17. Although globally deforestation is linked to all of the following consumer behaviors, considering the reasons large tracts of land are cleared in the world's tropical regions, which of the following is likely to contribute the least to tropical deforestation?
a)
buying processed foods such as sandwich cookies
b)
buying the weekend newspaper
c)
eating a hamburger or steak
d)
buying health and beauty products
18. Based on what you learned about the agricultural industry in the United States in the Natural
Resources: Agriculture and Food Lesson, which of the following statements is FALSE?
a)
Large Concentrated Animal Feeding Operations have gradually shifted westward out of the Midwest.
b)
According to the most recent agricultural census, new farms tend to be smaller than average in both sales and acres.
c)
Prior to the most recent agricultural census, farms were growing in size and decreasing in number.
d)
The number of Americans eating food from large, commercial farms has decreased over the past decade.
19. If a farmer wanted to eliminate the largest energy consumer from the process of producing food (from farm to store), he would:
a)
ensure his crop arrives on shelves unpackaged.
b)
not use diesel machinery to transport his crop.
c)
harvest his crop by hand when it matures.
d)
apply natural fertilizer to his crop, by hand.
20. The city of Peachville has one supermarket that has a robust fresh and frozen produce section and meat counter. This supermarket is accessible by 90 percent of the population, by car and public transit. The other 10 percent live with two miles of a farmer's market the operates
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6 months out of the year and a convenience store, which offers some meal options as well. These statements describe the ______________ of Peachville.
a)
food accessibility plan.
b)
food region.
c)
food environment.
d)
food desert.
21. The characteristics of industrialized agricultural include all of the following, EXCEPT:
a)
An overall improvement in the diet, nutrition, and caloric intake of people worldwide.
b)
The introduction of fertilizers, agrochemicals, and biotechnology to increase yields.
c)
Changes in rural labor activities, such as machines replacing human labor.
d)
The development of industrial substitutes for more traditional agricultural products.
22. Today, the production of 'finished' hogs and beef cattle is done in Concentrated Animal Feedlot Operations. Which of the following statements about this process is false?
a)
Beef feedlot activities in the Midwest have largely moved westward out of the region.
b)
North Carolina and Iowa are presently hotbeds for CAFOs activity in the hog industry.
c)
CAFOs developed because of the inefficiencies of the traditional, small farm production methods.
d)
The concentration of hog and beef cattle in a central location has improved air and water pollution.
23. The result of farm subsidy programs, like that of the United States, is:
a)
inflated incomes for most farmers.
b)
a surplus of many crops, which are then wasted.
c)
artificially low prices for the subsidized crops.
d)
increased consumption of fruits and vegetables.
24. Norman Borlaug's research that started the Green Revolution began as a response to:
a)
poor growth of wheat crops in marginal environments.
b)
high population growth in Southeast Asia and Africa.
c)
the potential for increased yields in the United States.
d)
a change in the dietary preferences of North America.
25. In the video Food and You, Dr. Kevin Walker said that governments need to develop more specialized agendas in order to effect change in our food system and the health problems related to a Western diet.
a)
True
b)
False
26. You are a farmer that mostly grows food for your family, and you use little machinery. You are practicing what type of agriculture?
a)
subsistence
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b)
commercial
c)
primitive
d)
Organic
27. True or false? The Agricultural Revolution began in the United States in the mid- to late-
1800s with farm mechanization.
a)
True
b)
False
28. In America's heartland, farmers in states like Nebraska are currently enjoying high prices for
grains due to all of the following EXCEPT:
a)
the mandate that gasoline in the United States contain ethanol.
b)
extreme weather in other parts of the world that grow grain.
c)
increased demand from Asian countries like China.
d)
decreased prices of inputs such as equipment and water.
29. Looking at the map shown above of Pedestrian Produce Access, which of the following areas in the Lansing/East Lansing region could be considered a food desert?
[Note: By design, you will need to use basic map reading skills to determine which circled area on the map corresponds to each description.]
a)
The northern portion of East Lansing, along Route-127
b)
East Grand River Avenue, in the northern Okemos area
c)
West Lansing, just east of Interstates-69/96
d)
Downtown Lansing, near the Interstate-496 corridor
30. An area of forest in the Peruvian Amazon was cleared for logging. It was then used as a small-holder farm, and when soils were depleted, forest once again took over the land. This area would most appropriately be considered:
a)
deserted.
b)
deforested.
c)
degenerated.
d)
Degraded.
31. Although globally deforestation is linked to all of the following consumer behaviors, considering the reasons large tracts of land are cleared in the world's tropical regions, which of the following is likely to contribute the least to tropical deforestation?
a)
buying the weekend newspaper
b)
buying processed foods such as sandwich cookies
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c)
buying health and beauty products
d)
eating a hamburger or steak
32. Corn and soybeans have become two of the most common crops grown by farmers in the United States and also increasingly present in the foods we eat. The root cause of this is the:
a)
farm subsidy program.
b)
health benefits of these two crops
c)
western diet and consumer preferences.
d)
versatility of these two crops.
33. Which of the following was a direct result of the Agricultural Revolution?
a)
spread of a western, meat-based diet to Europe and Asia
b)
increase in seasonal migration and livestock herding
c)
modern technologies that enabled all environments to grow food
d)
permanent settlement and the initial growth of cities
34. Which of the following statements about Concentrated Animal Feedlot Operations (CAFOs) is FALSE?
a)
They have led to an increase in the use of concentrated manure as fertilizer.
b)
They have reduced the need to ship animals long distances for finishing.
c)
They have led to an increase in air and water contamination around the operation.
d)
They have eliminated economic inefficiencies and reduced costs for owners.
35. Of the options below, which is most likely to reduce the food miles of a meal you prepare?
a)
using packaged foods
b)
using in-season produce
c)
using pasture-fed beef
d)
using organic produce
36. True or false? According to Daniel Hillel's book Out of the Earth, human abuse of the environment is a modern phenomenon that stems from the Green Revolution and industrialized agriculture.
a)
True
b)
False
37. True or false? Over the past decade, the number of farmer's markets operating in the United
States has decreased and this has led to an increase in food miles.
a)
True
b)
False
38. The Green Revolution has most directly resulted in:
a)
the end of catastrophic famine in developing nations.
b)
an increase in food exports from marginal environments.
c)
the development of industrial substitutes for agricultural products.
d)
a decrease in the use of synthetic chemicals and irrigation.
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39. Tilling or plowing agriculture fields can degrade surface water quality when:
a)
loose sediments carry chemical pesticides into streams.
b)
additional nutrients cause excess algae growth.
c)
nitrates are leached into groundwater beneath fields.
d)
bacteria growth in the soil reduces fertility.
40. You learned that the Green Revolution led to both positive and negative advances in agriculture. Which of the following is not a consequence of the Green Revolution?
a)
increase in water use for irrigation
b)
increase in pesticide use
c)
increase in synthetic fertilizers use
d)
elimination of world hunger and famine
41. Today, the production of 'finished' hogs and beef cattle is done in Concentrated Animal Feedlot Operations. Which of the following statements about this process is false?
a)
The concentration of hog and beef cattle in a central location has improved air and water pollution.
b)
CAFOs developed because of the inefficiencies of the traditional, small farm production methods.
c)
Beef feedlot activities in the Midwest have largely moved westward out of the region.
d)
North Carolina and Iowa are presently hotbeds for CAFOs activity in the hog industry.
41. The Green Revolution led to an increase in farming on marginal lands, in arid and semi-arid regions. If not managed properly, the land in these regions is susceptible to:
a)
desertification.
b)
hydrolization.
c)
marginalization.
d)
Deforestation.
42. True or false? The development of agriculture and the ability to domesticate animals and grow food in one place were phenomena that began in China and spread west across Asia. This
same revolution occurred much later in the Americas.
a)
True
b)
False
43. In the Natural Resources: Agriculture and Food Lesson, you were asked to watch several short video clips and a presentation by Dr. Kirk Goldsberry. Which of the following summarizes a common message included in Dr. Goldsberry's research as well as in a couple of the videos?
a)
Convenience foods are widely available and have resulted in health problems for some Americans.
b)
Worldwide, health is affected by consuming both too little food and too much food.
c)
Community gardens can improve health and well being in disadvantaged neighborhoods.
d)
Current agricultural practices are environmentally unsustainable and reform is needed.
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44. Which of the following crops is NOT one of the five main crops subsidized by the United States government?
a)
tomatoes
b)
Cotton
c)
Corn
d)
Rice
45. Which of the following best explains why the average farm size increased between 1900 and 2002?
a)
an increase in farm costs
b)
an increase in the amount of arable land
c)
an increase in average calories consumed by Americans
d)
an increase in the global demand for food
46. Which of the following is the best example of commercial agriculture?
a)
raising honeybees in your backyard for honey
b)
a community garden where local citizens can tend their own plots and grow food
c)
going trout fishing in a nearby river or lake
d)
a pick-your-own orchard where visitors can go and pick apples in the fall
47. The Green Revolution refers to:
a)
the adoption of seed varieties that yield more, even in marginal environments.
b)
the development of industrialized agriculture and economies capable of exporting food.
c)
an international uprising over the lack of access to food in developing nations.
d)
an environmental movement that began in the late 1960s.
48. Since the mid-twentieth century, the average size of American farms has increased significantly. This trend in agriculture is most a result of:
a)
an increase in the cost of farming inputs.
b)
tilling methods and conservation practices.
c)
central pivot irrigation and feed lots.
d)
the environment where the farm is located.
49. You want to help alleviate the deforestation that is occurring in Indonesia's tropical forests and save the habitat of the Sumatran Tiger. Based on the information presented in your lesson, a good way to help would be to:
a)
purchase only unpackaged, organic produce that is in-season.
b)
stop eating packaged cookies and drinking soda and coffee.
c)
buy health and beauty products made without palm oil derivatives.
d)
drink from a reusable water bottle and stop drinking bottled water.
50. Dr. Norman Bourlag was:
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a)
a population geographer who supported rapid population growth through improved agriculture.
b)
a scientist who bred high-yield plant varieties that are adapted to many growing conditions.
c)
a scientist who increased soil fertility and plant yields through the use of synthetic fertilizers.
d)
a social scientist who developed a three –pronged agricultural system to increase food exports.
51. True or false? Worldwide, most of the food people consume today comes from commercial farming.
a)
True
b)
False
52. The city of New York is saturated with food trucks and carts and, therefore, no new food trucks or carts can be licensed in the city, unless they are willing to locate in an under-privileged
neighborhood and offer a wide variety of fresh produce. This is an example of how New York is trying to improve the food ______________ of the city.
a)
miles
b)
pyramid
c)
map
d)
Environment
53. You live in a neighborhood a short distance from downtown Cleveland, Ohio. You often buy your groceries at corner stores and fast-food restaurants because they are your closest available food source. Based on this information, you are most likely living in a:
a)
low-income neighborhood.
b)
food desert.
c)
food environment.
d)
food valley.
54. Considering freshwater use, in the United States and globally, it is most reasonable to conclude that the two states that consume the largest amounts of freshwater annually:
a)
have a largely arid or desert climate.
b)
are in the region known as the Southeast.
c)
overlie the High Plains Aquifer.
d)
are heavily engaged in irrigated agriculture.
55. True or false? Buying red grapes in a Michigan grocery store in February exemplifies one of the main reasons that the distance food travels from the point of harvest to the point of consumption has increased.
a)
True
b)
False
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56. The breakfast cereal you ate this morning contains ingredients that originated from many different locations. The combined total of the distance these ingredients traveled to arrive at your table is considered the ________________ for that cereal.
a)
geographic specialization
b)
carbon footprint
c)
food miles
d)
food environment
57. Given North Carolina's booming hog industry, the state is likely to have problems associated
with:
a)
soil erosion.
b)
deforestation.
c)
excessive phosphorous.
d)
water contamination
Review Quiz: Energy
1.
The largest portion of renewable energy in the United States comes from:
a)
solar panels.
b)
hydroelectric projects.
c)
wood.
d)
wind turbines.
2. In the United States, areas with the highest wind energy potential are located:
a)
in the Great Plains.
b)
along the Gulf Coast.
c)
in the mountains, along ridges and valleys.
d)
along the Atlantic and Pacific seaboards.
3. According to your lesson, the ultimate cause of the disaster at Chernobyl was:
a)
ignorance of the risks.
b)
the threat of a nuclear war.
c)
a fundamental technical flaw in reactor design.
d)
weather and other environmental factors.
4. While much has improved when it comes to both small- and large- scale solar energy systems, according to your lesson, __________ is still a limiting factor. a)
the extreme cost
b)
the number of suitable sites
c)
the efficiency of solar systems
d)
the sun's energy
5. All of the following statements describe both biomass and fossil fuels, EXCEPT:
a)
carbon based and initially derived energy from the sun.
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b)
accounts for a large portion of energy consumed in the United States.
c)
used as transportation fuel and in many other ways.
d)
releases carbon dioxide into the atmosphere when burned.
6. If the price of a barrel of oil were to dramatically decrease, say from $90 per barrel to $30 per barrel, then which of the following would be true?
a)
reserves considered technically recoverable at the higher gas price would increase
b)
reserves considered economically recoverable at the higher gas price would decrease
c)
economically and technically recoverable reserves would stay the same
7. Petroleum is to transportation as natural gas is to:
a)
industry.
b)
buildings.
c)
heating and cooling.
d)
Commerce.
8. Geologists discover oil off the coast of an island in the Pacific Ocean. When estimating the total amount of technically recoverable oil, they state that "there is a 95% probability that at least
3.9 billion barrels of oil are recoverable, and there is a 5% probability that at least 12 billion barrels of oil are recoverable." Which of the following is true about the amount of economically recoverable oil at this same location?
a)
It will primarily depend on the market price of a barrel of oil.
b)
As long as oil is technically recoverable, it is also economically recoverable.
c)
It will be more than 3.9 billion barrels, but less than 12 billion barrels.
d)
It is the same as the low-end estimate of 3.9 billion barrels.
9. Electric cars are a cleaner form of transportation with less associated greenhouse gas emissions. At this time, most of our electricity, which is the source of energy needed to power these cars, comes from:
a)
coal.
b)
petroleum.
c)
natural gas.
d)
Renewable.
10. For an industry that needs both electricity and steam to power equipment, which of the following would be a good way to make efficient use of energy?
a)
nuclear fission
b)
cofiring
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c)
passive solar design
d)
cogeneration
11. You are tasked with developing a new national energy policy for the United States. Using your knowledge of current energy production and consumption in the United States, which of the following policy recommendations would be least pertinent to the United States today?
a)
Transportation policy and public transportation should be evaluated and improved.
b)
Nonoperational nuclear reactors and nuclear waste transport and storage should be addressed.
c)
The increasing rate of deforestation attributed to biomass energy should be assessed.
d)
The potential to build micro-hydropower facilities at existing dams should be assessed.
12. Many cities' sustainability plans for energy grow primarily out of a concern for:
a)
lowering electricity and gasoline prices.
b)
reducing greenhouse gas emissions.
c)
growing their economies by investing in technology.
d)
limiting the number of large power plants.
13. True or false? The fossil fuels, coal, natural gas, and oil, originated from the remains of organisms such as trees, plants, and tiny sea creatures.
a)
True
b)
False
14. In effort to lessen air pollution and harmful emissions, it would be more preferred to burn coal from:
a)
Kentucky.
b)
Pennsylvania.
c)
Montana.
d)
Illinois.
15. At this time, which of the following is NOT one of the limitations of large-scale wind turbine systems in the United States?
a)
good wind areas could not meet energy needs
b)
transmission to markets is not always possible
c)
wind is an intermittent source of fuel
d)
the initial investment can be significant
16. At present, most of the natural gas consumed in the United States is used by which of the following sectors?
a)
industrial
b)
transportation
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c)
residential
d)
electric power
17. In the United States, the implementation of large-scale wind turbines to meet the demand of the countries electricity needs is most limited by the:
a)
technology needed to generate the electricity from wind.
b)
need for more appropriate transmission systems.
c)
noise pollution created by the loud and menacing turbines.
d)
overall lack of wind areas needed to generate electricity.
18. In your lesson you were shown a flow chart of energy flows in the United States. According to that chart and the information presented, in the United States:
a)
most of the energy consumed is from domestic sources.
b)
more coal is consumed than any other fossil fuel.
c)
total consumption is significantly greater than the total supply.
d)
most of the energy consumed is from imported sources.
19. Which of the following statements correctly describes ethanol and methane?
a)
Ethanol is a derivative of biomass, while methane is the main constituent of natural gas.
b)
Both are derived from biomass and considered alternative fuel sources.
c)
Ethanol is a mixed fuel that includes fossil fuels and biomass, while methane is derived from coal.
d)
Both are forms of natural gas, which form under specific environmental conditions.
20. Many of the challenges currently faced by the nuclear industry are in part a result of a history that includes:
a)
over-inflated fears about the environmental impact of reactors.
b)
political reluctance to get behind nuclear technology.
c)
mismanagement and a poor understanding of the associated risks.
d)
poor reactor design, engineering, and construction.
21. In a low income or less developed) country, such as Haiti or Ghana, which of the following is
likely to be the most important source of energy?
a)
biomass
b)
oil and natural gas
c)
hydroelectricity
d)
coal
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22. In an industrializing or newly industrialized country, __________ is most often replaced by ___________ as the primary energy source.
a)
biomass; coal
b)
solar; biomass
c)
natural gas; oil
d)
coal; oil
23. True or false? Today, hydropower makes up a smaller proportion of the total electricity supply in the United States than it did in the 1950s.
a)
True
b)
False
24. Which of the following is the dominant renewable fuel source used to generate electricity in the United States?
a)
biomass
b)
wind
c)
solar
d)
hydro power
25. The most serious obstacle to the widespread implementation of renewable sources of electricity, like wind turbines and solar panels, in the United States, is:
a)
hydroelectric power has a strong lobby and dominates investment dollars and policy.
b)
investment is needed to support infrastructure upgrades and increase access and
use.
c)
renewables have their own waste and other environmental issues that must be addressed.
d)
the government has refused to financially and politically support the advancement of renewables.
26. True or false? Wind energy is ideal because it is relatively clean and easy to harness. However, good wind areas in the United States are limited and do not have the potential to make a significant contribution to the country's electricity needs.
a)
True
b)
False
27. American energy usage since World War II has been characterized by:
a)
increasing and less efficient consumption.
b)
increasing and more efficient consumption.
c)
decreasing and more efficient consumption.
d)
decreasing and less efficient consumption.
28. Of the total energy consumed in the United States, the largest proportion is for:
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a)
transportation.
b)
industrial use.
c)
commercial use.
d)
residential use.
29. Which of the following best describes why fossil fuels are regarded as a non-renewable energy resource?
a)
They are dirty sources of energy that emit greenhouse gases.
b)
Most are impossible to extract, even using modern technology.
c)
They will not regenerate at a rate that outpaces consumption.
d)
The market cannot support the gas prices required to reach deeper reserves.
30. All of the following are positive aspects of nuclear power generation, EXCEPT:
a)
as a result of past accidents, nuclear technology and monitoring have been improved.
b)
nuclear waste can be re-used.
c)
it is emission-free.
d)
nuclear power generation has a low environmental impact, especially in relation to kilowatts produced.
31. Geologists find that there are roughly 10 million barrels of oil in a rugged region of South America. Equipment exists to retrieve the oil, at a cost of roughly $90 per barrel. If the market price of oil is at $60 per barrel, these reserves are:
a)
both technically and economically recoverable.
b)
economically recoverable, but NOT technically recoverable.
c)
technically recoverable, but NOT economically recoverable.
d)
neither technically nor economically recoverable.
32. When building a home, with a few relatively simple modifications to the windows, roof, and building orientation, a homeowner can exploit:
a)
wind energy.
b)
solar energy.
c)
geothermal energy.
d)
biomass energy.
33. True or false? Similar to large-scale, commercial farming, the production of bioenergy can be energy intensive and degrade the soil.
a)
True
b)
False
34. True or false? Based on modern rates of consumption and reserve estimates made by the United States Geological survey, drilling for oil in the Arctic National Wildlife Refuge would allow
the United States to rely solely on this domestic source of oil for a little more than three years.
a)
True
b)
False
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35. Which of the following statements about electricity is true?
a)
electricity generated using renewable sources is expected to decrease in the coming years
b)
the United States currently produces a surplus of electricity stored in reserves for future use
c)
electricity is best used near its source, as transmission over long distances is less efficient
d)
electricity generation in the United States is NOT responsible for emissions of carbon dioxide
36. In the United States, renewable energy sources are used primarily:
a)
to power homes and businesses.
b)
for the agricultural industry.
c)
for self-sustaining industries, like pulp and paper.
d)
to generate electricity.
36. When referring to energy consumption, what is meant by the statement below?
"Consumption per dollar of gross domestic product has dramatically decreased."
a)
Americans are producing fewer economic outputs (goods and services) so energy consumption has decreased.
b)
Americans are producing economic outputs (goods and services), more efficiently.
c)
The amount of energy required to generate a dollar of output has increased.
d)
Americans are consuming less energy because they are buying fewer consumer goods. 37. Even with the most optimal conditions, at any scale, harnessing solar energy using photovoltaic cells:
a)
is inaccessible.
b)
lacks efficiency.
c)
is too expensive.
d)
requires too much land.
38. The Cascade Volcanic Arc is located in the United States Pacific Northwest, along the Pacific and North American plate boundary. Based on this information, this would be a good location for:
a)
micro-hydropower facilities.
b)
photovoltaic cells.
c)
wind turbines.
d)
geothermal heating plants.
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39. True or false? Like fossil fuels, biomass is carbon based and releases carbon dioxide when burned for energy.
a)
True
b)
False
40. The drawbacks (or negatives) of building new, large-scale hydroelectricity projects in the United States include all of the following, EXCEPT:
a)
the lack of appropriate technology.
b)
the disruption of natural water systems.
c)
the lack of suitable sites.
d)
the potential for displacing communities.
41. In terms of recovering oil from the ground at a location where reserves have been identified and are accessible, the most important factor would then be:
a)
political recoverability.
b)
technical recoverability
c)
geologic recoverability.
d)
economic recoverability.
42. You are charged with revamping the country's energy policy and want to increase the use of
renewables. You are exploring your options and decide to focus on _________________ because it is one of the most efficient energy sources, among fossil and non-fossil fuels alike, and it has experienced the most significant growth in the electric power generation market over the past several years.
a)
hydropower
b)
solar
c)
biomass
d)
Wind
43. True or false? Today it is estimated that fossil fuel supplies can be stretched indefinitely into the future because of the advances that have been made in technology.
a)
True
b)
False
44. The root cause of the disaster that occurred at the Chernobyl nuclear power facility could most accurately be summed up as _________________ during the Cold War era.
a)
the inefficiencies of nuclear power
b)
the hasty pursuit to develop nuclear technology
c)
the rash and reckless nature of politics
d)
the problem with communism
45. A large majority of the coal consumed in the United States is used to:
a)
power industrial equipment.
b)
generate electricity.
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c)
manufacture steel.
d)
heat and cool residences.
46. During the generation of electricity, steam is released. Potentially, the heat from this steam could be harnessed and used as an energy source. This is most appropriately referred to as:
a)
green energy.
b)
cogeneration.
c)
thermal energy.
d)
cofiring.
47. In recent history, coal production in the western United States increased relative to that in the eastern United States. Why would this be the case?
a)
environmental regulations are more stringent in the eastern United States
b)
coal found there is cleaner burning than that of the eastern United States
c)
coal reserves in the eastern United States are near depletion
d)
coal was only recently discovered in these states
Review Quiz: Urban Environments
1.
A shrinking population in cities like Flint and Detroit, Michigan, are, in part, a symptom of
which process?
a)
decentralization
b)
city beautiful
c)
gentrification
d)
urban planning
2. The fictional city of Poplarville developed around a prominent university and research center. Over time, Poplarville expanded outward in all directions, taking over the smaller industrial town of Brownstown, and the nearby commercial and retail center of Blackstone. Today Poplarville is an expansive urban area with multiple centers of activity. Poplarville's growth and urban form best fits the:
a)
Concentric Zone Model.
b)
Peripheral Model.
c)
Sector Model.
d)
Multiple Nuclei Model.
3. Which of the following is NOT a trend associated with the growth of the world's megacities?
a)
The world's largest urban agglomeration is located in Asia, and is projected to be there in the future.
b)
North American cities are on the decline, and none are projected to be megacities in 2025.
c)
The number of megacities worldwide is increasing, though growth is slowing in some cities.
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d)
In the year 2025, most of the world's megacities will be in the developing world.
4. The impetus behind the decentralization of American cities is/was:
a)
real estate values.
b)
transportation.
c)
economic opportunities.
d)
better schools.
5. Which of the following trends in sustainability is most likely to emerge when the population of an urban center decreases?
a)
urban agriculture
b)
certified green building projects
c)
hip, urban lofts
d)
improved public transit
6. True or false? Although low-density cities tend to consume more energy for transportation in and around the city, they tend to have less of a heat island effect than cities that are more densely developed.
a)
True
b)
False
7. Hollywood is a film and television district in Los Angeles, California. Hollywood is the location of Paramount Pictures, the Kodak Theater, and other related industries such as editing, props, post-production, and lighting. For this reason, Los Angeles, is a good example of:
a)
agglomeration.
b)
urban gentrification.
c)
a metropolis.
d)
a central business district.
8. In the mid-1800s, plans to develop a landscaped public park in New York City that would rival
the well-groomed public spaces of London and Paris began. An unsightly natural area of swamps and bluffs was eventually created, where the wealthy elites could take carriage rides and the working-class people could recreate and stay out of trouble. The creation of Central Park as it is described here was part of the:
a)
Romantic Movement.
b)
City Beautiful Movement.
c)
Green space Movement.
d)
Environmental Movement.
9. True or false? The core of an urban area tends to require less land than its surrounding suburbs to support a population of the same size.
a)
True
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b)
False
10. Which of the following presents the best opportunity for cities to reduce the amount of energy used by the largest consumer of energy in cities?
a)
creating bike lanes and pedestrian walking paths
b)
using buses to transport people into and out of the city
c)
using passive solar design to make new buildings more energy efficient
d)
designating green space or parks on the city's periphery
11. True or false? By the middle of the twentieth century, most of the world's population was living in urban areas.
a)
True
b)
False
12. Valuable farmland is being lost in America due to suburbanization. Which of the following has contributed most directly to this problem?
a)
the ease of commuting/traveling via automobile
b)
urban decay and the growth of jobs outside the city
c)
low-density building that is common in suburbs
d)
the declining value of land within the city
13. In regard to the models of urban form discussed in the lesson on urbanization, the ______________ more than anything else has degraded the economic power of the Central Business District in many American cities.
a)
railroad
b)
loop highway system
c)
automobile
d)
service economy
14. Around the time that Facebook was incorporated, the social media powerhouse moved its operation to Palo Alto, California. There were certain benefits to being near other tech companies that began in that area like Google, Intuit, Sun Microsystems and PayPal. Palo Alto provides a good example of:
a)
agglomeration.
b)
urban gentrification.
c)
a Central Business District.
d)
a venture capitol.
15. In the late 1800s, American cities began introducing electric streetcar lines running into and out of the central business district. Which of the following urban growth models would initially transform these cities following the adoption of streetcar lines?
a)
Concentric Zone Model
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b)
Multiple Nuclei Model
c)
Sector Model
d)
Peripheral Model
16. Which of the following cities, discussed in the Lesson on Urban Environments, has seen its urban form shaped predominantly by land use rents?
a)
East Lansing, Michigan, United States
b)
Chicago, Illinois, United States
c)
Manhattan, New York City, New York, United States
d)
Rio de Janeiro, Rio de Janeiro, Brazil
17. The first countries to experience urbanization, whereby more people were living in urban areas than rural areas, were:
a)
found in the periphery.
b)
also the first to industrialize.
c)
located in the tropics.
d)
the most densely populated.
18. Why do shrinking cities pose a problem for city planners?
a)
the land could be used for new businesses and industry.
b)
law enforcement does NOT want to patrol vacant neighborhoods.
c)
a city must continue to grow, NOT shrink, in order to remain viable.
d)
it is costly to maintain the infrastructure and services.
19. Early urban growth (mid-1800s) in the city of Chicago, Illinois was closely related to:
a)
transportation links.
b)
the automobile.
c)
financial markets.
d)
the central business district.
20. A city with a distinct Central Business District, probably consisting of many very tall buildings, would likely be a good example of which model of urban form?
a)
Multiple Nuclei Model
b)
Concentric Zone Model
c)
Peripheral Model
d)
Sector Model
21. In Lansing, Interstate-496 runs around the southern edge of the city. You can bypass the downtown area and use I-496 to reach Lansing Mall, Capital City Airport, office buildings, and suburban neighborhoods. This description reflects a ______________ model of development.
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a)
Multiple Nuclei Model
b)
Peripheral Model
c)
Sector Model
d)
Concentric Zone Model
22. Which of the following is NOT a reason for the start of the City Beautiful movement?
a)
Declining urban areas and decreasing populations near the city center.
b)
Poor sanitation systems and a desire to improve public health.
c)
Ugly cities, which featured housing and factories crowded together.
d)
Rapidly growing cities with inadequate housing and infrastructure.
23. According to your lesson, which of the following is evidence that the population of a city is growing rapidly and at a rate at which services, such as housing and utilities, cannot keep up?
a)
traffic congestion
b)
high-rise buildings
c)
squatter settlements
d)
high unemployment
24. The fictional city of Townsville has a Central Business District in the center of the city. Industry is located adjacent to the Central Business District, along transport lines, and surrounded by lower income housing. Zones of higher income housing are also adjacent to the city's Central Business District, and increase outward from the city. Development in the city of Townsville most resembles the:
a)
multiple nuclei model.
b)
sector model.
c)
concentric zone model.
d)
peripheral model.
25. True or false? The urban heat island effect is caused by an increase in carbon dioxide over cities. This makes the term urban heat island synonymous with global climate change in cities.
a)
True
b)
False
26. Which characteristic of a city has been shown to lower, and in some cases eliminate, the urban heat island effect?
a)
dense forest cover surrounding the city
b)
a more dense development pattern
c)
impervious surfaces such as concrete and asphalt
d)
irrigated grass and trees in otherwise arid environments
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27. The difference in form between a city that has a Central Business District, in which many of the buildings are tall and close together, and one that has lower density, in which buildings are shorter and more widely spaced, is most a result of:
a)
transportation networks.
b)
politics and policy.
c)
age and history.
d)
land use rents.
28. Urban growth in Europe and the United States was rapid during the 1800s and into the early
1900s, when most cities really took off. In places like India and China, urbanization is a more recent phenomenon, occurring in the late 1900s and into the 2000s. This pattern is best explained by which of the following processes?
a)
industrialization
b)
colonization
c)
intensive agriculture
d)
Agglomeration
29. According to some demographers, benefits of an increasingly urban world include:
a)
a reduction in carbon dioxide emissions and fuel consumption.
b)
a smaller burden on resources outside the city, such as water and forests.
c)
an overall decline in population growth and a more affluent society.
d)
increased access to health and human services for city dwellers.
30. In cities we find the opportunity to address many environmental problems because:
a)
most resource consumption occurs in cities.
b)
the most intelligent people choose to live in cities.
c)
cities are highly efficient compared to their rural counterparts.
d)
cities have the best infrastructure and transportation networks.
31. What did the earliest cities such as those of the Indus Valley in southwest Asia and in northern China have in common?
a)
natural military protection
b)
abundant mineral wealth
c)
fertile river floodplains
d)
access to trade routes
32. Which of the following statements about Levittown is TRUE?
a)
Levittown was the nation's first designed suburb; many of the original homes are unrecognizable today.
b)
Levittown was built atop fertile farmland and is in the process of being reclaimed in response to the Manhatta Project.
c)
Levittown is an example of failed urban planning; most of Levittown's homes are abandoned and in disrepair today.
d)
Levittown was built in response to deplorable conditions in New York City and is a result of the City Beautiful movement.
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33. True or False? Most of the world was living in urban areas by the beginning of the 18th century.
a)
True
b)
False
34. Though Manhattan is vastly different than it was pre-settlement, according to the video, which of the following is a reason that the Manhattan project is relevant to the borough today?
a)
It helps park managers understand what the ecology once was.
b)
It explains why designated green space curbs climate change.
c)
It creates beautiful artwork to be displayed at galleries.
d)
It encourages the development of rooftop gardens.
Review Quiz Climate Change:
1.
Over the long-term, agricultural yields in the American Midwest are expected to:
a)
increase due to a longer growing season. b)
decrease due to extreme weather, then increase as plants adapt.
c)
increase due to increased heat waves and heavy precipitation events. d)
decrease due to extreme weather and stress.
2. The greenhouse effect can result in the release of even more carbon dioxide into the atmosphere by:
a)
melting glaciers and ice caps.
b)
increasing ozone in the upper atmosphere.
c)
raising ocean temperatures.
d)
increasing plant growth.
3. ______________ help(s) regulate Earth's temperature by absorbing long wave radiation.
a)
Vegetation
b)
The Ozone Layer
c)
Carbon Dioxide
d)
The Oceans
4. Of all the greenhouse gases, carbon dioxide is the one of most concern because:
a)
it is dissolving the ozone layer and increasing UVB rays at the surface.
b)
it remains in the atmosphere forever once it is there.
c)
it is the most abundant in terms of anthropogenic emissions.
d)
it has the highest potential to trap heat.
5. The group of greenhouse gases known as hydroflourocarbons:
a)
account for the second largest source of greenhouse gas emissions.
b)
include gases that are used in place of ozone-depleting substances.
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c)
are the most naturally occurring gases in our atmosphere.
d)
are released primarily from agricultural practices.
6. True or false? Based on measurements taken from ice cores, the current level of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere is higher than at any other time for which we have a record.
a)
True
b)
False
7. Which of the following would be the most effective way to remove or store (that is, not release) the carbon dioxide when a forest is cleared?
a)
remove only the young trees and allow the mature trees to remain
b)
allow the trees to decompose, then till the soil for farming
c)
make durable wood products, such as furniture, from the mature trees
d)
burn the wood as a fuel source for heating and electricity
8. When comparing an atmosphere to a greenhouse, which of the following most closely functions as the glass?
a)
the troposphere
b)
the ozone layer
c)
the clouds
d)
gases in the atmosphere
9. Which of the following statements about climate and environmental change is TRUE?
a)
A majority of scientists agree that humans have caused an anthropogenic phenomenon known as the greenhouse effect whereby emissions of warming gases trap radiation and
heat the earth's atmosphere.
b)
Based on measurements taken from ice cores, the current level of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere is higher than at any other time for which we have a record.
c)
Although a majority of scientists agree that global climate change is occurring, there is still much debate among them over whether or not human actions are contributing.
d)
One of the biggest problems with determining if humans are contributing to global climate change is that there is no way to determine how much carbon dioxide was in the prehistoric atmosphere.
10. Which of the following best summarizes the two-part NPR story about Atlanta, Georgia, that you were asked to listen to in your lesson?
a)
Planned communities within urban downtowns can combat climate change, while also improving quality of life.
b)
One family's journey from suburban life to urban living and the sacrifices they made to reduce their carbon footprint.
c)
A high cost of living and fewer amenities are driving many families out of downtown Atlanta and into the suburbs.
d)
One family's fight for improved public transportation between the suburbs and downtown.
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11. Carbon sinks are places on earth that store carbon and include all of the following, EXCEPT:
a)
a cement factory.
b)
wood from trees.
c)
carbonate rocks.
d)
a herd of zebras.
12. What is significant about the Paris Agreement?
a)
Governments of the world are acting together and committing to a low carbon future.
b)
It is the first time targets have been set for reducing emissions.
c)
Developing and newly industrialized nations are held to the same standard as wealthy nations.
d)
It is the first legally binding agreement of its kind and includes penalties. 13. As you learned in the National Public Radio story, the Taylor family of Atlanta, Georgia was able to substantially reduce their carbon footprint. They did this primarily by:
a)
unplugging electronics and getting rid of their television.
b)
starting a recycling program and buying second-hand goods.
c)
planting a rooftop garden for produce and composting.
d)
reducing the distance they drove each week.
14. A rise in average annual temperatures and precipitation amounts, like that currently being experienced on Earth, is more than sufficient evidence to confirm that anthropogenic climate change is occurring.
a)
True. Proxy data indicates that temperatures and precipitation amounts are higher than at any time in recent history.
b)
False. Additional evidence needs to be presented in order to support anthropogenic climate change.
15. Greenhouse gases:
a)
trap long wave radiation, further heating the atmosphere.
b)
constitute a group of man-made gases in the atmosphere.
c)
block short wave radiation from reaching the Earth' surface.
d)
constitute a large proportion of all the gases in the atmosphere.
16. How does the origin or source area of a food item, such as grapes or strawberries, most affect greenhouse gas emissions?
a)
it determines whether or not agricultural practices will require fossil fuels and mechanization
b)
depending on the climate, more or less carbon is released from the soil
c)
it determines whether the food item is grown organically with sustainable practices
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d)
depending on the location, it may have to be transported many miles before it reaches the consumer
17. Unlike many of the other common carbon stores, fossil fuels are a carbon store that:
a)
is transformed into the most powerful type of carbon emission.
b)
has more carbon stored in it than any other carbon store.
c)
once released, cannot be restored on a human time scale.
d)
can absorb, store, and release carbon when activated.
18. The greenhouse gas that is released primarily by decaying and burning plants, the digestion process of livestock, and the combustion of fossil fuels is:
a)
methane.
b)
nitrous oxide
c)
sulfur dioxide.
d)
carbon dioxide.
19. True or false? Prior to the Industrial Revolution, greenhouse gases made up a very small proportion of our atmosphere. Today, greenhouse gases constitute a large proportion of our atmosphere.
a)
True
b)
False
20. What is significant about the Paris Agreement?
a)
Developing and newly industrialized nations are held to the same standard as wealthy nations.
b)
It is the first time targets have been set for reducing emissions.
c)
Governments of the world are acting together and committing to a low carbon future.
d)
It is the first legally binding agreement of its kind and includes penalties. Review Quiz- Natural Disasters
1.
An evacuation notice issued 24 hours in advance of an impending storm such as a hurricane is considered a part of:
a)
mitigation.
b)
preparedness.
c)
recovery.
d)
Response.
2. Having access to funds in a savings account and information via a smart phone, as well as holding a college degree, are all factors that are likely to ______________ in the wake of a hazard event.
a)
increase an individual's vulnerability
b)
decrease an individual's vulnerability
c)
decrease an individual's resilience
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d)
increase an individual's resilience
3. All of the following contributed to Haiti's disaster vulnerability, EXCEPT:
a)
most of the country's health and human services are financed by foreign aid.
b)
most of Haiti's population lives and works at the subsistence level.
c)
based on the region's geology, an earthquake was unexpected.
d)
political conflict and strife are common in the country.
4. The United Nation's Millennium Development Goals and their replacement Sustainable Development Goals are aimed at reducing society's vulnerability to natural disasters, primarily by:
a)
reducing the likelihood of hazards.
b)
improving access to technology.
c)
addressing social inequalities.
d)
modifying the physical environment.
5. A person who adheres to the dominant paradigm of disaster theory would suggest which of the following solutions to drought in the Horn of Africa?
a)
increasing investments in small businesses
b)
a family planning program to reduce population growth
c)
building more schools to educate the young people
d)
adopting high-yielding, drought resistant crop varieties
6. While the terms natural disaster and natural hazard may seem synonymous, the main element that distinguishes them is:
a)
money.
b)
policy.
c)
humans.
d)
weather.
7. In the days immediately following Hurricane Katrina, Proctor and Gamble deployed its mobile laundromat fleet to New Orleans -- a part of the "Loads of Hope" program, which brings comfort and clean clothes to people affected by a disaster. "Loads of Hope" would be considered a part of:
a)
mitigation.
b)
response.
c)
preparedness.
d)
Recovery.
8. Differences in the way Eritrea (a country in East Africa) responds to a severe drought and Arizona (a state in the Southwestern United States) responds to a severe drought is most likely to be influenced by which of the following factors?
a)
differences in seasonal climate patterns
b)
access to reserve water supplies
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c)
political and economic governance
d)
the types of crops grown and dietary preferences
9. True or false? According to your lesson, good governance, which includes identifying risks and taking action to reduce those risks, can prevent the occurrence of a natural hazard.
a)
True
b)
False
10. Hurricane Katrina, which made landfall near New Orleans in 2005, affected residents of different income groups in different ways. Many upper-and middle-income residents had the means to evacuate, while lower-income groups did not. This is an example of varying:
a)
physical vulnerability.
b)
economic vulnerability.
c)
social vulnerability.
d)
environmental vulnerability.
11. All of the following were given as reasons why Haiti has a heightened vulnerability to natural
disasters, EXCEPT:
a)
a colonial history that promoted natural resource exploitation
b)
a densely populated primate city, Port-au-Prince
c)
periods of political instability and regime changes
d)
Haiti's remote insular location in the Caribbean
12. Which of the following statements about natural disaster management is FALSE?
a)
USGS earthquake probability maps can influence building codes in the United States and reduce damage during an earthquake.
b)
Recovery focuses on the long-term well-being of a population after a disaster and is not typically a part of disaster management.
c)
Hazard preparedness legislation is often enacted or amended as a reaction to a natural disaster event.
d)
Land-use zoning is part of disaster mitigation and can be done in advance to reduce damage during a hazard event.
13. Following the Haitian earthquake in 2010, teams were charged with clearing debris and rubble from the streets. This would be considered a part of:
a)
response.
b)
preparedness.
c)
recovery.
d)
Mitigation.
14. The wildland urban interface is:
a)
the area that is most affected when a wildfire occurs.
b)
the zone where development is forbidden in at-risk areas.
c)
managed by the federal government to reduce wildfires.
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d)
an important consideration in wildfire mitigation.
15. According to the lesson on Natural Disasters, a catastrophic famine related to an ongoing and severe drought in the Horn of Africa (east coast) is most likely to be the result of which of the following?
a)
inadequate social and economic development
b)
inappropriate agricultural training and techniques
c)
lack of rainfall associated with global climate change
d)
the overconsumption of resources like water and food
16. Based on the hazard case studies presented in the Lesson on Natural Disasters, which of the following statements is incorrect?
a)
Political instability prior to a hazard event is unlikely to affect management strategies and plans in the wake of a disaster.
b)
High income countries will often recover more quickly than low income countries following a disaster of the same magnitude.
c)
Population density and socioeconomic status will often worsen the negative effects of a natural hazard.
d)
The initial disaster is often less costly than the aftereffects, such as disease, economic instability, and violence.
17. The frequency and severity of disasters has increased worldwide. Of the factors listed below, this is most likely attributable to:
a)
the rise of developing economies.
b)
rapid population growth in places.
c)
changes in weather patterns
d)
advances in technology.
18. According to the lesson, all of the following are plausible reasons why a person might live in a region highly susceptible to natural hazards, EXCEPT:
a)
they have no opportunity or lack the means to relocate to a safer place.
b)
management plans are effective at reducing the occurrence of hazards there.
c)
the scenery is pleasing and opportunities for recreation are good in that location.
d)
perceived risk is relatively low and they doubt a hazard will affect them.
19. Which of the following factors contributes most directly to the likelihood of a disaster?
a)
dominant weather patterns
b)
high social inequality
c)
a precarious coastal location
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d)
a history of seismic activity
20. A desire to live near a volcanic arc, such as the Cascades along the United States West Coast, for skiing and hiking opportunities is an example of a:
a)
perceived risk that is acceptable to all people.
b)
factor that makes a person more socially vulnerable to a disaster.
c)
reason why a person would live in a disaster prone area.
d)
factor that makes a person less resilient to a disaster.
21. True or false? Due to a dramatic influx of foreign aid in response to the Haitian earthquake of 2010, very few residents of the capital city of Port Au Prince lacked running water, safe shelter, and access to medical supplies.
a)
True
b)
False
22. Establishing buffer zones in coastal areas as a means of protection from hurricanes is an example of which component of disaster management?
a)
recovery
b)
mitigation
c)
preparedness
d)
Response
23. The population density of Bangladesh is high, particularly in the coastal zone. This is an example of:
a)
social vulnerability.
b)
environmental vulnerability.
c)
physical vulnerability.
d)
economic vulnerability.
24. The fact that people were still living in tents more than two years after the earthquake in Haiti most illustrates the country's _________________ vulnerability.
a)
residential
b)
physical
c)
environmental
d)
economic
25. Living in California you recognize that there is a chance that an earthquake could occur and that you and your home could be affected, but you also recognize that damage and loss of life is
really not probable. This statement is an example of your:
a)
resilience.
b)
perceived risk.
c)
Vulnerability
26. The biggest challenge facing wildfire management is:
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a)
an increase in arson among young people.
b)
private property and land ownership issues.
c)
lack of politically motivated mitigation measures.
d)
poor understanding of how wildfires spread.
27. Considering the environmental setting of New Orleans, at or below sea level along the United States' Gulf coast, the city is most at risk for damage from:
a)
mass-wasting events.
b)
geological hazards.
c)
hydro-meteorological hazards.
d)
biological hazards.
28. True or false? Humans cannot influence the occurrence of a natural hazard, but they can influence the severity of a natural disaster.
a)
True
b)
False
29. The city of Mumbai, India, experienced unprecedented flooding due to incessant rainfall on July 26, 2005. This paralyzed the entire city and left thousands stranded and in peril. Of the main reasons given why this rainfall caused such flooding in the densely populated city were factors such as poor drainage systems incapable of handling the heavy seasonal rains, insufficient and unplanned infrastructure, and degraded Mangrove systems, which serve as buffers during storm events.
Together, these factors would best reflect which of the following vulnerabilities?
a)
environmental
b)
economic
c)
physical
d)
Social
30. Saint Bernard Parish, Louisiana, and Palm Beach County, Florida, are both prone to hurricanes. The average household income and real estate values in Palm Beach County far exceed those of Saint Bernard Parish; therefore, Saint Bernard Parish has greater economic vulnerability.
a)
True. Any loss experienced by Saint Bernard Parish would likely be more financially devastating.
b)
False. Economic vulnerability is based on the sheer dollar value of the loss.
31. Of the factors listed below, an increase in the occurrence of natural hazards would be most attributable to:
a)
advances in technology.
b)
population growth and distribution.
c)
socio-economic development.
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d)
global climate change.
32. All of the following were given as reasons why Haiti has a heightened vulnerability to natural
disasters, EXCEPT:
a)
periods of political instability and regime changes
b)
a densely populated primate city, Port-au-Prince
c)
Haiti's remote insular location in the Caribbean
d)
a colonial history that promoted natural resource exploitation
33. You are driving along a roadway through the Appalachian Mountains of West Virginia. Up ahead you notice a barricade, and just beyond the barricade you see a pile of rubble in the middle of the road. It seems some rocks have broken off and toppled down the mountainside into the road. This geological event as it is described here is best categorized as:
a)
mass wasting.
b)
seismic activity.
c)
a natural disaster.
d)
liquefaction.
34. The tsunami that hit the northeast coast of Honshu, Japan in April 2011 was a result of tectonic activity near the margin of the Pacific and North American lithospheric plates. This tsunami would be categorized as a:
a)
mass wasting event.
b)
biological hazard.
c)
hydro-meteorological hazard.
d)
geological hazard.
35. Which of the following have reduced both Japan's and New Zealand's exposure to natural disasters?
a)
location with a limited risk of hazards
b)
good fortune and social resilience
c)
geographical position in the Pacific
d)
careful planning and a strong economy
36. Based on your understanding of disaster management and how it functions, which of the following is unlikely to be part of a hazard preparedness plan?
a)
Identifying vulnerable neighborhoods in Miami, Florida, and assisting residents with evacuation plans.
b)
Creating long-range forecast maps to predict the locations of future tornado outbreaks in the upper Midwest.
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c)
Organizing tornado search and rescue practice drills for first responders in cities across Oklahoma.
d)
Using airplane observations to monitor and track storm development in the Atlantic during hurricane season.
37. An evacuation notice issued 24 hours in advance of an impending storm such as a hurricane is considered a part of:
a)
response.
b)
preparedness.
c)
recovery.
d)
Mitigation.
19. Canceling local schools and closing government offices in advance of a severe weather system that is likely to bring 12 to 15 inches of snow and create poor driving conditions is an example of:
a)
response.
b)
recovery.
c)
mitigation.
d)
Preparedness.
20. As evidenced by the 2010 earthquake, Haiti is __________ natural disasters. [Select the best answer.]
a)
generally at a low-risk for
b)
resilient in the wake of
c)
surprisingly prepared for
d)
especially vulnerable to
Review Quiz- Globalization
1.
Which of the following statements about the Silk Road is FALSE?
a)
The silk trade between China and the west declined after silk worms were smuggled out of China.
b)
The Silk Road is not actually one road, but rather a network of routes across China.
c)
Silk and tea were the main commodities traded along the Silk Road.
d)
The Silk Road was first traveled by a Portuguese explorer looking to claim territory in the east.
2. Both the feudal system of Medieval Europe and the multinational corporations of today illustrate that throughout history power has been linked to:
a)
scale.
b)
capitalism.
c)
wealth.
d)
comparative advantage.
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3. The presence of a McDonald's restaurant on the Champs-Elysées in Paris, France, and a Walt Disney World Resort in Shanghai, China, are examples of globalization, but more specifically the idea of globalization and:
a)
homogeneity.
b)
space-time convergence.
c)
comparative advantage.
d)
geographic scale.
4. The process by which countries weaken their environmental, labor, and tax laws to compete in a globalized economy is known as the:
a)
'race to the top'.
b)
'race to the bottom'.
c)
'race to the finish'.
d)
'race to the cheapest'.
5. Which of the following statements about globalization is FALSE?
a)
Interactions at the local scale can influence interactions at the global scale.
b)
Globalization involves the blending of societies, cultures, and political systems.
c)
Globalization did not exist prior to the industrial revolution, when transportation improved.
d)
Comparative advantage is part of the global economic system and influences trade.
6. Many have touted social networks for their ability to connect the world and increase interaction among groups. Yet research has shown that most people still interact only with the people in their geographic area, more like themselves, and rarely reach out or connect with distant or different people (that is, those outside of their group) on these networking sites.
Which of the following concepts does this exemplify?
a)
transportation is the driving force behind globalization and the spread of capitalism
b)
fiber optics is the most recent technology that has contributed to space –time convergence
c)
globalization has drastically altered our world, building more homogenous communities
d)
human interaction is scale dependent, with minimal interaction at larger scales
7. The recent desiccation of the Aral Sea is basically the result of:
a)
a mismatch between a crop's needs and the available water resources.
b)
communism and unbalanced trade relationships following the cold war.
c)
a natural progression due to global climate change and desertification.
d)
the Green Revolution and adoption of high-yielding varieties.
8. The southern part of the Aral Sea was considered to be a lost cause following:
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a)
the opening of a pulp mill, which is a source of thermal pollution.
b)
the opening of a dam built to save the northern part.
c)
the detection of high levels of mercury in fish.
d)
an announcement that a free trade agreement with China had been signed.
9. When a bottle of lotion with palm oil or palm-oil derivatives listed on the ingredient list is purchased in the United States, in most cases none of the money paid by the purchaser is used to restore natural forests or habitats in the country where that palm oil came from. Forest and habitat loss, then, would be considered:
a)
incidental costs.
b)
aggregate costs.
c)
collateral damage.
d)
negative externalities.
10. Following the attacks of 11 September 2001, then House Majority Leader Tom DeLay remarked, "Nothing is more important in the face of a war than cutting taxes." The suggestion that an aspect of national economic policy could have global, political implications is an idea associated with the New World Order and:
a)
nested scales.
b)
the decline of nation-states.
c)
transnational corporations.
d)
Capitalism.
11. The city of San Francisco has a population of a little more than 800,000, twenty-percent of which are Chinese American. However, in the state of California, people of Asian ancestry only account for twelve percent of the total population. These statements is a good example of the affect that ______________ can have on geographic analysis.
a)
scale
b)
globalization
c)
heterogeneity
d)
Immigration
12. All world cities resemble one another, with the same tall skyscrapers of glass and steel and bustling streets jammed with many of the same car models. Most even contain a McDonald's franchise. This is an example of how globalization can:
a)
spread capitalism.
b)
increase pollution.
c)
lead to homogeneity.
d)
drive urbanization.
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13. Globalization is evidence that, as a population, we have overcome ________________ as a
barrier to the movement of people, ideas, and products.
a)
time
b)
tariffs
c)
distance
d)
Culture
14. Which of the following statements about Maquiladoras is TRUE?
a)
One benefit of Maquiladoras is that they offer Mexican workers increased employment opportunities.
b)
Because they are under global scrutiny, Maquiladoras have led to increased environmental regulation and better safety standards.
c)
The United States benefits from Maquiladoras because they keep associated toxic waste and pollution south of the border.
d)
Under the Maquila program, factories are on United States soil but can legally employ workers from Mexico.
15. The desiccation of the Aral Sea exemplifies all of the following, EXCEPT:
a)
mismanaged irrigation networks.
b)
anthropogenic environmental change.
c)
global environmental governance.
d)
negative externalities.
16. True or false? Both Mexico and the United States benefit from Maquiladoras. Maquiladoras provide jobs for the Mexican people, while pollution and toxic waste are kept out of the United States.
a)
True
b)
False
17. Which of the following statements about natural resources, toxic waste, and Africa is FALSE?
a)
Countries send their broken electronics to Africa, claiming they are a donation of used goods.
b)
Poor governance in some African countries paves the way for exploitation.
c)
Africa lacks natural resources, and this has been the incentive to recycle e-waste.
d)
Industrialized nations have an interest in Africa for commodities such as oil and timber.
18. Beginning with the earliest examples, we can see that economic globalization is based on:
a)
currency convertibility.
b)
wages and means.
c)
comparative advantage.
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d)
free trade agreements.
19. Which of the following inventions is the best example of space/time convergence?
a)
the book
b)
the hydroelectric dam
c)
the bicycle
d)
the coffee pot
20. You are vacationing in Paris, France and decide to eat at the McDonald's on the Champs-
Élysées. Outside the McDonald's, there are a number of people protesting the social and environmental impacts of powerful, American fast food chains like McDonalds. As part of the protest, several vendors are selling French specialty foods. This scenario includes components of all of the following, EXCEPT:
a)
multinational corporations and the new world order.
b)
globalization and increasing homogeneity.
c)
strengthening heterogeneity and upholding differences.
d)
free trade and comparative advantage.
Environmental History Quiz
1.
Generally speaking, Romantics, including writers and artists like Thoreau and Catlin, most supported the _____________ of resources.
a)
conservation
b)
management
c)
preservation
d)
development
2. Which of the following case studies does NOT exemplify the ideals of environmental history as presented in the Lesson Module: Environmental History: Attitudes, Ethics, and Policy?
a)
In 1701, Detroit was founded on the Detroit River, a seemingly endless, clean water supply; in 1824 the first pump was installed to meet the needs of a growing population.
b)
In 2010, Altai Philippines Mining Corporation was granted a permit to explore the small Pacific island of Sibuyan, a declared mangrove forest reserve.
c)
In the 1970s, contaminated soil and toxic waste in Love Canal, New York, resulted in the
evacuation of all residents and widespread health concerns.
d)
In 1917, a series of revolutions in Russia led to the downfall of the Russian Empire, and eventually the formation of the Union of Socialist Soviet Republics.
3. Which of the following human practices amplified the physical damage wrought by Hurricane Katrina?
a)
poor social and political organization of New Orleans, which led to a delayed recovery
b)
structural mitigation efforts along the Mississippi River that interfered with natural processes
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c)
excess emissions of Greenhouse Gasses from refineries and the presence of ships at the port
d)
the presence of sediment deposits on low-lying areas, which created large barrier islands
4. True or false? To consider yourself an environmentally ethical person you must only buy products labeled natural, plant-based, or organic.
a)
True
b)
False
5. True or false? The Pacific Railway Act allowed two railroad companies to construct two transcontinental rail lines, each connecting the east and west coasts of the United States.
a)
True
b)
False
6. As you read in the Lesson Module: Environmental History: Attitudes, Ethics, and Policy, Tyson Foods has a history of environmental negligence, including the improper disposal of chicken waste and emitting ammonia, a noxious gas, into the air.
These acts, and others like them, are a violation of:
a)
fair labor practices.
b)
environmental ethics.
c)
interstate commerce.
d)
environmental justice.
7. The Age of Enlightenment swept rapidly across Europe and had a profound impact on society. All of the following can be attributed to Enlightenment era thinking, except:
a)
the plantation system of the American south.
b)
Lewis and Clark's westward expedition.
c)
the study of epidemiology and vaccinations
d)
the installation of public sewer systems.
8. Examining the European conception of 'wilderness' and how that affected resource, economic, and political management in the colonial-era United States is a good example of:
a)
environmental history.
b)
environmental anthropology.
c)
wilderness studies.
d)
cultural geography.
9. Which of the following was NOT an immediate catalyst for the major environmental protections laws enacted or written in the United States in the 1960s and 1970s?
a)
the "Burning River"
b)
"Silent Spring"
c)
Love Canal
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d)
Exxon Valdez oil spill
10. True or false? The Raker Act reflects the American idea that even special wilderness should
be economically productive.
a)
True
b)
False
11. "Why should not we, who have renounced the king's authority, have our national preserves… not for idle sport or food, but for inspiration and our own true re-creation?" This quote, from Henry David Thoreau, reflects a ____________ attitude toward the settlement and land management policies of the eighteenth and early nineteenth centuries.
a)
Enlightenment
b)
Romantic
c)
Modernist
d)
Reformist
12. Dust storms in 1930s Kansas and Oklahoma were primarily the result of:
a)
poor access to water and other resources for farmers and ranchers.
b)
prevailing climatic conditions associated with a new climate regime.
c)
farming practices incompatible with environmental conditions.
d)
land abandonment and poverty during the Great Depression.
13. Which of the following was enacted to move people and goods between the coasts and encourage movement westward?
a)
the Transport Act
b)
the Homestead Act
c)
the Pacific Railway Act
d)
the Pendleton Civil Service Reform Act
14. True or false? According to the lesson, humans can have moral status, but the Earth and its creatures cannot.
a)
True
b)
False
15. Which of the following human practices amplified the physical damage wrought by Hurricane
Katrina?
a)
excess emissions of Greenhouse Gasses from refineries
b)
poor social and political organization of New Orleans
c)
artificial channels and levees on the Mississippi River
d)
the presence of oil platforms in the Gulf of Mexico
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16. Occurring early in the 19th century, which of the following events was noted as the impetus that paved the way for the United States to become a world power, due to the gains that were made?
a)
the Age of Enlightenment
b)
the Lewis and Clark Expedition
c)
the Industrial Revolution
d)
the Louisiana Purchase
17. According to your lesson, which of the following statements about pre-revolution settlement in America is false?
a)
A common sentiment was to use resources wisely because their extent was unknown.
b)
Deforestation was a common and widespread practice in the original colonies.
c)
Farming was a way of life for Europeans and they desired arable land and fields.
d)
Native Americans were dehumanized because of their land use practices.
18. Land runs were a phenomenon in the late nineteenth century, whereby people raced to claim lands that were at one time restricted, but were now being given to the public. The event that directly preceded and initiated Land Runs was the:
a)
passing of the Homestead Act.
b)
signing of the Pacific Railway Act.
c)
start of the Agricultural Revolution.
d)
Louisiana Purchase.
19. According to the Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change:
a)
human induced climate change is occurring, but natural climate change is equally of concern.
b)
it is more likely than not that natural processes are the cause of global climate change in
the recent past.
c)
it is more likely than not that humans are the cause of global climate change in the
recent past.
d)
temperatures on earth are increasing, but the cause cannot be determined at this time.
20. In 1891, Congress enacted the Forest Reserve Act, empowering presidents of the United States to set aside parcels of public land as national forest reserves. Which of the following statements regarding the conservation/preservation debate of this time is false?
a)
conservation espouses the idea that forests are sacred spaces
b)
national forests were initially established as managed reserves
c)
preservation was not supported by Congress and President Cleveland
d)
Muir advocated preservation while Pinchot advocated conservation
21. True or false? Based on your understanding of the historical context in which the National Park Service was established, evaluate the following statement:
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"The primary goal of the National Park Service is to promote biodiversity in a dynamic ecological
setting."
a)
True
b)
False
22. Urban parks, such as Detroit's Campus Martius and Chicago's Lincoln Park, are the result of
a desire to allow nature to exist and be close to nature in a natural setting, even in an urban environment. Ideas like this were most emphasized by the:
a)
Raker Act.
b)
Enlightenment.
c)
National Park Service.
d)
Romantic Movement.
3. It is 1868 and you are residing on a 160 acre plot of land in north central Nebraska. You have
had two successful growing seasons and have built yourself a quaint farmhouse. Your present lifestyle is most likely the result of:
a)
the Homestead Act.
b)
the Raker Act.
c)
the Manifest Destiny.
d)
the Pacific Railway Act.
4. Which of the following was the first to be given the official designation of National Park?
a)
Hot Springs
b)
Yellowstone
c)
Yosemite
d)
Grand Canyon
5. Which of the following statements about the damming of the Hetch Hetchy is true?
a)
the National Park Service stepped in and settled the debate 1913, siding with conservation
b)
Pinchot was a preservationist who argued that the river should remain untouched
c)
the Raker Act was passed to discourage the constructions of future dams in the west
d)
the conservationists prevailed and, in the end, the dam was constructed
6. The study of communicable diseases, public works, and westward expansion in the eighteenth and nineteenth century United States have their roots in the:
a)
Revolutionary War.
b)
Wilderness Ethic.
c)
Protestant Reformation.
d)
Enlightenment.
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7. The vision statement of the Tennessee State Park system states that the purpose of Tennessee's State Parks is to preserve the natural beauty of the area. They emphasize that "Even if a person cannot travel to a state park, there is value in knowing that these special places exist and will be protected for future generations to experience."
In this statement they are referring specifically to what is known as the ____________ value of parks.
a)
economic
b)
intrinsic
c)
future
d)
Preservation
8. When Lewis and Clark, and later other early Americans, arrived at the Pacific Ocean they found that _______________; an idea that eventually led to the conservation and preservation of lands
a)
most Americans would not want to live on lands to the west
b)
they could easily build a railroad between the coasts
c)
natural resources were plentiful and should be used
d)
the American territory and resources were not endless
9. True or false? Aldo Leopold's A Sand County Almanac is a normative or ethical statement (that is, it uses descriptive information) about how humans should engage with their environment, whereas Rachel Carson's Silent Spring is an empirical argument that uses case studies to show the impacts of DDT.
a)
True
b)
False
10. True or false? Aldo Leopold's A Sand County Almanac is a normative or ethical statement (that is, it uses descriptive information) about how humans should engage with their environment, whereas Rachel Carson's Silent Spring is an empirical argument that uses case studies to show the impacts of DDT.
a)
During the late 19th and early 20th century, gradual climate change led to desertification in North Africa, gradually destroying the so-called 'Granary of Rome.'
b)
From the 1930s until late in the Soviet era, resettlement programs forcibly moved millions of people placing pressure on the landscape to stimulate a fledgling Soviet environmental movement.
c)
During the 18th centuries, disease wiped out the local population of the valleys near Veracruz, Mexico, leaving behind abandoned agriculture fields.
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d)
In the late 1800s, the American government created Indian Boarding Schools, which forced many young Native Americans to assimilate into modern American culture.
11. Settlement and settlement patterns of the Great Plains were most encouraged and enhanced by the:
a)
Pacific Railway Act.
b)
Manifest Destiny Program.
c)
Louisiana Purchase.
d)
Homestead Act.
12. Challenges facing the National Park Service today include all of the following, except:
a)
a decreasing number of visitors.
b)
air pollution, water pollution, and solid waste.
c)
increased vehicular and foot traffic.
d)
reductions in funding to manage the parks.
13. Westward exploration and expansion was first made possible by:
a)
the Reconnaissance Mission.
b)
the Louisiana Purchase.
c)
the Treaty of Versailles.
d)
the Pacific Railway Act.
14. Which of the following statements about the Louisiana Purchase is FALSE?
a)
The Lewis and Clark expedition was commissioned to explore the newly acquired land, including its plants and animals.
b)
Jefferson initially wanted to purchase the territory to gain control of the west coast's vast natural resources.
c)
Purchasing the territory essentially doubled the United States' land area and extended it west to the Pacific coast.
d)
It was the impetus for westward expansion, and eventually led to the Homestead and Pacific Railway Acts.
15. The intrinsic value of a national park is most regarded by:
a)
conservationists.
b)
government agencies.
c)
economists.
d)
Preservationists.
16. Throughout the twentieth century challenges to the conservation and preservation of the natural environment were most related to:
a)
rapid population growth.
b)
increasingly limited public interest.
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c)
agriculture and other land use practices.
d)
economic pressures from industry.
17. According to the Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change:
a)
temperatures on earth are increasing, but the cause cannot be determined at this time.
b)
it is more likely than not that humans are the cause of global climate change in the
recent past.
c)
human induced climate change is occurring, but natural climate change is equally of concern.
d)
it is more likely than not that natural processes are the cause of global climate change in
the recent past.
18. Occurring early in the 19th century, which of the following events was noted as the impetus that paved the way for the United States to become a world power, due to the gains that were made?
a)
the Age of Enlightenment
b)
the Lewis and Clark Expedition
c)
the Louisiana Purchase
d)
the Industrial Revolution
19. The Age of Enlightenment swept rapidly across Europe and had a profound impact on society. All of the following can be attributed to Enlightenment era thinking, except:
a)
the study of epidemiology and vaccinations
b)
the installation of public sewer systems.
c)
the plantation system of the American south.
d)
Lewis and Clark's westward expedition.
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