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Micro exam 5 Study online at https://quizlet.com/_bscbhj 1. The concept of treating all samples, whether known or unknown, as poten- tially hazardous (or pathogenic) mate- rials is known as... universal precautions 2. List at least 3 observations a re- searcher would be sure to note while assessing an unknown microbial sam- ple. size and shape motility gram status chemical reactions color photo/drawing 3. While observing an unknown sample of limited amounts, a researcher must determine the following observations: (1) the presence of any motility and (2) its gram status using the same sam- ple- the liquid sample cannot be di- vided. Which would you determine first and why? The motility should be determined first because a gram stain requires a wet mount which means there will be heat fixing involved. Heat fixing will kill a living organism making it impossible to be able to observe mobility after a gram stain is done. 4. A facultative anaerobe is a microor- ganism capable of growth under what conditions? A facultative anaerobe is capable of growth under aerobic and anaero- bic conditions. 5. As streptococcus is catalase negative would it thrive or die in the presence of peroxides? Why? It would die in the presence of per- oxides because the strep would be unable to breakdown the peroxide. 6. Streptococcus is most often streaked onto: Blood agar 7. True or false: The Lancefield groups are used to subdivide antigenic groups of gamma- hemolytic strepto- coccus. False 8. The distinctions for Lancefield sub- grouping lie in its: SATA Carbohydrate composition 1 / 4

Micro exam 5 Study online at https://quizlet.com/_bscbhj 9. Left untreated, strep throat can progress to A1, which displays A2 he- molytic activity. A1 Rheumatic fever A2 beta 10. True or false: Under most circum- stances, staphylococcus can be found in 30% of human population where it remains pathogenic. False 11. When a bacterium neither harms nor benefits from the host which it obtains nutrients it is referred to as being... commesual 12. Match the infection to its description 1. Invasion 2. Evasion 3. Transmission 1. Pathogen passes through or be- tween cells to access deeper tis- sues and nutrients 2. Pathogen suppresses host's im- mune system so it can continue replicating 3. Pathogen is passed to another host to restart lifecycle 13. Match the following symptoms with their respective diseases 1. Childhood skin disease near mouth/nose 2. Infection of thin, transparent scleral tissue syndrome 3. Infection occurs at the time of birth 4. Pus-filled lesions on skin or hair 5. Ruptured pustules; treated with penicillin neonatorum 1. Impetigo 2. Conjunctivitis 3. Ophthalmia 4. Folliculitis 5. scalded-skin 14. True or false: Staphylococcus is the only causative agent of conjunctuvitis. False 15. True or False: Tuberculosis is best identified by a gram-stain False 16. True 2 / 4

Micro exam 5 Study online at https://quizlet.com/_bscbhj True or false: When located outside of the lung, TB is usually non-infectious. 17. Identify the disease based on the fol- lowing (sata): It is a small acid fast rod usually re- maining asymptomatic for up to 20 years. It affects the skin, nerves, upper respiratory tract, and eyes of infected individuals. Hansen's disease Leprosy 18. True or false: Only directly ingesting the pre-formed clostridium toxin (nei- ther the bacteria nor spores) will cause disease in adults. True 19. While visiting his grandparents, a 10-year old child has green beans for dinner that were harvested from his grandparents' garden and canned the previous year. Severe illness sets in and the child is taken to the hospital. Botulism is suspected, but what form? Explain. Foodborne botulism would be sus- pected because the child would be too old for it to be considered infant botulism. The green beans were probably improperly canned. 20. True or false: There are currently no cures for tetanus True 21. Describe the symptoms and treatment regimen for someone infected with Clostridium perfringens. Symptoms- intense gas produc- tion, necrosis, fever, and swelling Treatment: removal of necrotic tis- sue, antibiotics, and possible am- putation. 22. The alpha-toxin perfringolysis is asso- ciated with which condition caused by gram-positive anaerobic bacteria? Gas gangrene 23. You develop a fever, chills, and pneu- monia after recently returning from Legionaries. No, legionella cannot be spread simply by direct contact 3 / 4

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Micro exam 5 Study online at https://quizlet.com/_bscbhj getaway weekend where you sat in a hot tub. What bacterial disease would a doctor suspect is causing your symp- toms? would the doctor suspect you contracted it from another person? between people legionella can only be transmitted through droplets small enough to be breathed in. 24. True or false: Pneumonic plague is of- ten characterized by painfully swollen lymph nodes. false 25. Which form of the plague is highly vir- ulent? What does it target? Pneumonic plague is highly virulent and targets the respiratory (lungs) systems. 26. Identify the following disease Lyme disease 27. Gonnorrhea is caused by: Diplococcic bacteria 28. True or false: Chlyamidia is an obligate parasite and as such can be grown on agar plates. False 29. Match the following diseases with their respective symptoms if left untreated. 1. Gonorrhea: cardiac and neuro- logical complications 2. Syphilis: paralysis, blindness, and dementia 3. Chlamydia: sore throat, ocular discharge, and fever 4 / 4

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